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Banking Awareness July 2019 Quiz

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Banking Awareness July 2019 Quiz

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The article Banking Awareness Quiz includes Banking Awareness July 2019 Quiz with an explanation, analysis, and issues of current events in the month. And these quizzes will help in the Competitive Exams like IBPS, RBI Grade B, SBI PO, RRB and other banking examinations.


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Q1. World Water Day is Observed on_______.

    A. 22nd March
    B. 2rd3 April
    C. 15th September
    D. 1st October
    Answer: A


Q2. Which state has become India’s first fully organic state?

    A. Tripura
    B. Sikkim
    C. Himachal Pradesh
    D. Haryana
    Answer: B


Q3. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan has distinguished himself in which of the following fields?

    A. Nuclear Physics
    B. Agriculture
    C. Astrophysics
    D. Medicine
    Answer: B


Q4. Baglihar Hydro Electric Power Project is located in which Indian state?

    A. Himachal Pradesh
    B. Jammu and Kashmir
    C. Uttarakhand
    D. Punjab
    Answer: B


Q5. “Elephanta Island” is located in which state?

    A. Karnataka
    B. Odisha
    C. West Bengal
    D. Maharashtra
    Answer: D


Q6. On which date, the World Hindi Day is observed?

    A. January 10th
    B. December 24th
    C. March 11th
    D. September 14th
    Answer: A


Q7. Jallikattu, a bullfighting is popular in which of the following states?

    A. Karnataka
    B. Telangana
    C. Tamil Nadu
    D. Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: C


Q8. Who was the rst Indian to go into space?

    A. Satish Dhawan
    B. Ravi Malhotra
    C. Rakesh Sharma
    D. Mohan Prakash
    Answer: C


Q9. Woody Island is located in which of the following sea?

    A. Arabian Sea
    B. Bay of Bengal
    C. South China Sea
    D. Red Sea
    Answer: C


Q10. ‘Yen’ is the currency of _____.

    A. China
    B. France
    C. Britain
    D. Italy
    Answer: D


Q11. Kanha Tiger Reserve is situated in Mandla district of ______.

    A. Rajasthan
    B. Madhya Pradesh
    C. Maharashtra
    D. Uttar Pradesh
    Answer: B


Q12. The headquarters of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) is located in which of the following cities?

    A. Paris
    B. Gurugram
    C. Hyderabad
    D. Beijing
    Answer: B


Q13. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of ______.

    A. Britain
    B. U.S.A.
    C. Japan
    D. Canada
    Answer: B


Q14. Unakoti hill, an ancient Shaivite place of worship, is located in which state of India?

    A. Uttarakhand
    B. Tamil Nadu
    C. Odisha
    D. Tripura
    Answer: D


Q15. Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state of India?

    A. Bihar
    B. Kerala
    C. Odisha
    D. Telangana
    Answer: C


Q16. Headquarters of National Film Archive of India_____.

    A. Pune
    B. Chennai
    C. Bangalore
    D. Mumbai

    Answer: A


Q17. Duduma falls are located on which of the following rivers in India?

    A. Narmada River
    B. Godavari River
    C. Machkund Rive
    D. Kalahandi River
    Answer: C


Q18. Who termed the Coin as Rupiya?

    A. Farrukhsiyar
    B. Akbar
    C. Sher Shah
    D. Aurangzeb
    Answer: C


Q19. Rihand Thermal Power Station is located in which state of India?

    A. Bihar
    B. Uttar Pradesh
    C. West Bengal
    D. Odisha
    Answer: B


Q20. What is the currency of Hungary?

    A. Cedi
    B. Marka
    C. Forint
    D. Won
    Answer: C


Q21. Hirakud Dam is built on which river?

    A. Sabarmati
    B. Mahanadi
    C. Rushikulya
    D. Hugli
    Answer: B


Q22. What is the capital of Cambodia?

    A. Sofia
    B. Phnom Penh
    C. Pyongyang
    D. Moscow
    Answer: B


Q23. ‘.JPG’ extension refers usually to what kind of le?

    A. Animation/Movie file
    B. Image file
    C. MS Encarta document
    D. System file
    Answer: B


Q24. What is CNG?

    A. Complete Natural Gas
    B. Compressed Normal Gas
    C. Complete Normal Gas
    D. Compressed Natural Gas
    Answer: D


Q25. What is the full form of NPCI?

    A. Nature of Payments Corporation of India
    B. National Power Corporation of India
    C. National Payments Corporation of India
    D. National Potential Corporation of India
    Answer: C

Q1. Which of the following is not a source of Funds of a commercial bank?

    A. Borrowings from RBI
    B. Deposits
    C. Capital
    D. Call money borrowings
    Answer: D


Q2. What does ‘NOSTRO’ account means?

    A. An account opened by a foreign bank in India with their corresponding banks in INR for settlements in INR.

    B. An account opened by foreign citizens other than NRIs in India with foreign banks in foreign currency to convert Indian rupee to that currency and remit back to their own country.

    C. An account opened by foreign citizens other than NRIs in India with Indian banks in INR for their expenses in India.

    D. An account opened by an Indian bank in the foreign countries in their banks and in that country currency for settlement in that country’s currency.
    Answer: D


Q3. M1, M2, M3, and M4 in banking are used to measure which of the following?

    A. Money supply
    B. Unemployment
    C. Industrial production
    D. Balance of payment
    Answer: A


Q4. Special Drawing right is an international practice of drawing funds. Which of the following institutions control this special funding facility?

    A. International Monetary Fund
    B. Asian Development Bank
    C. Federal Reserve
    D. European Common Market
    Answer: A


Q5. A savings as well as current account should be treated as inoperative / dormant if there are no transactions in the account for over a period of _____ years

    A. One
    B. Two
    C. Three
    D. Four
    Answer: B


Q6. In “STRIPS” R stands for

    A. Revenue
    B. Rate
    C. Registered
    D. Reserve
    Answer: C


Q7. PIN is the numeric password which is separately mailed/handed over to the customer by the bank while issuing the ATM Debit / Credit card. What is the expanded a form of PIN?

    A. Permanent Identification Number
    B. Personal Identification Number
    C. Personal Index Number
    D. Personal Information Number
    Answer: B


Q8. Which of the following is/are known as banker’s bank?

    A. SBI
    B. NABARD
    C. RBI
    D. All of these
    Answer: C


Q9. According to the report from property consultancy Knight Frank, what is the rank of India among the top capital importing countries globally?

    A. 11
    B. 15
    C. 17
    D. 20
    Answer: D


Q10. The hundred rupee currency note in India bears the signature of

    A. Finance Minister of India
    B. President of India
    C. Prime Minister of India
    D. General Manager of Note Printing Press
    Answer: D


Q11. The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) is an initiative of the _____.

    A. World Bank
    B. IMF
    C. European Union
    D. United Nations Climate Change Conferences
    Answer: C


Q12. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced an extension of timings for customer transactions through Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) from 4:30 PM to ______.

    A. 5:00 PM
    B. 6:00 PM
    C. 7:00 PM
    D. 8:00 PM
    Answer: B


Q13. Who monitors the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) in commercial banks?

    A. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
    B. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
    C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
    D. Government of India (GOI)
    Answer: A


Q14. Which of the following is India’s first Credit Rating Agency?

    A. ICRA
    B. CRISIL
    C. ONICRA
    D. CARE
    Answer: B


Q15. In India the ination is calculated on the basis of which of the following indexes?

    A. Wholesale Price Index (wPI)
    B. Consumer Price Index (CPI)
    C. Cash Reserve Ratio
    D. Sensitive Index of Bombay Stock Exchange (Sensex)
    Answer: B


Q16. Which Indian education technology startup has bagged a $25,000 global tech prize?

    A. Nayi Disha
    B. Collegedekho
    C. Dost Education
    D. Gyan Labs
    Answer: C


Q17. Under Niti Aayog, the Regional Councils is chaired by ___.

    A. Prime Minister
    B. Prime Minister or his nominee
    C. Vice – Chairman
    D. Chief Executive Officer
    Answer: B


Q18. IFSC is an 11- alphanumeric code with the rst four alphabetic characters representing the _____.

    A. Bank Branch
    B. Bank Name
    C. City Name
    D. Both 1 & 2
    Answer: B


Q19. IMPS is a mode of Payment transfer. Here IMPS stand force C a a C

    A. Immediate mode payment system
    B. Immediate payment service
    C. Immediate mode of payment service
    D. Indian mode of payment service
    Answer: B


Q20. On 10, April 2019, which of the following companies has launched new cloud platform ‘Anthos’ which allow users to run applications from anywhere?

    A. Twitter
    B. Facebook
    C. Yahoo
    D. Google
    Answer: D


Q21. Credit rating agency ‘Fitch’ has reduced the India’s growth forecast for the current scal 2019-20 from 6.8% to ____.

    A. 6.5%
    B. 6.4%
    C. 6.3%
    D. 6.6%
    Answer: D


Q22. Which of the following banks has launched ‘Bank of Wheels’ service?

    A. Union Bank of India
    B. Canara Bank
    C. Indian Overseas Bank
    D. State Bank of India
    Answer: C


Q23. Which bank has signed the pact with Bharti Axa to distribute insurance products?

    A. Bank of Maharashtra
    B. Karnataka Bank
    C. PNB
    D. ICICI
    Answer: B


Q24. Which of the following banks has launched India’s first ‘Green Car Loan’ to encourage customers to buy electric vehicles?

    A. State Bank of India
    B. Union Bank of India
    C. Bank of Baroda
    D. Punjab National Bank
    Answer: A


Q25. Who has become the first public sector bank in India to meet RBI’s EMV mandate?

    A. HDFC Bank
    B. Indian Overseas Bank
    C. Union Bank of India
    D. Canara Bank
    Answer: D

Q1. The Government of India has raised for ling loan recovery application in the Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRT) by banks and financial institutions to ___.

    A. Rs. 5 lakh
    B. Rs. 10 lakh
    C. Rs. 15 lakh
    D. Rs. 20 lakh
    Answer: D


Q2. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) was working on which of the following method’s guidelines, that will allow insurers to check the products before being available in the market in a particular geography or set of policyholders?

    A. laboratory house
    B. Regulatory Sandbox
    C. Safeguard
    D. Safe space
    Answer: B


Q3. The Andhra Pradesh Government has launched which mobile platform, to enable small-scale farmers to market their produce at reasonable prices?

    A. e-Bandhan
    B. e-Suraksha
    C. e-Rythu
    D. e-Friendly
    Answer: C


Q4. The World Bank launched “Bond-I”, the world’s first bond to be created, allocated, transferred and managed through its life cycle using distributed ledger technology. What is the full form of “Bond-I”?

    A. Black memory operated new investment
    B. Blockchain operated a new debt instrument
    C. Bond operated a new debt instrument
    D. Blockchain organized new debt investment
    Answer: B


Q5. Ashish Kumar Bhutani has been appointed as Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of which of the following schemes?

    A. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana Scheme
    B. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana Scheme
    C. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana Scheme
    D. Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana
    Answer: B


Q6. A unique function of a bank is to create credit. Which of the following factors does not determine the credit creation power of banks?

    A. Amount of cash reserve in the country
    B. Cash Reserve Ratio
    C. Special Drawing Rights
    D. Monetary policy of the central bank

    Answer: C


Q7. Which one of the following banks were nationalized in the second wave of nationalization in 1980?

    A. Central Bank of India
    B. Bank of India
    C. Syndicate Bank
    D. Corporation Bank
    Answer: D


Q8. Reserves which can act as a liquidity buffer for commercial banks during crisis times are __-.

    A. CAR
    B. CRR
    C. CAR and CRR
    D. CRR and SLR
    Answer: D


Q9. What does ‘P’ stands for in ‘MPC’?

    A. Policy
    B. Public
    C. Partnership
    D. Payment
    Answer: A


Q10. Planning for Retirement Saving is a type of

    A. Banking Option
    B. Stock Market Option
    C. Branding
    D. Financial Planning
    Answer: D


Q11. What are masala bonds?

    A. Rupee denominated domestic bonds
    B. Rupee denominated overseas bonds
    C. Dollar-denominated overseas bonds
    D. Dollar-denominated domestic bonds
    Answer: B


Q12. Which Mutual Funds company had surpassed ICICI Prudential MF to gain top position?

    A. Kotak Mahindra Mutual Funds
    B. Birla Sun Life Mutual Funds
    C. HDFC Mutual FundS
    D. Indiabulls Mutual Funds
    Answer: C


Q13. India had permitted which Iranian bank to open its branch in Mumbai?

    A. EN Bank
    B. Bank Maskan
    C. Bank Pasargad
    D. Parsian Bank
    Answer: C


Q14. The Reserve Bank of India will introduce ‘Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions’ to provide the cost-free mechanism to redress grievances of customers related to digital transactions. The detailed scheme will be introduced by RBI by the end of _____.

    A. March 2019
    B. January 2019
    C. April 2019
    D. June 2019
    Answer: B


Q15. Which of the following financial company has received RBI license to start a non-banking financial company (NBFC) biz?

    A. New York Life Insurance
    B. Capital One Financial
    C. Kirloskar Capital
    D. Principal Financial Group
    Answer: C


Q16. PNB Metlife has unveiled an Articial Intelligence (AI)-powered customer service app ______.

    A. Khushi
    B. M-Pesa
    C. PayPal
    D. YONO
    Answer: A


Q17. Which of the following component of the external sector comes under Current Account in India?

    A. FDI
    B. Interest payments received by government
    C. External Commercial Borrowings
    D. FII
    Answer: B


Q18. The Global Gender Gap Report is released by which of the following organizations?

    A. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
    B. World Economic Forum (WEF)
    C. World Bank
    D. UNICEF
    Answer: B


Q19. Demand draft is a negotiable instrument issued by a certain bank that directs the other bank or one of its own branches to pay a certain sum of money to the payee. A demand draft in which the payment is made only after the specified period is known as ____.

    A. Post Dated Demand Draft
    B. Term Draft
    C. Time Draft
    D. Ante Dated Demand Draft
    Answer: C


Q20. RBI is the lender of the last resort. It means _________.

    A. RBI advances money to Government whenever there is an emergency
    B. Commercial banks have to keep their funds with the RBI
    C. It comes to help banks in times of crisis
    D. All of the above
    Answer: C


Q21. What is the maximum limit for a loan under the Tarun scheme of Mudra Bank loan Yojana?

    A. Rs. 20 Lakhs
    B. Rs. 5 Lakhs
    C. Rs. 10 Lakhs
    D. Rs. 15 Lakh
    Answer: C


Q22. Which of the following does not constitute an asset on the Balance sheet of a company?

    A. Cash
    B. Amounts receivable
    C. Tools and equipment
    D. Capital stock
    Answer: D


Q23. When banks accept a fixed sum of money from an individual for a definite term and pay on maturity with interest, the deposit is known as

    A. Term Deposit
    B. Demand Deposit
    C. Bond
    D. Mortgage
    Answer: A


Q24. The European Central Bank (ECB) has launched ‘TIPS’ an innovative pan-European service for settling electronic payments instantly. TIPS enables payment service providers to offer fund transfers to their customers in real-time and around the clock, every day of the year. What is the expanded form of ‘TIPS’?

    A. TARGET instant payment server
    B. TRANSFER instant payment system
    C. TARGET instant payment settlement
    D. TARGET instant payment service
    Answer: C


Q25. As per the 2019 Global Economics Prospect released in Washington, what is India’s GDP growth forecast for FY 2018-19?

    A. 6.8%
    B. 6.1%
    C. 7.3%
    D. 7.9%
    Answer: C

Q1. Banks are authorized to sell third party products. Which are these products?

    A. Mutual funds
    B. Term deposits
    C. Credit cards
    D. Gift cheques
    Answer: A


Q2. Which of the following identifies as a Foreign exchange transaction?

    A. Payment through international debit cards
    B. Purchase of foreign currency
    C. Negotiating inland bills of exchange
    D. All the above
    Answer: D


Q3. When RBI raises the Cash reserve Ratio rate what action are the banks required to take?

    A. They have to deposit additional money with RBI as reserve money
    B. Banks are required to increase their lending to the priority sector
    C. Banks also increase their lending and deposit rates
    D. All the above
    Answer: A


Q4. Almost all banks in India are providing special schemes for providing banking services to the rural poor. What is this concept known as?

    A. Trade finance
    B. Investment banking
    C. Priority sector loaning
    D. Financial inclusion
    Answer: D


Q5. RBI has sold its entire stake except 1 percent in which of the following organizations?

    A. DICGC
    B. NABARD
    C. SIDBI
    D. National Housing Bank
    Answer: B


Q6. Organization of workers in which of the following ways has proved to be effective in providing microfinance by banks and financial institutions to the rural poor?

    A. Shiksha sevaks
    B. Self-help groups
    C. Link workers
    D. Chit fund members
    Answer: B


Q7. Bank rate as fixed by RBI means –

    A. Rate of interest charged by banks from borrowers
    B. Rate of interest on bank deposits
    C. Rate of interest charged by RBI on its loans to banks
    D. Rate of interest on interbank loans
    Answer: C


Q8. Increase in remittances from non- resident Indian suggest –

    A. Increase in the balance of payments deficit in India
    B. Reduces the balance of payments deficit in India
    C. Has on effect on the balance of payments position
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B


Q9. Which one of the following does not qualify as priority sector lending by commercial banks?

    A. Software exports
    B. Small business loans
    C. Education loans
    D. Small industries loan
    Answer: A


Q10. Which of the following is not a method of credit control?

    A. Cash reserve ratio
    B. Open market operations
    C. Credit deposit ratio
    D. Bank rate policy
    Answer: C


Q11. An average citizen cannot a savings account in which of the following?

    A. Commercial Bank
    B. Post office
    C. Cooperative bank
    D. RBI
    Answer: A


Q12. Which of the following schemes is not meant for investment purpose?

    A. National savings certificates
    B. Infrastructure bonds
    C. Mutual funds
    D. Letter of credit
    Answer: D


Q13. Basel norms which are important regulatory stipulations is meant for which sector?

    A. Insurance
    B. Banking
    C. Micro finance
    D. pension funds
    Answer: B


Q14. The monetary and credit policy of India is the responsibility of which of the following?

    A. Planning Commissions
    B. Finance Ministry
    C. RBI
    D. National Advisory Council
    Answer: C


Q15. Electronic clearing services is a payment facility for customers. Which of the following provide this facility?

    A. RBI
    B. SBI
    C. Cooperative banks
    D. Finance ministry
    Answer: B


Q16. Financial inclusion is meant for –

    A. Less privileged persons
    B. Senior citizens
    C. Micro finance institutions
    D. All the above
    Answer: A


Q17. Systematic Investment Plans are a facility by which of the following?

    A. Mutual funds
    B. Life insurance companies
    C. Commercial banks
    D. Post office savings schemes
    Answer: A


Q18. Which of hte following lending is considered as a priority sector loan?

    A. Loan for purchase of gold for marriage of daughter
    B. Car loan
    C. Housing loan
    D. Loan for purchase of tractor
    Answer: D


Q19. Euro money is the official currency of –

    A. NATO
    B. UN
    C. European Union
    D. Germany and England
    Answer: C


Q20. Whose signature appears on Indian Rs. 100 note?

    A. Finance Minister
    B. RBI Governor
    C. RBI Dy. GOvernor
    D. Chairman, Planning Commission
    Answer: D


Q21. Bank branches are established under ____________ of Banking Regulations Act, 1949.

    A. Section 20
    B. Section 21
    C. Section 22
    D. Section 23
    Answer: D


Q22. Mixed Banking is the system in which banks undertake activities of _______ and investment banking together.

    A. Commercial
    B. Personal
    C. Retail
    D. Cooperative
    Answer: A


Q23. A fiscal deficit occurs

    A. when a government’s total expenditures exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings.
    B. when a government’s total expenditures goes below the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings.
    C. when a government’s total savings exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings.
    D. when a government’s total savings goes below the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings.
    Answer: A


Q24. The difference between the outflow and inflow of foreign currency is known as

    A. Current Account Deficit
    B. Fiscal Deficit
    C. Foreign Exchange Reserves
    D. Balance of Payments
    Answer: C


Q25. Type(s) of account that can be opened under NRO are –

    A. Term Deposit
    B. Recurrent
    C. Savings
    D. Current
    Answer: D

Q1. In 2014, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established a fund ‘DEAF’, which comprises of unclaimed funds of depositors. What is the expand form of “DEAF”?

    A. Depository Electronic and Account Fund
    B. Depositor Exchange and Account Fund
    C. Data Exchange and Amount Facility
    D. Depositor Education and Awareness Fund
    Answer: D


Q2. What does the letter ‘I’ in ‘IMPS’ stand for?

    A. Interstate
    B. Immediate
    C. Index
    D. Interest
    Answer: B


Q3. ‘MPIN’ is a 4-digit number combination used in an Automated Telephone Banking system. What does M stand for in ‘MPIN’?

    A. Mobile
    B. Money
    C. Micro
    D. Machine
    Answer: A


Q4. Which of the following banks has launched the Articial Intelligence (AI) interactive assistant chatbot named “ABHi”?

    A. Andhra Bank
    B. Allahabad Bank
    C. Union Bank of India
    D. ICICI Bank
    Answer: A


Q5. Which of the following banks has launched the web tool named ‘Vasool So-Ft’ to digitalise the NPA (non-performing asset) recovery process of the bank?

    A. Union Bank of India
    B. ICICI Bank
    C. Karnataka Bank Ltd.
    D. HDFC Bank
    Answer: C


Q6. Who is the current Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Ofcer (CEO) of Karnataka Bank?

    A. P Jayarama Bhat
    B. Shyam Srinivasan
    C. Uday Kotak
    D. M S Mahabaleshwara
    Answer: B


Q7. Which of the following institutions has released the “Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision 2019 – 2021″?

    A. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
    B. State Bank of India (SBI)
    C. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
    D. Ministry of Finance
    Answer: D


Q8. Which bank has launched the YONO Cash service for its customers which will allow them to withdraw cash from ATMs without their debit cards?

    A. ICICI
    B. SBI
    C. HDFC
    D. Axis
    Answer: C


Q9. Fiscal decit is pegged at ______ per cent of GDP in the Interim Budget 2019-20.

    A. 3.0%
    B. 3.3%
    C. 3.4%
    D. 3.5%
    Answer: C


Q10. As per the Interim Budget 2019-20, TDS threshold on interest earned on bank/post ofce deposits is being raised from Rs. 10,000 to _______.

    A. Rs 15,000
    B. Rs 30,000
    C. Rs 40,000
    D. Rs 60,000
    Answer: A


Q11. The difference in the value of all exports and imports of a particular nation over a period of time is called ____.

    A. Balance of Trade
    B. Current Account Deficit
    C. Capital Account Deficit
    D. Balance of Payment
    Answer: A


Q12. PNB Metlife has unveiled an Articial Intelligence (AI)-powered customer service app ______.

    A. Khushi
    B. M-Pesa
    C. KayPay
    D. YONO
    Answer: D


Q13. Which of the following insurance companies has launched Cyber Insurance Policy ‘E @ Secure’ for individuals?

    A. AEGON Life Insurance
    B. Aviva Life Insurance
    C. Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance
    D. HDFC ERGO Insurance Company
    Answer: A


Q14. What is the maximum limit on the amount of money that can be sent under MTSS?

    A. USD 2,500
    B. USD 1,500
    C. USD 1,000
    D. USD 2,200
    Answer: D


Q15. Which of the following is India’s rst Information Utility under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy code?

    A. Bharat Broadband network limited
    B. E-Kranti
    C. National e-Governance Division
    D. National e-Governance Services Limited
    Answer: A


Q16. No frill account tag denotes banking facilities for which among the following?

    A. LIGs
    B. Minor
    C. Corporate houses
    D. Senior citizens
    Answer: B


Q17. What is the name of the digital registry where credit history of individuals, wilful defaults, pending les record are kept?

    A. Public Credit Rating
    B. Public Credit Registry
    C. People Credit Rating
    D. Private Credit Rating
    Answer: C


Q18. As pe the Insurance Ombudsman scheme, the ombudsman shall pass an award within a period of ____from the receipt of the complaint.

    A. one months
    B. two months
    C. three months
    D. four months
    Answer: A


Q19. Where is the headquarters of the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) located?

    A. Mumbai
    B. New Delhi
    C. Bengaluru
    D. Hyderabad
    Answer: D


Q20. Which of the following terms is NOT used in Banking/ Finance-related matters?

    A. Discount Rate
    B. Letter of credit
    C. Cheque clearing
    D. General Ledger
    Answer: D


Q21. Which of the following banks has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab?

    A. ICICI Bank
    B. IDBI Bank
    C. HDFC Bank
    D. AXIS Bank
    Answer: C


Q22. Bank branches are established under which section of Banking Regulations Act, 1949?

    A. Section 20
    B. Section 23
    C. Section 22
    D. Section 10
    Answer: B


Q23. Which of the following Acts has specially been enacted to help banks deal with bad loans?

    A. Negotiable Instrument Act
    B. Banking Regulation Act
    C. Offshore Banking Act
    D. Companies Act
    Answer: D


Q24. The head ofce of Union Bank of India located in____.

    A. Chennai
    B. Kolkata
    C. Mumbai
    D. Bengaluru
    Answer: D


Q25. NEFT is a nation-wide payment system facilitating one-to-one funds transfer. What is the limit on the amount that could be transferred using NEFT?

    A Rs. 2 lakh
    B Rs. 5 lakh
    C Rs. 10 lakh
    D Rs. 1 lakh
    Answer: D

Q1. ‘Desert National Park’ is located in which state?

    A. Maharashtra
    B. Andhra Pradesh
    C. Rajasthan
    D. Gujarat
    Answer: C


Q2. ‘Mahi Bajaj Sagar dam’ is located in which state?

    A. Gujarat
    B. Madhya Pradesh
    C. Punjab
    D. Rajasthan

    Answer: D


Q3. Mohiniattam Dance is associated with which of the following Indian states?

    A. Orissa
    B. Tamil Nadu
    C. Himachal Pradesh
    D. Kerala
    Answer: D


Q4. Which of the following is the UNESCO World Heritage Site present in Bihar State India?

    A. Mahabodhi Vihar
    B. Nalanda Mahavihara
    C. Ancient site of Vikramasila Monastery
    D. Tomb of Sher Shah Sur
    Answer: D


Q5. On 07 January 2019, the ‘Polavaram Dam project’ has entered the Guinness Book of World by pouring 32,100 cubic metres of concrete in 24 hours. The ‘Polavaram Dam project’ is located in ____.

    A Karnataka
    B Maharashtra
    C Andhra Pradesh
    D Telangana
    Answer: C


Q6. Salim Ali National Park is located in which state?

    A. Jammu and Kashmir
    B. Goa
    C. Andaman and Nicobar
    D. Gujarat
    Answer: A


Q7. With which of the following airports in India’s First Aircraft Runway on ‘Sea Bridge’ associated?

    A Agatti Airport
    B Kavaratti Airport
    C Port Blair Airport
    D Havelock Airport
    Answer: A


Q8. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport is located in which state?

    A. Madhya Pradesh
    B. Rajasthan
    C. Lakshadweep
    D. Maharashtra
    Answer: D


Q9. Loktak Lake, one of the most vulnerable wetlands of India is situated in which state?

    A. Tripura
    B. Manipur
    C. Mizoram
    D. Assam
    Answer: B


Q10. In the memory of which of the following doctors, the National Doctor’s Day in India is celebrated on every 1st of July?

    A. Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy
    B. Dr. Dwarkanth Kotnis
    C. Dr. Ashim Desai
    D. Dr. Ramneek Mahajan
    Answer: A


Q11. The World Wildlife Day is observed on which of the following dates?

    A. February 29
    B. March 3
    C. April 21
    D. May 5
    Answer: B


Q12. With which the state of India is the Cheraw Dance associated?

    A. Assam
    B. Tripura
    C. Meghalaya
    D. Mizoram
    Answer: D


Q13. Which of following comes under world heritage site?

    A. Orang National park
    B. Manas wildlife sanctuary
    C. Rajaji National park
    D. Tadoba national park
    Answer: B


Q14. ‘Golden Revolution’ is related to ____.

    A. Precious minerals
    B. Pulses
    C. Jute
    D. Horticulture
    Answer: D


Q15. “Losar” is the state festival of which of the following Indian state?

    A. Kerala
    B. West Bengal
    C. Jammu & Kashmir
    D. Gujarat
    Answer: C


Q16. What is the currency of Kyrgyzstan?

    A. Rial
    B. Dinar
    C. Cedi
    D. Som
    Answer: D


Q17. World Sickle Cell Day observed every year on which date?

    A. 15th June
    B. 20th May
    C. 11th April
    D. 19th June
    Answer: D


Q18. The Air Force Day is being observed annually across India on _____.

    A. 6th October
    B. 7th October
    C. 8th October
    D. 5th October
    Answer: C


Q19. The Golden Temple located in the middle of which lake?

    A. Golden Lake
    B. Uri Lake
    C. Shanth Sarovar
    D. Amrit Sarovar
    Answer: D


Q20. Srinagar is located on which river?

    A. Ravi
    B. Chenab
    C. Indus
    D. Jhelum
    Answer: D


Q21. Padma River is one of the main distributaries of the Ganges, owing in which of the following countries?

    A. Nepal
    B. Bhutan
    C. Bangladesh
    D. India
    Answer: C


Q22. Where is Chittorgarh Fort located

    A. Delhi
    B. Maharashtra
    C. Rajasthan
    D. Madhya Pradesh
    Answer: C


Q23. What is the capital of Greece?

    A. Skopje
    B. Athens
    C. Sofia
    D. Tirana
    Answer: B


Q24. Deciency of Vitamin A could result in:

    A. Immune system disorders.
    B. Night Blindness
    C. Bone pain and muscle weakness.
    D. All the above
    Answer: B


Q25. Which of the following metals is used for generation of Nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants?

    A. Zinc
    B. Platinum
    C. Uranium
    D. Nickel
    Answer: C

Q1. Who has been awarded the International Cricketer and Batsman of the Year at the CEAT Cricket Rating International Award
2019?

    A. Virat Kohli
    B. Rashid Khan
    C. Rohit Sharma
    D. Aaron Finch
    Answer: A


Q2. Who has been appointed the chairman of ITC Ltd.?

    A. Mahender Singh
    B. Sanjiv Puri
    C. Pranab Kumar Das
    D. Rajendra Sharma
    Answer: B


Q3. Who has become the first Indian cricketer to join Hampshire Cricket Club?

    A. Ajinkya Rahane
    B. Lokesh Rahul
    C. Kuldeep Yadav
    D. Hardik Pandya
    Answer: A


Q4. NASA’s first female Astronaut candidate Jerrie Cobb passes away. She belonged to which of the following countries?

    A. China
    B. USA
    C. Singapore
    D. Japan
    Answer: B


Q5. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Quichotte’?

    A. Chetan Bhagat
    B. Anand Neelakanthan
    C. Salman Rushdie
    D. Ruskin Bond
    Answer: C


Q6. As per NIRF Ranking 2019, which institution got the rst rank in the Engineering category?

    A. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Kharagpur
    B. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Kanpur
    C. Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology, Allahabad
    D. Indian Institute of Technology (BHU), Varanasi
    Answer: D


Q7. Which of the following countries hosted the 5 Women’s Championship 2019 SAFF (South Asian Football Federation)
games?

    A. Pakistan
    B. Sri Lanka
    C. Nepal
    D. Maldives
    Answer: C


Q8. Which of the following is the 18th zone of India Railways?

    A. Metro Railway
    B. East Coast Railway
    C. North-East Frontier Railway
    D. Southern Coast Railway
    Answer: D


Q9. As per the latest report by the World Gold Council (WGC). What is India’s rank in gold reserve?

    A. 11th
    B. 10th
    C. 12th
    D. 15th
    Answer: A


Q10. Who is the incumbent Chief Election Commissioner of India?

    A. Ashok Lavasa
    B. Sunil Arora
    C. Om Prakash Rawat
    D. Achal Kumar Jyoti

    Answer: B


Q11. On March 4, 2019, the Registrar of Geographical Indications of the Indian government, accorded a GI tag, ‘Sirsi Supari’, to
arecanut. Arecanut grew in which of the following states in India?

    A. Kerala
    B. Odisha
    C. West Bengal
    D. Tamil Nadu
    Answer: D


Q12. Which of the following cities has received the India’s ‘Fastest Moving Big City’ in Swachh Survekshan 2019 (SS 2019)
awards?

    A. Pune
    B. Raipur
    C. Indore
    D. Ranchi
    Answer: B


Q13. Who is the current Finance Secretary (FS) of India?

    A. Ajay Bhushan Pandey
    B. A.N. Jha
    C. Rajiv Kumar
    D. Subhash Chandra Garg
    Answer: D


Q14. Who was appointed as the Director of Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)?

    A. Mohan Bansal
    B. Puneet Jain
    C. Shekar Basu
    D. Ajit Kumar Mohanty
    Answer: D


Q15. Who has won the ‘Chameli Devi Jain Award’ for an Outstanding Woman Journalist for the year 2018?

    A. Barkha Dutt
    B. Priyanka Dubey
    C. Nidhi Razdan
    D. Madhu Trehan
    Answer: B


Q16. According to the interim Budget 2019 speech, The Union government has decided to set up Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog
for the welfare of ____

    A. Tiger
    B. Cow
    C. Bear
    D. Bird
    Answer: B


Q17. India’s first ‘Full dome 3D Digital Theatre’ has been established in _____.

    A. Hyderabad
    B. Chennai
    C. Kolkata
    D. Mumbai

    Answer: C


Q18. The 33rd Surajkund International Crafts Mela was held in which city?

    A. Panipat
    B. Lucknow
    C. Patna
    D. Faridabad
    Answer: D


Q19. Who among the following won OSCAR Award 2019 for the ‘Best Male Actor’ at the 91st Academy Awards ceremony in
Los Angeles, California?

    A. Timothee Chalamet
    B. Ryan Gosling
    C. Steve Carell
    D. John du Pont
    Answer: D


Q20. Who has been honoured with the ‘Freedom of the City Of London’ in recognition of his contribution to promoting the
bilateral relations?

    A. Arman Malik
    B. Sanjay Singh
    C. Sanjiv Chadha
    D. Suraj Kumar
    Answer: C


Q21. Which of the following states government has announced to launch Annadata Sukhibhava scheme 2019?

    A. Bihar
    B. Uttar Pradesh
    C. Andhra Pradesh
    D. Punjab
    Answer: C


Q22. Who among the following Indian female cricketers have scored fastest T20I fty?

    A. Amita Sharma
    B. Smriti Mandhana
    C. Jaya Sharma
    D. Ekta Bisht
    Answer: B


Q23. Which cricket team has won the 2018-19 season’s Ranji Trophy title?

    A. Railways
    B. Mumbai
    C. Vidarbha
    D. Saurashtra
    Answer: C


Q24. Which of the following countries has launched new ‘Fateh’ Submarine in the semi-heavy category?

    A. Pakistan
    B. Iraq
    C. Iran
    D. Sudan
    Answer: C


Q25. Which is the second ofcial language of Himachal Pradesh?

    A. Hindi
    B. Urdu
    C. Mizo
    D. Sanskrit
    Answer: D

Q1. What do you understand by Cheque Truncation System?

    A. The physical movement of a cheque is stopped between banks and instead of physical movement an electronic image be exchanged for clearance of funds which is faster and safer.
    B. The physical movement of a cheque for clearance of funds be made more secure
    C. Issue of cheques to customers be made more secure by introducing more enhanced security features
    D. A new technology to process payments between Banks exclusively
    Answer: A


Q2. The Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a negotiable money market instrument and issued in the form of?

    A. Derivative Usance Promissory Note
    B. Usance Promissory Note
    C. Demand Promissory Note
    D. Both a & b
    Answer: B


Q3. The rate at which banks borrow money from the RBI is called ____.

    A. MSF Rate
    B. SLR
    C. CRR
    D. Repo Rate
    Answer: B


Q4. ‘Cheque’ and Demand Draft’ come under the purview of which of the following Acts?

    A. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
    B. The Banking Companies Act–1949
    C. Chit Fund Act–1982
    D. Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881
    Answer: D


Q5. What is NFS stands for

    A. National Financial Service
    B. National Financial Switch
    C. National Financial System
    D. National Financial Task-Force
    Answer: D


Q6. With reference to the Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT), consider the following statements:

    1) It is applied to those companies which show zero or negligible income to avoid tax.
    2) It is only applicable to private companies and not on public companies.
    3) It is applied in the book profits of the companies at the rate of 18.5%.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 3 only
    D. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer: B


Q7. Which of the following areas is included in the priority sector loan in India?

    a) Education
    b) Export credit
    c) Social Infrastructure
    d) Renewable energy

    A. a and d
    B. a, b, c
    C. a and b
    D. All of these
    Answer: B


Q8. What does the rst ‘S’ in USSD stands for?

    A. Standard
    B. Service
    C. Sale
    D. Supplementary
    Answer: D


Q9. Which of the following banks has launched India’s first ‘Green Car Loan’ to encourage customers to buy electric vehicles?

    A. State Bank of India
    B. Union Bank of India
    C. Bank of Baroda
    D. Punjab National Bank
    Answer: A


Q10. _____ refers to the borrowing raised by Indian corporates from international markets.

    A. Debentures
    B. Bonds
    C. External Commercial Borrowings
    D. Shares
    Answer: C


Q11. Who will head the Expert Committee on Economic Capital Framework constituted by the Reserve Bank of India?

    A. Bimal Jalan
    B. Ashok Vajpeyi
    C. Balan Nambiar
    D. Uttam Pacharne
    Answer: A


Q12. Which of the following social networking companies registered a new company named Libra Networks’ in Geneva, Switzerland?’

    A. Google
    B. Yahoo
    C. Twitter
    D. Facebook
    Answer: D


Q13. Banks are required to take permission from which of the following before opening a new branch?

    A. Reserve Bank of India
    B. Securities and Exchange Board of India
    C. Indian Banks Association
    D. Planning Commission of India
    Answer: A


Q14. In which year was the first mutual fund set up in India?

    A. 1953
    B. 1935
    C. 1956
    D. 1963
    Answer: D


Q15. Which of the following Acts has especially been launched to facilitate banks in the recovery of bad loans?

    A. RBI Act
    B. Banking Act
    C. Companies Act
    D. Income Tax Act
    Answer: D


Q16. Teaser Rates are related to which of the following types of loans?

    A. Home Loans
    B. Personal Loans
    C. Auto Loans
    D. Reverse Mortgage Loans
    Answer: A


Q17. On domestic term deposits, banks in our country generally offer additional rate of interest on term deposits from –

    A. Minors
    B. Married women
    C. Govt. employees
    D. Rural residents
    Answer: D


Q18. Which of the following instruments cannot be transferred from one person to another by Endorsement?

    A. Fixed Deposit Receipt
    B. Cheque
    C. Bill of Exchange
    D. Promissory Note
    Answer: A


Q19. What does the term ‘HUF’ family?

    A. Hindu Undivided Family
    B. Hindu Single-Family
    C. Heavy Facilities
    D. Hindered Remittances

    Answer: A


Q20. Under ‘Income Tax Informants Reward Scheme’, a person can get reward up to what amount for giving specic information about any Benami transaction or property?

    A. Rs. 1 crore
    B. Rs. 5 crore
    C. Rs. 50 lakh
    D. Rs. 25 lakh
    Answer: A


Q21. What is money laundering?

    A. Conversion of assets into cash
    B. Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
    C. Conversion of cash into gold
    D. Conversion of gold into cash
    Answer: B


Q22. A unique function of a bank is to create credit. Which of the following factors does not determine the credit creation power of banks?

    A. Amount of cash reserve in the country
    B. Cash Reserve Ratio
    C. Special Drawing Rights
    D. Monetary policy of the central bank
    Answer: C


Q23. Which of the following terms is NoT used in Banking Sector?

    A. sLR
    B. NPA
    C. Credit Rating
    D. Fixed
    Answer: D


Q24. Who formulates the monetary policy in India?

    A. SEBI
    B. RBI
    C. Finance Ministry
    D. Planning Committee
    Answer: B


Q25. Where is the headquarters of New Development Bank (NDB) located?

    A. Beijing
    B. Tokyo
    C. Shanghai
    D. New Delhi
    Answer: C

1. Bibi Ka Maqbara is a tomb located in which state?

    A. Bihar
    B. New Delhi
    C. Maharashtra
    D. Jharkhand
    Answer: C


Q2. In 1972, Amar Jawan Jyoti was inaugurated by which leader?

    A. Lal Bahadur Shastri
    B. Gulzarilal Nanda
    C. Morarji Desai
    D. Indira Gandhi
    Answer: D


Q3. Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in which state?

    A. Kerala
    B. Rajasthan
    C. Gujarat
    D. West Bengal
    Answer: C


Q4. The shape of which lake is kidney-shaped or crescent-shaped?

    A. Sattal Lake
    B. Bhimtal Lake
    C. Naukuchiyatal Lake
    D. Nainital Lake
    Answer: D


Q5. Namdapha national park is situated in______.

    A. Meghalaya
    B. Manipur
    C. Sikkim
    D. Arunachal Pradesh
    Answer: D


Q6. The ‘Festival of India in Nepal’ was held in which city?

    A. New Delhi
    B. Patan
    C. Kathmandu
    D. Kushinagar

    Answer: C


Q7. The “Doctrine of Basic Structure” applies to:

    A. Only to executive orders
    B. Both ordinary laws and constitutional amendment
    C. Only constitutional amendment
    D. Every law that violates fundamental rights
    Answer: C


Q8. The World Fisheries Day (WFD) is observed every year on ____.

    A. 21 November
    B. 20 November
    C. 29 November
    D. 28 November
    Answer: A


Q9. The cultural festival ‘Indra Jatra festival’ was celebrated in ______.

    A. China
    B. Japan
    C. Australia
    D. Nepal
    Answer: D


Q10. In which of the following states, is the M.A. Chidambaram Stadium situated?

    A. Andhra Pradesh
    B. Tamil Nadu
    C. Karnataka
    D. Telangana
    Answer: B


Q11. What is the capital of Czech Republic?

    A. Prague
    B. Nicosia
    C. Zagreb
    D. Stockholm
    Answer: A


Q12. No Tobacco Day is observed every year on __________.

    A. 29 May
    B. 30 April
    C. 31 May
    D. 30 May
    Answer: C


Q13. The world’s largest Pavagada solar park is located in ____.

    A. Kerala
    B. Madhya Pradesh
    C. Andhra Pradesh
    D. Karnataka
    Answer: D


Q14. ‘Ugadi’ is celebrated as the new year in which of the followings states?

    A. Bihar
    B. Orissa
    C. Andhra Pradesh
    D. Kerala
    Answer: C


Q15. National Science Day is observed on ___.

    A. 28th January
    B. 28th March
    C. 28th February
    D. 28th December

    Answer: D


Q16. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport is located in which state?

    A. Madhya Pradesh
    B. Rajasthan
    C. Lakshadweep
    D. Maharashtra
    Answer: C


Q17. On which of the following rivers, Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built upon?

    A. Kaveri
    B. Mahanadi
    C. Tungbhadra
    D. Krishna
    Answer: D


Q18. The World Radio Day has been celebrated every year across the world on ____.

    A. January 30
    B. January 31
    C. February 3
    D. February 13
    Answer: D


Q19. The Folk dance ‘Fugdi’ is related to which state?

    A. Manipur
    B. Mizoram
    C. Goa
    D. Kerala
    Answer: C


Q20. Kolkata, the capital city of West Bengal, is situated along which river?

    A. Hooghly
    B. Mahananda
    C. Damodar
    D. Tista
    Answer: A


Q21. Where is the headquarter of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)?

    A. Hyderabad
    B. Kolkata
    C. New Delhi
    D. Chennai
    Answer: D


Q22. The Indian Museum is the largest and oldest museum in India which is located in _____.

    A. Jaipur
    B. Chennai
    C. Mumbai
    D. New Delhi
    Answer: C


Q23. Kanger Valley National Park is located in which state?

    A. Kerala
    B. Himachal Pradesh
    C. Uttarakhand
    D. Jharkhand
    Answer: D


Q24. Almatti dam is located in which state?

    A. Kerala
    B. Tamil Nadu
    C. Karnataka
    D. Andhra Pradesh

    Answer: D


Q25. The World Photography Day (WPD) is observed every year on _____.

    A. 20th August
    B. 19th August
    C. 11th August
    D. 15th August
    Answer: B

Q1. NPCI is an umbrella organization for all retail payments system in India. It was set up with the guidance and support of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA). What does NPCI stands for-

    A. National Payments Corporation of Industry
    B. National Payments Council of India
    C. Nominal Payments Corporation of India
    D. National Payments Corporation of India
    Answer: D


Q2. In which among the following years NPCI was incorporated-

    A. December 2008
    B. January 2006
    C. April 2010
    D. July 2012
    Answer: A


Q3. The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is the world’s oldest international financial organisation. BIS was established on-

    A. 26th May 1961
    B. 01st October 1949
    C. 14th February 1914
    D. 17th May 1930
    Answer: D


Q4. Where is the head office of Bank for International Settlements (BIS)?

    A. Zurich, Switzerland
    B. New York, USA
    C. Basel, Switzerland
    D. Berlin, Germany
    Answer: C


Q5. Under which act NPCI was incorporated as a Section 8?

    A. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
    B. Companies Act 2013
    C. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
    D. Societies Registration Act, 1860
    Answer: B


Q6. Most banks are offering teaser rates on home loans. What does it mean?

    A. The rates keep fluctuating during the period of loan with high uncertainty
    B. The initial rate is offered at a rate lower than the prevailing market rate for a few months and then gradually keeps increasing
    C. The initial rate is higher than the current market rate with an offer of lower rates at a later date
    D. Home loan borrowers of shorter duration are given preferential rate
    Answer: C


Q7. Who decides the value and volume of banknotes to be printed and on what basis?

    A. Finance Ministry
    B. Planning Commission
    C. RBI
    D. Stock Exchange
    Answer: C


Q8. Indian Banking Regulation Act was passed in the year?

    A. 1971
    B. 1969
    C. 1949
    D. 1947
    Answer: B


Q9. Financial Market consists of-

    A. Foreign exchange
    B. Debt Instruments
    C. Equities
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


Q10. Who is authorised to sign ‘one-rupee’ note?

    A. Secretary, Ministry of Finance
    B. RBI Governor
    C. Prime Minister
    D. Finance Minister
    Answer: A


Q11. ‘Closed Economy’ is that economy in which…………?

    A. Neither export nor import takes place
    B. Deficit financing takes place
    C. Only export takes place
    D. All of the above
    Answer: A


Q12. The SDR was created by the IMF in ____________ as a supplementary international reserve asset, in the context of the Bretton Woods fixed exchange rate system.

    A. 1945
    B. 1969
    C. 1980
    D. 1991
    Answer: B


Q13. The headquarters of SIDBI is in-

    A. Lucknow
    B. New Delhi
    C. Mumbai
    D. Kolkata
    Answer: A


Q14. LIC of India was established in-

    A. 1897
    B. 1956
    C. 1970
    D. 1965
    Answer: B


Q15. What is ‘Hawala market’?

    A. Illegal market for exchanging rupees and foreign currencies
    B. Full details of a subject
    C. Illegal trading of shares
    D. Tax evasion
    Answer: A


Q16. Under OLTAS, only a Single Copy Challan is used with a tear-off portion for the Tax Payer. What does OLTAS stand for-?

    A. On-line Tax Accounting Service
    B. On-line Tax Amounting System
    C. On-line Timing Accounting System
    D. On-line Tax Accounting System
    Answer: D


Q17. What is the minimum period of maturity prescribed for Commercial Paper (CP)?

    A. 17 Months
    B. 14 Days
    C. 01 Year
    D. 07 days
    Answer: D


Q18. Which banks are insured by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)?

    A. Foreign Banks functioning in India
    B. Local Area Banks
    C. Regional Rural Banks
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


Q19. What is the maximum period of maturity prescribed for Commercial Paper (CP)?

    A. 10 years
    B. 06 years
    C. 01 Year
    D. 02 years
    Answer: C


Q20. Each depositor in a bank is insured by DICGC upto a maximum of _____________________ for both principal and interest amount held by him in the same capacity and same right as on the date of liquidation/cancellation of bank’s licence or the date on which the scheme of amalgamation/merger/reconstruction comes into force.

    A. Rs.1,00,000
    B. Rs.2,00,000
    C. Rs.3,00,000
    D. Rs.4,00,000
    Answer: A


Q21. In January 2019, LIC has completed the process of picking up a controlling ___________________ stake in the nearly crippled IDBI Bank.

    A. 51%
    B. 49%
    C. 75%
    D. 25%
    Answer: A


Q22. Reserve Bank of India has provided no objection to ________________ for the proposed acquisition of Gruh Finance.

    A. Lakshmi Vilas Bank
    B. Bandhan Bank
    C. IDFC Bank
    D. Kotak Mahindra Bank
    Answer: B


Q23. Which of the following Bank has signed a pact with the Bank of China to boost business opportunities recently?

    A. ICICI Bank
    B. Punjab National Bank
    C. State Bank of India
    D. HDFC Bank
    Answer: C


Q24. The Reserve Bank of India has slapped a penalty of ____________________ on Punjab National Bank for non-compliance of regulatory directions with regard to SWIFT operations.

    A. Rs 5 crores
    B. Rs 7 crores
    C. Rs 11 crores
    D. Rs 2 crores
    Answer: D


Q25. Bandhan Bank Limited is an Indian banking and financial services company headquartered in-

    A. Mumbai
    B. New Delhi
    C. Lucknow
    D. Patna
    Answer: D

1. Which of the following financial institution has approved USD 147 Million Loan Agreement for Jharkhand Municipal Development Project?

    A. World Bank
    B. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
    C. Asian Development Bank
    D. New Development Bank
    Answer: A


Q2. In “SLR” L stands for ____.

    A. Loss
    B. Leverage
    C. Liquidity
    D. Lending
    Answer: C


Q3. ‘Nomination’ for a deposit account in the banking terminology means ______ .

    A. The mandate was given by the close relative/s of the depositor to settle the death claim in case of death of the depositor.
    B. Mandate decided by the bank to settle the death claim of its depositor.
    C. The mandate of the depositor in favor of one or more persons to claim the amount on death of the depositor.
    D. Court order instructing the banks to settle the death claim of its depositor.
    Answer: C


Q4. Who has been elected as the new Director-General of the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)?

    A. Daniel Zhang
    B. Ma Huateng
    C. Lei Jun
    D. Qu Dongyu

    Answer: B


Q5. The objective of MUDRA Bank is to encourage entrepreneurship among SC/STs and OBCs. In MUDRA, R stands for ___.

    A. Reconstruction
    B. Refinance
    C. Retail
    D. Regulation
    Answer: B


Q6. Under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), what is the revised housing loan limit under the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) for the metropolitan centre?

    A. Rs 40 lakhs
    B. Rs 15 lakhs
    C. Rs. 10 lakhs
    D. Rs 35 lakhs
    Answer: D


Q7. Indian Financial System Code consists of how many alphanumeric digit?

    A. 12
    B. 11
    C. 10
    D. 9
    Answer: B


Q8. Which of the following is the apex institution that handles refinance for agriculture and rural development in India?

    A. RBI
    B. SIDBI
    C. NABARD
    D. SEBI
    Answer: C


Q9. What is the size of new 200-rupee bank note?

    A. 66mm x 142 mm
    B. 66 mm x 135 mm
    C. 63 mmX123 mm
    D. 66 mmX146 mm
    Answer: D


Q10. CRR refers to the share of __________ that banks have to maintain with RBI of their net demand and time liabilities.

    A. Soft Cash
    B. Forex Reserves
    C. Gold
    D. Liquid Cash
    Answer: D


Q11. Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by ____.

    A. Reserve Bank of India
    B. Individual Banks
    C. Government of India
    D. IRDA
    Answer: C


Q12. The headquarter of BRICS Bank “The New Development Bank (NDB)” located in ___.

    A. Beijing, China
    B. Shanghai, China
    C. New Delhi, India
    D. New York, US
    Answer: B


Q13. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation ( DICGC) is a subsidiary of _____.

    A. SEBI
    B. NABARD
    C. ONGC
    D. IRDAI
    Answer: D


Q14. Which of the following organizations provides credit history of the borrowers?

    A. CIBIL
    B. ARCIL
    C. SEBI
    D. RBI
    Answer: A


Q15. What are Mutilated Notes?

    A. Notes which are in pieces and/or of which the essential portions are missing
    B. Any banknote, which is wholly or partially, obliterated, shrunk
    C. Notes which are washed, altered or indecipherable
    D. Notes which are wholly or partially, obliterated, shrunk, washed, altered or indecipherable
    Answer: A


Q16. According to the Reserve Bank of India, which one of the following is the reason owing to which India’s nation is accelerating?

    A. Speculation in essential goods
    B. Higher food cost
    C. Commodities futures
    D. None of the above
    Answer: D


Q17. A company which pools money from investors and invests in stocks, bond and shares is called __.

    A. A Bank
    B. An Insurance company
    C. Bank assurance
    D. Mutual Fund
    Answer: D


Q18. Who among the following is the regulator of Money Market?

    A. SEBI
    B. RBI
    C. IDFC
    D. IBA
    Answer: B


Q19. The mobile wallet app “Buddy” launched by which bank?

    A. PNB
    B. ICICI
    C. HDFC
    D. SBI
    Answer: D


Q20. Who is known as father of modern Economics?

    A. John Maynard Keynes
    B. Adam Smith
    C. Alfred Marshall
    D. Amartya Sen
    Answer: B


Q21. The Walled City of Jaipur has been included in the list of UNESCO world heritage site. The Walled City of Jaipur located in

    A. Gujarat
    B. Rajasthan
    C. Punjab
    D. Assam
    Answer: B


Q22. Who has won the Gold medal in women’s 200 m at the Kutno Athletics Meet in Poland?

    A. Gomathi Marimuthu
    B. Hima Das
    C. Himashree Roy
    D. Sini Jose

    Answer: B


Q23. Who among the following Indian wrestler has won the Gold Medal in 53 Kg category at the Grand Prix of Spain?

    A. Divya Kakran
    B. Pooja Dhanda
    C. Manju Kumari
    D. Vinesh Phogat

    Answer: D


Q24. The Border Security Force (BSF) has launched a massive exercise, code-named as ____, to fortify Anti-Inltration Grid along Pakistan border in Punjab and Jammu.

    A. Samridhi
    B. Samskara
    C. Safety
    D. Sudarshan
    Answer: D


Q25. Who among the following Indian wrestler has won the Gold Medal in 68 kg category at the Grand Prix of Spain?

    A. Pooja Dhanda
    B. Manju Kumari
    C. Vinesh Phogat
    D. Divya Kakran
    Answer: D

Q1. Which of the following organizations is the Mutual Fund Market regulator?

    A. IRDAI
    B. National Stock Exchange of India
    C. RBI
    D. SEBI
    Answer: D


Q2. The cheque in which the signature of the drawer of the cheque is not genuine is called _____________.

    A. Ante-dated cheque
    B. Post-dated cheque
    C. Stale cheque
    D. Forged cheque

    Answer: D


Q3. CRR refers to the share of __________ that banks have to maintain with RBI of their net demand and time liabilities.

    A. Soft Cash
    B. Forex Reserves
    C. Gold
    D. Liquid Cash

    Answer: D


Q4. Which of the following organizations provides credit history of the borrowers?

    A. CIBIL
    B. ARCIL
    C. SEBI
    D. RBI

    Answer: A


Q5. The Working and operations of NBFCs are regulated by___.

    A. SEBI
    B. RBI
    C. Finance Ministry, GOI
    D. IRDA

    Answer: B


Q6. The mobile wallet app “Buddy” launched by which bank?

    A. PNB
    B. ICICI
    C. HDFC
    D. SBI

    Answer: D


Q7. Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by ____.

    A. Reserve Bank of India
    B. Individual Banks
    C. Government of India
    D. IRDA

    Answer: C


Q8. The headquarter of BRICS Bank “The New Development Bank (NDB)” located in ___.

    A. Beijing, China
    B. Shanghai, China
    C. New Delhi, India
    D. New York, US

    Answer: B


Q9. In “SLR” L stands for ____.

    A. Loss
    B. Leverage
    C. Liquidity
    D. Lending

    Answer: C


Q10. The objective of MUDRA Bank is to encourage entrepreneurship among SC/STs and OBCs. In MUDRA, R stands for ___.

    A. Reconstruction
    B. Refinance
    C. Retail
    D. Regulation

    Answer: B


Q11. Indian Financial System Code consists of how many alphanumeric digits?

    A. 12
    B. 11
    C. 10
    D. 9

    Answer: B


Q12. Foreign exchange reserves in India are kept in the custody of ___.

    A. Govt. of India
    B. Finance Ministry
    C. Reserve Bank of India
    D. Overseas Ministry

    Answer: C


Q13. Which of the following is the apex institution that handles refinance for agriculture and rural development in India?

    A. RBI
    B. SIDBI
    C. NABARD
    D. SEBI

    Answer: C


Q14. When the growth of GDP in a country slows down suddenly, people start losing their jobs and the situation continues for several weeks, what name is given to this state of the economy (A big country was in this state recently)?

    A. Inflation
    B. Recession
    C. Deflation
    D. Economic Boom

    Answer: B


Q15. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established in the year___as a non-statutory body.

    A. 1992
    B. 1993
    C. 1994
    D. 1988

    Answer: D


Q16. ‘Financial Inclusion’ is a powerful tool adopted by the Reserve Bank of India to full the basic objective of

    A. Upliftment of population lying Below Poverty Line
    B Connecting every Indian to the Country’s Banking System
    C. Ensuring bank finance to all the landless agriculturists
    D. Overall financial growth backed by inflation control

    Answer: B


Q17. ‘Nomination’ for a deposit account in the banking terminology means ______ .

    A. The mandate was given by the close relative/s of the depositor to settle the death claim in case of death of the depositor.
    B. Mandate decided by the bank to settle the death claim of its depositor.
    C. The mandate of the depositor in favor of one or more persons to claim the amount on death of the depositor.
    D. Court order instructing the banks to settle the death claim of its depositor.

    Answer: C


Q18. ASBA scheme is related to the purchase of ____.

    A. IPO
    B. CP
    C. CD
    D. TCS

    Answer: A


Q19. Which of the following is NOT a term related to banking/ nance operations?

    A. Provision coverage ratio
    B. Securitization
    C. Consolidation
    D. Commodification

    Answer: D


Q20. According to the Reserve Bank of India, which one of the following is the reason owing to which India’s nation is accelerating?

    A. Excess liquidity in the market
    B. Speculation in essential goods
    C. Higher food cost
    D. Commodities futures

    Answer: A


Q21. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing

    A. Treasury Bills
    B. Memorandum of Association
    C. Kisan Vikas Patra
    D. Commercial Papers
    Answer: D


Q22. Which of the following banks is India’s first Small Finance Bank (SFB)?

    A. Ujjivan Financial Services Pvt. Ltd
    B. Capital Local Area Bank Ltd
    C. Au Financiers Ltd
    D. Janalakshmi Financial Services Pvt. Ltd

    Answer: B


Q23. In, NDTL, what does ‘T’ stands for ____?

    A. Term
    B. Time
    C. Transaction
    D. Transfer

    Answer: B


Q24. The concept of micro nance was launched in which of the following countries initially?

    A. India
    B. Afghanistan
    C. Sri Lanka
    D. Bangladesh

    Answer: D


Q25. ‘Participatory Notes’ are associated with _____ _?

    A. The exchange-traded fund (ETF)
    B. Equity Linked Savings Scheme (ELSS)
    C. External Commercial Borrowing (ECB)
    D. Foreign Institutional Investor (FII)

    Answer: D

Q1. What is the capital of South Africa?

    A. Pretoria
    B. Cape Town
    C. Bloemfontein
    D. All of these

    Answer: D


Q2. Maastricht treaty is related with______

    A. Climate Change
    B. Europe unification
    C. Nuclear proliferation
    D. World Trade Organisation

    Answer: B


Q3. Banks keep notes/coins in Currency Chest on behalf of which of the following?

    A. Central Government
    B. SEBI
    C. IBA
    D. RBI

    Answer: D


Q4. “Open Market Operations” are a part of which of the following policies?

    A. Income Policy
    B. Fiscal Policy
    C. Credit Policy
    D. Taxation Policy

    Answer: C


Q5. The monetary units of the International Monetary Fund is called _____ .

    A. ADR
    B. ETF
    C. SDR
    D. GDR

    Answer: C


Q6. Which Day is observed as the World Biofuel Day?

    A. 10-Sep
    B. 10-Apr
    C. 10-Aug
    D. 10-Jun

    Answer: C


Q7. The responsibility for coinage vests with Government of India on the basis of the _________

    A. Coinage Act, 1900
    B. Coinage Act, 1920
    C. Coinage Act, 1906
    D. Coinage Act, 1912

    Answer: C


Q8. Presentment for payment does not required in case of___.

    A. Cheque
    B. Promissory Note
    C. Bills of Exchange
    D. All the three

    Answer: A


Q9. Aga Khan Award is given in the field of___________

    A. Journalism
    B. Literature
    C. Science & Technology
    D. Architecture

    Answer: D


Q10. Inflation Indexed Bonds (IIBs) were issued with the name of __________ during 1997 by RBI.

    A. Capital Interest Bonds
    B. Capital Indexed Bonds
    C. Cumulative Indexed Bonds
    D. Contingent Indexed Bonds
    Answer: B


Q11. What does BHIM stand for?

    A. Bharat Instant Money Transfer
    B. Bharat Interface for Money
    C. Bank Hotline Instant Money
    D. Banking Hit Instant Money
    Answer: B


Q12. Which organisation developed BHIM Application?

    A. SBI
    B. RBI
    C. NPCI
    D. SEBI
    Answer: C


Q13. What does UPI stand for?

    A. Union Public Interface
    B. Unified Payment India
    C. Unified Payment Interface
    D. United Payment India
    Answer: C


Q14. Which of the following methods can be used to send money over UPI?

    A. Mobile number
    B. VPA
    C. Bank Account Number
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


Q15. When was UPI service launched?

    A. 2016
    B. 2017
    C. 2018
    D. 2019
    Answer: A


Q16. On which architecture is UPI built upon?

    A. IMPS
    B. NEFT
    C. RBI
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A


Q17. What is the correct format of a VPA on UPI?

    A. abc/upi
    B. abc@upi
    C. abc-upi
    D. abc*upi
    Answer: B


Q18. To which of the following personalities is the BHIM app dedicated?

    A. Mahatma Gandhi
    B. Dr. B.R Ambedkar
    C. Subhash Chandra Bose
    D. Jawahar Lal Nehru
    Answer: B


Q19. What is the length of UPI pin?

    A. 2 digits
    B. 10 digits
    C. 4-6 digits
    D. 2-4 digits
    Answer: C


Q20. What does VPA stand for?

    A. Virtual Person Account
    B. Very Personal Address
    C. Verified Personal Address
    D. Virtual Payment Address
    Answer: D


Q21. What does S stands for in SFMS in relation to NEFT payment method?

    A. Statutory
    B. Systematic
    C. Structured
    D. Savings

    Answer: C


Q22. What is the maximum limit per transaction in NEFT?

    A. Rs 1,00,000
    B. Rs 50,000
    C. Rs 1,50,000
    D. No Such Limit
    Answer: B


Q23. How many digits are present in IFSC code?

    A. 9
    B. 15
    C. 10
    D. 11
    Answer: D


Q24. What is the minimum amount of money that can be transferred through RTGS?

    A. Rs 2 lakh
    B. Rs 2.5 lakh
    C. Rs 3 lakh
    D. Rs 5 lakh
    Answer: A


Q25. NEFT works on the principle of which of the following?

    A. Gross Batch Settlement
    B. Deferred Net Settlement
    C. Priority Net Settlement
    D. Domain Net Settlement
    Answer: B

1. The book “No Presents Please” has been authored by _____.

    A. Mohsin Hamid
    B. Anita Desai
    C. Dinesh Shahra
    D. Jayant Kaikini
    Answer: D


Q2. Which of the following Indian IT services rm has signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with French digital content publishing rm ‘Rakuten Aquafadas’ to collaborate on building enhanced Customer Experience?

    A. Wipro
    B. Tata Consultancy Services
    C. Tech Mahindra
    D. Infosys

    Answer: C


Q3. As per the Forbes’ 2019 List, who has been topped in the List of The World’s 100 Highest-Paid Athletes?

    A. Cristiano Ronaldo
    B. Lionel Messi
    C. Virat Kohli
    D. Serena Williams

    Answer: B


Q4. The government has set up a committee to examine the issues related to framing of a proper, structured scheme for providing insurance cover to advocates and suggest modalities for its implementation. The panel is headed by ____.

    A. Health Secretary
    B. Chairman of IRDAI
    C. Vice President of NITI Aayog
    D. Secretary Legal Affairs

    Answer: D


Q5. Who has been elected as the President of Indonesia amid 2019 elections?

    A. B. J. Habibie
    B. Abdurrahman Wahid
    C. Joko Widodo
    D. Sandiaga Uno

    Answer: C


Q6. International Organization for Migration (IOM) headquarters is located in which city?

    A. Rome
    B. London
    C. Washington
    D. Geneva

    Answer: D


Q7. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has announced to approve the rst vaccine for dengue____.

    A. Dengvaxia
    B. Vaxchora
    C. MenB
    D. Adenovirus

    Answer: A


Q8. Who has become the first country to declare an environmental and climate emergency?

    A. UK
    B. India
    C. Japan
    D. USA

    Answer: A


Q9. Who has become the first Indian woman fighter pilot to y by day on Hawk advanced jet aircraft?

    A. Manish Anand
    B. Avani Chaturvedi
    C. Bhawana Kanth
    D. Mohana Singh

    Answer: D


Q10. What is the rank of India in Kids Right Index 2019?

    A. 121
    B. 142
    C. 104
    D. 117
    Answer: D


Q11. Which of the following cities hosted the 8\(^{th}\) edition of Home Expo India 2019?

    A. Greater Noida
    B. Ranchi
    C. Gurugram
    D. Mumbai

    Answer: A


Q12. The National Green Tribunal on 07 March 2019, slapped a ne of Rs 500 crore on which of the following automobile companies for damaging the environment through the use of “cheat device” in its diesel cars in India?

    A. Toyota
    B. Ford
    C. Volkswagen
    D. Tata Motors

    Answer: C


Q13. On 1st April 2019, the longest suspension bridge has built over the River Indus in Leh-Ladakh region by Indian Army in the record time of 40 days. What is the name of the bridge?

    A. Sadbhavna
    B. Maitri
    C. Mahima
    D. Anant

    Answer: B


Q14. Which event has secured a place in the Guinness Book of World Records for the largest crowd management, largest sanitation drive and largest painting exercise of public sites?

    A. Jaipur Mela
    B. Sonepur Mela
    C. Pushkar Mela
    D. Kumbh Mela

    Answer: D


Q15. Who has won the 2019 IBSF Snooker World Team Cup?

    A. India
    B. Pakistan
    C. Japan
    D. Indonesia

    Answer: B


Q16. Who has won the 2019 Canadian Grand Prix?

    A. Daniel Ricciardo
    B. Sebastian Vettel
    C. Lewis Hamilton
    D. Valtteri Bottas

    Answer: C


Q17. The world body governing Badminton (BFA) has launched two new formats of the game ‘AirBadminton’ and ‘Triples’ with
new dimensions of the court and an innovative shuttlecock called _____.

    A. Bigshuttle
    B. Short shuttle
    C. Goshuttle
    D. Air shuttle

    Answer: D


Q18. Who has become India’s first woman to ICC’s international panel of match referees?

    A. Shriya Maben
    B. Anju Jain
    C. Mamatha Maben
    D. G S Lakshmi

    Answer: D


Q19. Which of the following state governments has appointed ‘Lokpal’ in all universities except agricultural universities to resolve student grievances?

    A. Uttar Pradesh
    B. Punjab
    C. Odisha
    D. Maharashtra
    Answer: D


Q20. The Union Textiles Minister Smriti Irani inaugurated the ‘Titanwala Museum’ in ______.

    A. Rajasthan
    B. Bihar
    C. Gujarat
    D. Uttar Pradesh

    Answer: A


Q21. Which of the following cities hosted the 4\(^{th}\) Resilient Cities Asia Pacific Congress 2019?

    A. Pune
    B. New Delhi
    C. Bhopal
    D. Lucknow

    Answer: B


Q22. Which of the following countries hosted the world’s foremost Artificial Intelligence (AI) Summit?

    A. USA
    B. China
    C. United Arab Emirates
    D. Japan

    Answer: C


Q23. Which of the following years have been dedicated by the Indian Army to be commemorated as the ‘Year of Next of Kin’?

    A. 2021
    B. 2020
    C. 2019
    D. 2025

    Answer: C


Q24. Which of the following space agency revealed its plan to hit a small moonlet target in a double asteroid system with a spacecraft in 2022?

    A. European Space Agency (ESA)
    B. China National Space Administration (CNSA)
    C. Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
    D. National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)

    Answer: D


Q25. Who has been appointed Managing Director (MD) of Twitter India?

    A. Manoj Sharma
    B. Neeraj Gupta
    C. Manish Roy
    D. Manish Maheshwari

    Answer: D

Q1. Who has been appointed interim Chairman cum Managing Director (MD) of Jammu and Kashmir Bank?

    A. R K Chibber
    B. Sanjay Thakur
    C. Birendra Kumar Singh
    D. Saroj Dube

    Answer: A


Q2. Which of the following countries hosted the G-20 Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors’ meeting?

    A. Fukuoka, Japan
    B. Beijing, China
    C. New Delhi, India
    D. Sydney, Australia

    Answer: A


Q3. Which of the following financial institution has approved USD 147 Million Loan Agreement for Jharkhand Municipal Development Project?

    A. World Bank
    B. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
    C. Asian Development Bank
    D. New Development Bank

    Answer: A


Q4. Who has been elected as the new Director-General of the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)?

    A. Daniel Zhang
    B. Ma Huateng
    C. Lei Jun
    D. Qu Dongyu

    Answer: D


Q5. What does ‘F’ stand for in the term SWIFT?

    A. Foreign
    B. Financial
    C. Futures
    D. Fiscal

    Answer: B


Q6. Under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), what is the revised housing loan limit under the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) for the metropolitan center?

    A. Rs 30 lakhs
    B. Rs 40 lakhs
    C. Rs 15 lakhs
    D. Rs 35 lakhs
    Answer: D


Q7. Which of the following banks is India’s first Small Finance Bank (SFB)?

    A. Ujjivan Financial Services Pvt. Ltd
    B. Capital Local Area Bank Ltd
    C. Au Financiers Ltd
    D. Janalakshmi Financial Services Pvt. Ltd

    Answer: B


Q8. What is the size of new 200-rupee bank note?

    A. 66mm x 142 mm
    B. 66 mm x 135 mm
    C. 63 mmX123 mm
    D. 66 mmX146 mm

    Answer: D


Q9. The State bank of India (SBI) has slashed the daily withdrawal limit on its classic debit card from Rs 40,000 to Rs. _______.

    A. Rs. 10000
    B. Rs. 20000
    C. Rs. 50000
    D. Rs. 60000
    Answer: B


Q10. The Government of India has raised for ling loan recovery application in the Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRT) by banks and financial institutions to ___.

    A. Rs. 5 lakh
    B. Rs. 10 lakh
    C. Rs. 15 lakh
    D. Rs. 20 lakh

    Answer: D


Q11. Which of the following banks has designed and developed PaiSA portal for quicker processing of loans under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana?

    A. Punjab National Bank
    B. Vijaya Bank
    C. Dena Bank
    D. Allahabad Bank

    Answer: D


Q12. What does ‘E’ stand for in SARFAESI?

    A. Economic
    B. Enforcement
    C. Earnings
    D. Economical

    Answer: B


Q13. Under which of the following sections of the RBI Act 1934, the Reserve Bank of India has the sole right to issue banknotes of all denominations except the one rupee note?

    A. Section 21
    B. Section 22
    C. Section 16
    D. Section 32

    Answer: B


Q14. Who has become the third listed entity to achieve a market cap of Rs 6 lakh crore after Reliance Industries and TCS?

    A. ICICI Bank
    B. HDFC Bank
    C. Bank of Baroda
    D. State Bank of India

    Answer: B


Q15. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation ( DICGC) is a subsidiary of _____.

    A. SEBI
    B. NABARD
    C. ONGC
    D. RBI
    Answer: D


Q16. RBI takes “Prompt Corrective Action” when a bank is faced to __

    A. Market Risk
    B. Credit Risk
    C. Liquidity Risk
    D. Low Capital Adequacy

    Answer: D


Q17. Which organization has launched Udyam Abhilasha, a national level entrepreneurship awareness campaign?

    A. NITI Aayog
    B. SIDBI
    C. NABARD
    D. RBI

    Answer: B


Q18. Which insurance company has launched a specially designed mentorship program ‘Wings’, to empower the female workforce?

    A. Life Insurance Corporation of India
    B. Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance
    C. Aviva Life Insurance
    D. Bharti AXA Life Insurance

    Answer: C


Q19. What is Mutilated Notes?

    A. Notes which are in pieces and/or of which the essential portions are missing
    B. Any banknote, which is wholly or partially, obliterated, shrunk
    C. Notes which are washed, altered or indecipherable
    D. Notes which are wholly or partially, obliterated, shrunk, washed, altered or indecipherable

    Answer: A


20. A company which pools money from investors and invests in stocks, bond and shares is called __.

    A. A Bank
    B. An Insurance company
    C. Bank assurance
    D. Mutual Fund

    Answer: D


Q20. A company which pools money from investors and invests in stocks, bond and shares is called __.

    A. A Bank
    B. An Insurance company
    C. Bank assurance
    D. Mutual Fund

    Answer: D


Q21. The hundred rupee currency note in India bears the signature of

    A. Finance Minister of India
    B. President of India
    C. Prime Minister of India
    D. Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
    Answer: D


Q22. Which of the following insurance company has launched a new microinsurance plan ‘Micro Bachat’?

    A. Birla Sun Life
    B. Life Insurance Corporation
    C. HDFC Life Term Insurance
    D. Bharti AXA Life Insurance Company Limited

    Answer: B


Q23. The stock exchanges are dened under which of the following acts?

    A. Companies Act, 2013
    B. SEBI Act, 1992
    C. SCRA, 1956
    D. RBI Act, 1934
    Answer: C


Q24. Who among the following is the regulator of Money Market?

    A. SEBI
    B. RBI
    C. IDFC
    D. IBA
    Answer: B


Q25. Who is known as the father of modern Economics?

    A. John Maynard Keynes
    B. Adam Smith
    C. Alfred Marshall
    D. Amartya Sen
    Answer: B

Q1. What is the type of banking where banks operate only from a single branch called as?

    A. Narrow Banking
    B. Unit Banking
    C. Shadow Banking
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B


Q2. What do we call the type of banking carried out by the non-bank financial intermediaries which provide services similar to those of traditional commercial banks

    A. Social Banking
    B. Mixed Banking
    C. Shadow Banking
    D. Narrow Banking
    Answer: C


Q3. What is Islamic Banking?

    A. Banking in which lending is prohibited
    B. Banking in Muslim countries
    C. Banking consistent with the principles of sharia
    D. None of the
    Answer: C


Q4. What is the banking, where all banking operations are online, known as?

    A. Virtual Banking
    B. Retail Banking
    C. Mixed Banking
    D. Social Banking
    Answer: A


Q5. What do we call the banking oriented towards mass welfare and financial inclusion of the poor?

    A. Mass Banking
    B. Narrow banking
    C. Social banking
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C


Q6. What do we call the banks that undertakes commercial banking, investment banking, mutual funds and merchant banking?

    A. Mixed Banking
    B. Retail Banking
    C. Universal Banking
    D. Narrow Banking
    Answer: C


Q7. What is the type of banking which involves banking services for high net-worth clients like corporate, commercial banks, mid-size companies etc?

    A. Retail Banking
    B. Wholesale Banking
    C. Narrow Banking
    D. Merchant Banking
    Answer: B


Q8. What is Retail Banking?

    A. where transactions are held with other banks
    B. where transactions are held directly with individuals
    C. where transactions are held with other big corporations
    D. All of the above
    Answer: B


Q9. What is the banking known as when a group of persons come together to own and control three or more independently chartered banks?

    A. Chain banking
    B. Unit banking
    C. Merchant Banking
    D. Nine of the above
    Answer: A


Q10. What is the Banking combining banking and consultancy services called as?

    A. Unit Banking
    B. Merchant Banking
    C. Narrow Banking
    D. Wholesale Banking
    Answer: B


Q11. What is the name of the central bank of Germany?

    A. German State Bank
    B. Deutsche Bundesbank
    C. Bayerische Landesbank
    D. HypoVereinsbank
    Answer: B


Q12. In which schedule are the scheduled banks of India listed in the RBI Act, 1934?

    A. 1st
    B. 2nd
    C. 3rd
    D. 4th
    Answer: B


Q13. Which of these is an International Financial Institution?

    A. World Bank
    B. European Investment Bank
    C. Both a and b
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C


Q14. What is the main business of commercial banks?

    A. lending and deposits from public
    B. lending and deposits from corporation
    C. Both a and b
    D. None
    Answer: C


Q15. What do we call the banks which provide capital to the firms in the form of shares and engage in underwriting of stocks?

    A. Commercial Banks
    B. Universal Banks
    C. Merchant Banks
    D. IFI
    Answer: C


Q16. Which of these banks are not-for-profit banks owned by the depositor?

    A. Cooperative banks
    B. Merchant banks
    C. Land Banks
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A


Q17. Where was the first Land Development Bank set up in India?

    A. Punjab
    B. Tamil Nadu
    C. Odisha
    D. Bihar
    Answer: A


Q18. Which is the first co-operative bank in India?

    A. Anyonya Co-operative Bank Limited
    B. Bombay Co-operative Bank Limited
    C. Jamnagar Co-operative Bank Limited
    D. The Hindu Co-oprative Bank Limited
    Answer: A


Q19. What is not true about Payment bank?

    A. It cannot issue loans
    B. It can accept deposits
    C. It can issue credit cards
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A


Q20. What is the function of a Central Bank?

    A. Foreign exchange management
    B. Managing currency
    C. Money Supply management
    D. All of the above
    Answer: C


Q21. How much shares the government hold in the Public sector banks?

    A. Minimum 75%
    B. More than 50%
    C. More than 33%
    D. More than 49%
    Answer: C


Q22. How many Public Sector banks are there in India presently?

    A. 18
    B. 19
    C. 22
    D. 21
    Answer: B


Q23. Where is the headquarter of SBI located in India?

    A. New Delhi
    B. Bangalore
    C. Chennai
    D. Mumbai
    Answer: A


Q24. Where was Canara Bank first set up in 1906?

    A. Mangalore
    B. Varanasi
    C. Madras
    D. Lahore
    Answer: D


Q25. Where was the Oriental Bank of Commerce established in India?

    A. Lahore
    B. Amritsar
    C. Karachi
    D. Dehradoon
    Answer: A


Q26. Which public sector bank has the tagline “Your Tech-friendly bank”?

    A. Dena bank
    B. Bank of Baroda
    C. Indian bank
    D. United Bank
    Answer: A


Q27. Which public sector bank had the account of the famous Jalianwala Bagh Committee?

    A. State bank of India
    B. Central Bank of India
    C. Punjab National Bank
    D. Bank of India
    Answer: C


Q28. Where is the headoffice of Indian Overseas Bank located?

    A. Chennai
    B. Madurai
    C. Gurgaon
    D. Patna
    Answer: C


Q29. Where is the headquarters of Bank of Maharashtra located in India?

    A. Mumbai
    B. Pune
    C. Aurangabad
    D. Thane
    Answer: A


Q30. When was the first phase of the India Post Payment bank inaugurated?

    A. 1st September 2018
    B. 1st January 2017
    C. 15th August 2017
    D. 26th January 2018
    Answer: A

Q1. Which of the following are not the Priority Sector categories?

    A. Education
    B. Housing
    C. Roadways
    D. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
    Answer: C


Q2. The Government of India has enacted the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, ____________.

    A. 2012
    B. 2010
    C. 2008
    D. 2006
    Answer: D


Q3. A Pensioner is entitled for compensation for delayed credit of pension/arrears thereof at the fixed rate of ________________ per annum (since 01st October 2008) and the same would be credited to the pensioner’s account automatically by the bank on the same day when the bank affords delayed credit of such pension/arrears etc. without any claim from the pensioner.

    A. 8.00%
    B. 5.00%
    C. 7.00%
    D. 6.00%
    Answer: A


Q4. What is the loan limit for individuals to education under priority sector?

    A. Rs. 100 million
    B. Rs. 5 million
    C. Rs. 10 million
    D. Rs. 1 million
    Answer: D


Q5. A micro enterprise is an enterprise where investment in plant and machinery does not exceed Rs. ____________ lakh.

    A. Rs. 20 lakh
    B. Rs. 25 lakh
    C. Rs. 50 lakh
    D. Rs. 100 lakh
    Answer: B


Q6. The concerned pension sanctioning authorities in the Ministries/Departments/forward the PPOs to bank branches wherefrom the pensioner desires to draw his/her pension. What is the full form of PPOs?

    A. Pension Payment Over
    B. Permanent Parcel Orders
    C. Pension Pending Orders
    D. Pension Payment Orders
    Answer: D


Q7. What is the limit for housing loans in metropolitan centres (with population of ten lakh and above) under priority sector?

    A. Rs. 100 million
    B. Rs. 2.50 million
    C. Rs. 1.00 million
    D. Rs. 3.50 million
    Answer: A


Q8. Public sector banks have been advised to open at least one specialized branch in each district. The banks have been permitted to categorize their MSME general banking branches having _____________ or more of their advances to MSME sector, as specialized MSME branches for providing better service to this sector as a whole.

    A. 80.00%
    B. 20.00%
    C. 60.00%
    D. 50.00%
    Answer: B


Q9. In terms of Section ________________ of the RBI Act 1934, RBI has the obligation to undertake the receipts and payments of the Central Government and to carry out the exchange, remittance and other banking operations, including the management of the public debt of the Union.

    A. Section 21
    B. Section 20
    C. Section 23
    D. Section 25
    Answer: B


Q10. PSLCs are a mechanism to enable banks to achieve the priority sector lending target and sub-targets by purchase of these instruments in the event of shortfall. What is the full form of PSLCs?

    A. Priority Sector Lending Certificates
    B. Public Sector Lending Certificates
    C. Priority Security Lending Certificates
    D. Priority Sector Lending Centers
    Answer: A


Q11. Which Bank has been categorized as a private sector lender following the acquisition of majority stake by Life Insurance Corporation?

    A. UCO Bank
    B. Vijaya Bank
    C. Corporation Bank
    D. IDBI Bank
    Answer: D


Q12. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) named State Bank of India (SBI), ICICI Bank and ________________________ as D-SIBs, which in other words mean banks that are too big to fail.

    A. HDFC Bank
    B. Bank of Baroda
    C. Axis Bank
    D. Punjab National Bank
    Answer: A


Q13. Which Bank has launched a new service called ‘YONO Cash’ for its customers using which customers can withdraw money from ATMs without using debit cards?

    A. HDFC Bank
    B. Union Bank of India
    C. Bank of Baroda
    D. State Bank of India
    Answer: A


Q14. D-SIBs has already been phased-in from 01st April 2016 and fully effective from 01st April 2019. What is the full form of D-SIBs?

    A. Dividend Systemically Important Banks
    B. Domestic Security Important Banks
    C. Domestic Systemically Important Banks
    D. Domestic Systemically International Banks
    Answer: D


Q15. YONO is an integrated digital banking platform offered by State Bank of India (SBI) to enable users to access a variety of financial and other services such as taxi bookings, online shopping, or medical bill payments. YONO stands for-

    A. You Only Need Only
    B. You Only Need One
    C. You Only Nation One
    D. Yahoo Only Need One
    Answer: C


Q16. In which year, The Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL) was set up?

    A. December 1995
    B. April 2001
    C. October 1999
    D. January 2003
    Answer: D


Q17. CBLO is a money market instrument that represents an obligation between a borrower and a lender as to the terms and conditions of a loan. CBLO stands for-

    A. Central Borrowing and Lending Obligation
    B. Collateralized Borrowing and Lease Obligation
    C. Collateralized Banking and Lending Obligation
    D. Collateralized Borrowing and Lending Obligation
    Answer: B


Q18. AIIB is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia and beyond. AIIB commenced operations in-

    A. January 2014
    B. January 2015
    C. January 2016
    D. January 2017
    Answer: A


Q19. Which organisation has been given the sole privilege to operate Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana?

    A. TRAI
    B. IRDAI
    C. SEBI
    D. LIC of India
    Answer: C


Q20. In which of the following year Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) was introduced?

    A. 2012
    B. 2008
    C. 2004
    D. 2006
    Answer: C

Q1. NPCI is an umbrella organization for all retail payments system in India. It was set up with the guidance and support of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA). What does NPCI stands for-

    A. National Payments Corporation of Industry
    B. National Payments Council of India
    C. National Payments Corporation of India
    D. National Product Corporation of India
    Answer: D


Q2. In which among the following years NPCI was incorporated-

    A. December 2008
    B. January 2006
    C. April 2010
    D. July 2012
    Answer: A


Q3. The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is the world’s oldest international financial organisation. BIS was established on-

    A. 26th May 1961
    B. 14th February 1914
    C. 21st August 1945
    D. 17th May 1930
    Answer: D


Q4. Where is the head office of Bank for International Settlements (BIS)?

    A. New York, USA
    B. Basel, Switzerland
    C. Berlin, Germany
    D. Geneva, Switzerland
    Answer: C


Q5. Under which act NPCI was incorporated as a Section 8?

    A. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
    B. Companies Act 2013
    C. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
    D. Societies Registration Act, 1860
    Answer: B


Q6. Most banks are offering teaser rates on home loans. What does it mean?

    A.The rates keep fluctuating during the period of loan with high uncertainty
    B. The initial rate is offered at a rate lower than the prevailing market rate for a few months and then gradually keeps increasing
    C. The initial rate is higher than the current market rate with offer of lower rates at a later date
    D. Home loan borrowers of shorter duration are given preferential rate
    Answer: B


Q7. Who decides the value and volume of bank notes to be printed and on what basis?

    A. Finance Ministry
    B. Planning Commission
    C. RBI
    D. Stock Exchange
    Answer: C


Q8. Indian Banking Regulation Act was passed in the year?

    A.1971
    B. 1969
    C. 1949
    D. 1947
    Answer: B


Q9. Financial Market consists of-

    A. Foreign exchange
    B. Debt Instruments
    C. Equities
    D. All of the above
    Answer: C


Q10. Who is authorised to sign ‘one-rupee’ note?

    A. Secretary, Ministry of Finance
    B. RBI Governor
    C. Prime Minister
    D. Finance Minister
    Answer: D


Q11. ‘Closed Economy’ is that economy in which…………?

    A. Neither export nor import takes place
    B. Deficit financing takes place
    C. Only export takes place
    D. All of the above
    Answer: A


Q12. The SDR was created by the IMF in ____________ as a supplementary international reserve asset, in the context of the Bretton Woods fixed exchange rate system.

    A. 1945
    B. 1969
    C. 1980
    D. 1991
    Answer: A


Q13. The headquarters of SIDBI is in-

    A. Lucknow
    B. New Delhi
    C. Mumbai
    D. Kolkata
    Answer: A


Q14. LIC of India was established in-

    A. 1897
    B. 1956
    C. 1970
    D. 1965
    Answer: B


Q15. What is ‘Hawala market’?

    A. Illegal market for exchanging rupees and foreign currencies
    B. Full details of a subject
    C Illegal trading of shares
    D. Tax evasion
    Answer: B


Q16. NABARD was dedicated to the service of the nation by the late Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi on-

    A. 01st January 1949
    B. 19th July 1980
    C. 15th April 1969
    D. 05th November 1982
    Answer: C


Q17. The mission of NABARD is Promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural prosperity through effective credit support, related services, institution development and other innovative initiatives. What is meaning of “R” IN NABARD?

    A. Regional
    B. Rural
    C. Reconstruction
    D. Revised
    Answer: D


Q18. SAT is a statutory body established under the provisions of Section 15K of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Act, 1992. SAT stands for-

    A. Securities Appellate Tribunal
    B. Securities Appellate Treaty
    C. Securities Association Tribunal
    D. Saving Appellate Tribunal
    Answer: A


Q19. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established on-

    A. 12th April 1999
    B. 12th April 1992
    C. 12th April 1949
    D. 12th April 1990
    Answer: D


Q20. NABARD was set up with an initial capital of-

    A. Rs 200 crore
    B. Rs 1500 crore
    C. Rs 500 crore
    D. Rs 100 crore
    Answer: B


Q21. The Reserve Bank of India was established on-?

    A. 01st January 1949
    B. 01st April 1935
    C. 01st January 1921
    D. 01st April 1956
    Answer: B


Q22. In which of the following city, the Central Office of the Reserve Bank was initially established?

    A. Bengaluru
    B. New Delhi
    C. Chennai
    D. Calcutta
    Answer: D


Q23. The Reserve Bank of India was established in accordance with the provisions of-

    A. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
    B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
    C. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
    D. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
    Answer: A


Q24. In which of the following year, the Central Office of the Reserve Bank was permanently moved to Mumbai?

    A. 1956
    B. 1949
    C. 1935
    D. 1937
    Answer: D


Q25. The Reserve Bank of India is fully owned by-

    A. Government of India
    B. Ministry of Finance
    C. State Bank of India
    D. Supreme Court of India
    Answer: B

Q1. Reserve bank of India (RBI) has nalised three years roadmap to improve regulation and supervision of the central bank. What is the name of the roadmap?

    A. Unnati 2022
    B. Upkar 2021
    C. Umang 2022
    D. Utkarsh 2022
    Answer: D


Q2. Which of the following banks has launched the Centralised MSME & Retail Group (Cen-MARG) to provide credit facilities to MSME?

    A. Union Bank of India
    B. State Bank of India
    C. Syndicate Bank
    D. Bank of Baroda
    Answer: D


Q3. Which of the following banks has launched the web tool named ‘Vasool So-Ft’ to digitalise the NPA (non-performing asset) recovery process of the bank?

    A. Union Bank of India
    B. ICICI Bank
    C. Karnataka Bank Ltd
    D. HDFC Bank
    Answer: C


Q4. Who is the current Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Ofcer (CEO) of Karnataka Bank

    A. P Jayarama Bhat
    B. Shyam Srinivasan
    C. Uday Kotak
    D. M S Mahabaleshwara
    Answer: D


Q5. Which of the following banks has launched India’s rst ‘Green Car Loan’ to encourage customers to buy electric vehicles?

    A. State Bank of India
    B. Union Bank of India
    C. Bank of Baroda
    D. Punjab National Bank
    Answer: B


Q6. Which of the following banks has successfully rolled out major new functionality to support EMV card acquiring across its ATM network and Aadhaar Authentication?

    A. Indian Overseas Bank
    B. Bank of Baroda
    C. Union Bank of India
    D. Canara Bank
    Answer: C


Q7. The benet of standard deduction from salary was introduced in Budget 2018. The standard deduction of Rs 40,000 is increased to Rs. ____ in the Interim Budget 2019-20?

    A. Rs. 45,000
    B. Rs. 50,000
    C. Rs. 55,000
    D. Rs. 60,000
    Answer: B


Q8. Which bank has agreed with the European Investment Bank to nance the renewable energy sector in India?

    A. HDFC
    B. Axis
    C. State Bank of India
    D. NABARD
    Answer: D


Q9. The nine-member K Kasturirangan committee had submitted its draft report on 31 December 2018 to the HRD Ministry on which issue?

    A. Industrial Policy
    B. New Education Policy
    C. sub-quotas for the extremely backward classes within the OBCs
    D. sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes
    Answer: A


Q10. According to the latest edition of the World Bank’s Migration and Development report, India retained its position as the world’s top recipient of remittances in 2018. What is the total remittances India received in 2018?

    A. USD 75 billion
    B. USD 67 billion
    C.USD 80 billion
    D. USD 73 billion
    Answer: C


Q11. What is the name of Unied Payment Option that was launched by SBI through which customers will be able to pay through credit or debit cards, Bharat QR, Unied Payments Interface (UPI) and SBI Buddy (e-wallet) at a Point of Sale (PoS) terminal?

    A. MOPAD
    B. MODEC
    C. DECORD
    D. APPOLD
    Answer: B


Q12. What is the name of risk that is associated with failure of banks in payment of amount representing clearing cheques presented by different banks?

    A. Clearing risk
    B. Uncertainty risk
    C. Settlement risk
    D. Market risk
    Answer: D


Q13. The ‘IDRBT’ is established by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 1996. It is a unique institution exclusively focused on ______?

    A. Rural Development
    B. Banking Technology
    C. Micro & Medium sector
    D. Science & Défense Technology
    Answer: A


Q14. The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was set up by the Government in 1995-96 for financing ongoing rural Infrastructure projects. The RIDF is maintained by the _____?

    A. RBI
    B. NABARD
    C. SIDBI
    D. NPCI

    Answer: B


Q15. Name the account for which bank act as an uninterested third party (custodian/depository) to ensure compliance with the terms of the deal between two parties only upon the fulllment of some stated conditions?

    A. Escrow account
    B. Nostro account
    C. Vostro account
    D. Loro account
    Answer: D


Q16. What is the name of a certicate issued by a depository bank, which purchases shares of foreign companies and deposits it on the account?

    A. American depository receipt
    B. Global depository receipt
    C. European depository receipt
    D. Indian depository receipt
    Answer: D


Q17. Under which of the following sections of the Banking Regulation Act,1949 does RBI issue guidelines on the maintenance of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)?

    A. Section 24
    B. Section 42
    C. Section 26
    D. Section 56

    Answer: D


Q18. Narrow Money, a term in monetary aggregates, is denoted by ____?

    A. M2 and M1
    B. M4 and M3
    C. M1 and M3
    D. M3 and M1
    Answer: B


Q19. What do you understand by Cheque Truncation System?

    A. Physical movement of a cheque is stopped between banks and instead of physical movement an electronic image be exchanged for clearance of funds which is faster and safer.
    B. The physical movement of a cheque for clearance of funds be made more secure
    C.Issue of cheques to customers be made more secure by introducing more enhanced security features
    D. A new technology to process payments between Banks exclusively
    Answer: D


Q20. The rate at which banks borrow money from the RBI is called ____?

    A. MSF Rate
    B. SLR
    C. CRR
    D. Repo Rate
    Answer: B


Q21. Which among the following is one of the products or services of NPCI?

    A. INDPAY
    B. VISA
    C. VSAT
    D. NACH
    Answer: A


Q22. In how many languages, the amount of a bank note is written on it?

    A. 15
    B. 17
    C. 22
    D. 24
    Answer: B


Q23. National Automated Clearing House (NACH) is introduced by ____?

    A. RBI
    B. SBI
    C. Govt. of India
    D. SEB
    Answer: D


Q24.‘SIP’ in Mutual Fund business means?

    A. Salaried Individuals and Plans
    B. Systemized Insurance Plans
    C. Systemized MF Plans
    D. Systematic Investment Plans
    Answer: B


Q25. Banks in India are regulated under ____?

    A. Companies Act, 1956
    B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
    C. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
    D. Special powers conferred on the RBI
    Answer: D

Q1. Who manages the registration and management activities of Urban co-operative banks in India?

    A. RBI
    B. NABARD
    C. RCS
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C


Q2. Which of these are at the lowest rung of Rural Cooperative banking structure in India?

    A. State Cooperative Banks
    B. District Central Cooperative Banks
    C. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C


Q3. When was the first law, regulating the working of cooperative societies, was promulgated by British India Government?

    A. 1902
    B. 1904
    C. 1907
    D. 1908
    Answer: B


Q4. Where was the first society under Cooperative Societies Act 1904 registered in India?

    A. Madurai
    B. Kanjipoorum
    C. Gaya
    D. Panaji
    Answer: B


Q5. Who regulates the functioning of District Cooperative Banks in India?

    A. State Government
    B. RBI
    C. State Cooperative Banks
    D. None
    Answer: B


Q6. Which of these committees was formed in 1915 to review the performance of cooperative societies and suggest measures for strengthening them?

    A. Raja Hari Committee
    B. Maclagan Committee
    C. Saraiya Committee
    D. Frederick Nicholson Committee
    Answer: B


Q7. Which of these committees in 1945 recommended the setting up of a Cooperative Training College in every state?

    A. Saraiya Committee
    B. Machalan Committee
    C. Narsimaham Committee
    D. Rajagopalachari Committee
    Answer: A


Q8. Which was the first Cooperative Bank established in India?

    A. Bharat Co-operative Bank Limited
    B. Kangra Central Co-operative Bank Limited
    C. Anyonya Co-operative Bank Limited
    D. Abhyudaya Co-operative Bank
    Answer: C


Q9. Which of these is a Cooperative Bank in India?

    A. Cosmos Bank
    B. SVC Bank
    C. Janata Sahakari Bank
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


Q10. Which is the largest cooperative bank of India presently?

    A. Saraswat Bank
    B. NKGSB Cooperative Bank
    C. Apna Sahakari Bank Ltd
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A


Q11. In which year the Regional Rural Banks Act was passed?

    A. 1986
    B. 1976
    C. 1992
    D. 1988
    Answer: B


Q12. What is the share of Sponsor Banks in the Regional Rural Banks?

    A. 75%
    B. 25%
    C. 15%
    D. 35%
    Answer: D


Q13. Which of these was the first RRB to be set up in India?

    A. Gaur Gramin Bank
    B. Prathama Bank
    C. Arunachal Pradesh Rural Bank
    D. Himachal Gramin Bank
    Answer: B


Q14. Which was the first RRB to be set up in the Eastern Region of India?

    A. Odisha Gramin Bank
    B. Gour Gramin Bank
    C. Serampore Gramin Bank
    D. Assam Gramin Bank
    Answer: B


Q15. Which state the Vananchal Gramin Bank belongs to?

    A. Jharkhand
    B. Madhya Pradesh
    C. Chhattisgarh
    D. Bihar
    Answer: A


Q16. Which was the first RRB in India to adopt CBS platform?

    A. Prathama Bank
    B. Telangana Grameen Vikas Bank
    C. Rushikulya Gramya Bank
    D. Gaur Gramin Bank
    Answer: C


Q17. Which of these committees reviewed the financial position of all RRBs in 2010 and recommended fo recapitalization?

    A. Rangarajan committee
    B. Sukhmoy committee
    C. K.C Tyagi committee
    D. Chakrabarty Committee
    Answer: D


Q18. Which state has the highest number of RRBs in India?

    A. Uttar Pradesh
    B. Bihar
    C. West Bengal
    D. Maharashtra
    Answer: A


Q19. Which nationalised bank sponsored the Prathama Bank?

    A. Syndicate bank
    B. Punjab National Bank
    C. State Bank of India
    D. Allahabad Bank
    Answer: A


Q20. Which of these RRB is not sponsored by State bank of India?

    A. Saurashtra Grameen Bank
    B. Utkal Grameen Bank
    C. Uttarakhand Grameen Bank
    D. Punjab Grameen Bank
    Answer: D


Q21. What is the minimum start up capital fixed for Local Area Capital Banks?

    A. Rs 1 crore
    B. Rs 2 crore
    C. Rs 5 crore
    D. Rs 10 crore
    Answer: C


Q22. Under which act the Local Area banks are registered?

    A. Banking Regulations Act 1949
    B. Companies Act 1956
    C. RBI Act 1935
    D. None
    Answer: B


Q23. What type of a bank is a Local Area Bank?

    A. Scheduled Banks
    B. Non-scheduled Banks
    C. Un-scheduled Banks
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B


Q24. With which bank South Gujarat Local Area Bank Ltd was merged in 2004?

    A. Punjab National Bank
    B. State Bank of India
    C. Bank of Baroda
    D. Syndicate Bank
    Answer: C


Q25. Which is the smallest Local Area Bank in India?

    A. Subhadra Local Area Bank Ltd
    B. Coastal Local Area Bank Ltd
    C. Capital Local Area Bank Ltd
    D. Krishna Bhima Samruddhi Local Area Bank Ltd
    Answer: A


Q26. Which state Coastal Local Area Bank Ltd belongs to?

    A. Gujarat
    B. Andhra Pradesh
    C. Karnataka
    D. Tamil Nadu
    Answer: B


Q27. Which state Capital Local Area Bank Ltd belongs to?

    A. Maharashtra
    B. New Delhi
    C. Punjab
    D. Rajasthan
    Answer: C


Q28. When was Krishna Bhima Samruddhi Local Area Bank Ltd established?

    A. 2000
    B. 2001
    C. 2002
    D. 2004
    Answer: B


Q29. When were the Local Area Banks were set up first in India?

    A. 1994
    B. 1995
    C. 1996
    D. 1998
    Answer: C


Q30. How many Local Area banks exist at present?

    A. 10
    B. 4
    C. 7
    D. 34
    Answer: B

Q1. Which of these banks was nationalised in 1969?

    A. United Bank of India
    B. Vijaya Bank
    C. Andhra Bank
    D. Punjab and Sind Bank
    Answer: A


Q2. Which nationalised bank was merged with Punjab National bank in 1993?

    A. Punjab and Sind Bank
    B. Ludhiana Area bank
    C. Majha united bank
    D. New Bank of India
    Answer: D


Q3. Who was the Prime Minister of India when Banking Nationalization was done in 1969?

    A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
    B. Indira Gandhi
    C. Rajiv Gandhi
    D. Narsimha Rao
    Answer: B


Q4. When was the State Bank of India nationalised?

    A. 1955
    B. 1956
    C. 1959
    D. 1964
    Answer: A


Q5. Which of these banks was not associated with the State Bank of India in 1959?

    A. State Bank of Hyderabad
    B. State Bank of Indore
    C. State Bank of Mysore
    D. State Bank of Patna
    Answer: D


Q6. Why were Banks nationalised in India?

    A. To borrow money from the USA
    B. To follow the IMF guidelines
    C. To provide the government of India more control of credit delivery
    D. All of the above
    Answer: C


Q7. Which of these banks was nationalised in 1969?

    A. Union Bank of India
    B. Oriental Bank of Commerce
    C. UCO Bank
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


Q8. How many banks were nationalised in 1980?

    A. 5
    B. 6
    C. 7
    D. 8
    Answer: B


Q9. How many banks were Nationalised in 1969 under the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of
Undertakings) Ordinance, 1969?

    A. 15
    B. 14
    C. 13
    D. 11
    Answer: B


Q10. In which year the second round of Bank nationalization was done?

    A. 1979
    B. 1974
    C. 1980
    D. 1988
    Answer: C


Q11. What was the primary objective of Sukhmoy Chakravarty Committee formed in 1982?

    A. to form guidelines for the opening of Private Sector Banks
    B. to consider merging of all cooperative banks
    C. to assess the functioning of the Indian Monetary system
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C


Q12. In which year did the Vaghul committee submitted its report?

    A. 1991
    B. 1987
    C. 1992
    D. 1990
    Answer: B


Q13. What was the maximum limit of Statutory Liquidity Ratio had Narasimham Committee recommended?

    A. 25%
    B. 20%
    C. 15%
    D. 18%
    Answer: A


Q14. When was the Banking Ombudsman scheme first introduced in India?

    A. 1995
    B. 1998
    C. 1999
    D. 2001
    Answer: A


Q15. When was the process of introducing computerization in all branches of banks began in 1993?

    A. 1991
    B. 1992
    C. 1993
    D. 1994
    Answer: C


Q16. When was ICICI bank founded?

    A. 1991
    B. 1992
    C. 1993
    D. 1994
    Answer: D


Q17. What is the full form of FEMA?

    A. Fixed Entity Management Act
    B. Foreign Exchange Management Act
    C. Foreign Entity Management Act
    D. Finance Establishment Management Act
    Answer: B


Q18. Which of these is also called as Committee on Capital Account Convertibility?

    A. Tarapore Committee
    B. Rangarajan Committee
    C. N N Vohra Committee
    D. Indrajit Committee
    Answer: A


Q19. What was the target set by Narasimham-II Committee for the capital adequacy ratio of the banks by the year
2000?

    A. 8%
    B. 9%
    C. 10%
    D. 11%
    Answer: B


Q20. Which was the first Indian bank to provide Internet Banking Facility in India?

    A. HDFC
    B. ICICI
    C. SBI
    D. Axis
    Answer: B


Q21. __________ is a form of paper certificate that promises to pay a certain amount to the bearer in the form of fiat money or commodity.

    A. Fiduciary Money
    B. Fiat Money
    C. Commodity Money
    D. Commercial Money
    Answer: A


Q22. Consider the following about the Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies, 2018. Which among the following is true
about NBFC-Ombudsman?

    A. NBFC Ombudsman can redress customer complaints against NBFCs under the grounds of complaint specified under Clause 6 of the Scheme.
    B. It may award compensation not exceeding rupees 1 million to the complainant for causing mental agony and harassment.
    C. As on date, NBFC Ombudsman offices are located only in Mumbai and New Delhi.
    D. It does not charge any fee for filing and resolving customers’ complaints.
    Answer: D


Q23. Unrealized gains/losses are credited/debited to the CGRA. In CGRA, ‘R’ denotes _________.

    A. Registration
    B. Reserve
    C. Rating
    D. Revaluation
    Answer: D


Q24. Which among the following is TRUE about Commercial Papers?

    A. It is a secured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note.
    B. It can be issued in the denominations of ₹ 1 Lakh.
    C. It can be issued for maturities from 1 day to 1 year.
    D. A scheduled bank can act as an IPA for the issuance of CP.
    Answer: D


Q25. Special Drawing Rights refer to an international type of monetary reserve currency created by _________.

    A. RBI
    B. IMF
    C. WEF
    D. UN
    Answer: B

Q1. IRDAI has announced that it will adopt RBC regime from the current solvency principle to improve protection for policyholders. What is the full form of RBC?

    A. Risk Based Capacity
    B. Repo Based Capital
    C. Rating Based Capital
    D. Risk Based Capital
    Answer: D


Q2. ________ is a savings linked insurance policy with a specific maturity date.

    A. Unit Linked Policy
    B. Endowment Policy
    C. Third Party Policy
    D. Re-insurance Policy
    Answer: B


Q3. DICGC insures all bank deposits up to the limit of Rs. 1,00,000 of each deposit in a bank. “G” in ‘DICGC’ stands for which of the following term?

    A. Growth
    B. GDP
    C. Government
    D. Guarantee
    Answer: D


Q4. As announced in the Interim Budget 2019, the ceiling of ESI’s (Employees’ State Insurance) eligibility cover has been increased from Rs 15,000 pm to Rs________ pm.

    A. Rs. 21,000
    B. Rs. 20,000
    C. Rs. 18,000
    D. Rs. 22,000
    Answer: A


Q5. According to the ranking published by ‘Standard & Poors’, which Indian reinsurance company has secured 10th position among the top 40 global reinsurers?

    A. Life Insurance Corporation of India
    B. New India Assurance Corporation of India
    C. General Insurance Corporation of India
    D. National Insurance Company Ltd.
    Answer: C


Q6. Which scheme was launched by ‘Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC)’ for insured persons covered under the ‘Employees’ State Insurance Act’?

    A. Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Rog Nivaran Yojana
    B. Pradhan Mantri Garib Uthan Yojana
    C. Deen Dayal Garib Kalyan Yojana
    D. Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojna
    Answer: D


Q7. “National Insurance Academy” is located in which city of India?

    A. Mumbai
    B. New Delhi
    C. Chennai
    D. Pune
    Answer: D


Q8. A form of insurance that pays damages equal to the replacement value of damaged property minus depreciation is known by which of the following term?

    A. Survival Benefit
    B. Actual Cash Value
    C. Surrender Value
    D. Substandard Value
    Answer: B


Q9. What do you understand by term ‘Riders’ used in Insurance sector?

    A. Third Party insurance benefits
    B. Co-insurance compulsory benefits
    C. Reinsurance conditions
    D. Optional add-on benefit linked with policy
    Answer: D


Q10. When you buy a life insurance policy, you generally have ____. During this time, you have the option of canceling your policy without penalty.

    A. Negotiation Period
    B. Free Look Period
    C. Grace Period
    D. Pre-Investment Period
    Answer: B


Q11. The number of digits in MMID is which among the following?

    A. 6
    B. 7
    C. 9
    D. 10
    Answer: B


Q12. Which of the following is true?

    A. Headline inflation = core inflation- food and fuel inflation
    B. Core inflation= headline inflation- food inflation
    C. Core inflation = headline inflation- food and fuel inflation
    D. Headline inflation=core inflation- food inflation
    Answer: C


Q13. It is a tax on the personal income of the individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), partnership firms, etc.

    A. Income tax (Personal Income tax)
    B. Customs Duties
    C. Goods and Services tax
    D. Union Excise Duties
    Answer: A


Q14. A/an __________operates until the completion of a transaction process, which is implemented after all the conditions between the buyer and the seller are settled.

    A. NRO
    B. NRE
    C. Escrow
    D. Nostro
    Answer: C


Q15. Stamp duty is collected by the states and it can be classified into how many categories?

    A. Two
    B. Three
    C. Four
    D. five
    Answer: A


Q16. The maximum transaction limit of United Payment Interface isa) Rs 1 lakh

    A. Rs 3 lakh
    B. Rs 5 lakh
    C. Rs 7 lakh
    D. Other than those given in options
    Answer: A


Q17. PF tax-exempt on completion of __________years of continuous service to an employer.

    A. 7
    B. 6
    C. 5
    D. 4
    Answer: C


Q18. The financial market for selling long term debts and equity-backed securities is known as which among the following?

    A. Bullion market
    B. Capital market
    C. Corporate Debt market
    D. Financial market
    Answer: B


Q19. Which among the following tracks an index but can be traded on the stock exchanges like any other common stock?

    A. Reserve Fund
    B. Foreign Exchange Fund
    B. Exchange Traded Fund
    D. Trading Fund
    Answer: C


Q20. The Capital to Risk Weighted assets ratio of IFC is which among the following?

    A. 20 percent
    B. 15 percent
    C. 25 percent
    D. 30 percent
    Answer: B


Q21. In context of credit rating, which of the following statements is/ are true?

    A. Credit rating is an assessment of the probability of default on payment of interest and principal on a debt instrument
    B. In India, the issuer company pays for the credit rating.
    C. SEBI does not play any role in the assessment made by the rating agency
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


Q22. ICICI Securities Ltd has announced the launch of _______services, which instantly credits into a retail investor’s bank account funds accrued from stock sales.

    A. eInvest
    B. eStock
    C. eSecure
    D. eATM
    Answer: B


Q23. Who among the following is present chairman of Trade body Association of Mutual Funds in India?

    A. Kailash Kulkarni
    B. Nimesh Shah
    C. Praful Patel
    D. Dhruv Mehta
    Answer: C


Q24. What is the contract cycle for T-Bill Futures?

    A. It consists of Four serial monthly contracts followed by three quarterly contracts expiring in March, June, September and December.
    B. It consists of Five serial monthly contracts followed by Four quarterly contracts expiring in March, June, September and December.

    C. It consists of three serial monthly contracts followed by three quarterly contracts expiring in March, June, September and December.
    D. It consists of three serial monthly contracts followed by three quarterly contracts expiring in March, June and September.
    Answer:


Q25. ___________is a measure of the return of the bond.

    A. Yield to maturity
    B. Venture Capital Fund
    C. Funding Volatility Ratio
    D. Market Liability Ratio
    Answer: A


Q26. With respect to the financial sector of the country, A C Shah committee is associated with ________.

    A. Unemployment
    B. Data Security
    C. Non-Banking Financial Company
    D. Agriculture Financing
    Answer: C


Q27. Which of the following financial institutions has bought 14% stake in micro-financier Annapurna Finance for ₹ 137 Crore?

    A. AIIB
    B. ADB
    C. EBRD
    D. NDB
    Answer: B


Q28. What is the limit of hospitalization coverage under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana Scheme?

    A. Rs. 20000 per annum
    B. Rs. 30000 per annum
    C. Rs. 40000 per annum
    D. Rs. 50000 per annum
    Answer: B


Q29. ___________ is not one of the pillars of BASEL Capital accord.

    A. Minimum capital requirements
    B. Supervisory review of an institution’s capital adequacy and internal assessment process
    C. Market discipline through effective disclosure to encourage safe and sound banking practices
    D. Off-Balance Sheet exposures
    Answer: D


Q30. As per the BSE & NSE Laws, a broker cannot charge more than ______% brokerage from his clients.

    A. 2.5 %
    B. 4.5 %
    C. 0.5 %
    D. 7.5 %
    Answer: A

Q1. Which of the following bank has topped the EASE Reforms index released by Union Minister of Finance & Corporate Affairs?

    A. State Bank of India
    B. Punjab National Bank
    C. Union Bank of India
    D. HDFC Bank
    Answer: B


Q2. Which of the following organization has approved USD 455 Million loans for the Andhra Pradesh Rural Roads Project recently (March 2019)?

    A. Asian Development Bank
    B. World Bank
    C. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
    D. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
    Answer: D


Q3. What do you understand by the term ‘Venture Capital’?

    A. A short-term capital provided to industries
    B. A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
    C. Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses
    D. Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries
    Answer: B


Q4. What will be the global economy growth in 2019 forecasted by the Organisation for Economic Co-Operation & Development recently in March?

    A. 3.4%
    B. 3.5%
    C. 3.2%
    D. 3.3%
    Answer: D


Q5. Which of the following has been awarded the best Mini-Ratna PSU in strategic performance (financial category) at the ‘Governance Now’ Sixth PSU awards?

    A. Numaligarh Refinery Limited
    B. Chennai Petroleum Corporation
    C. ONGC Videsh Limited
    D. Cochin Shipyard
    Answer: A


Q6. Which of the following is NOT true regarding Commercial Paper (CP)?

    A. CP was introduced in India in 1990.
    B. Corporates, primary dealers (PDs) and the All-India Financial Institutions (FIs) are eligible to issue CP.
    C. CP is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note.
    D. CP can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum of up to one year.
    Answer: D


Q7. State-owned lender Punjab National Bank (PNB) had sold stake in its housing finance arm, PNB Housing Finance (PNBHF) to General Atlantic Group and Varde Partners for___________.

    A. Rs 1,375 crore
    B. Rs 2,565 crore
    C. Rs 1,000 crore
    D. Rs 1,570 crore
    Answer: D


Q8. According to the ADB’s latest Asian Development Outlook report, gross domestic product in India will increase by _______ in 2019.

    A. 7.6 %
    B. 7.5 %
    C. 7.7%
    D. 7.9 %
    Answer: D


Q9. How much will be invested by National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) and global private infrastructure operator ROADIS in road projects in India?

    A. $1 billion
    B. $2 billion
    C. $3 billion
    D. $4 billion
    Answer: B


Q10. What is PAC?

    A. Pre-Authorized Checking
    B. Process-Authorized Chequing
    C. Pre-Authorized Chequing
    D. Post-Authorized Cheque
    Answer: C


Q11. What is the acronym for SEBI?

    A. Securities and Exchange Bank of Investment
    B. Securities and Exchange Board of India
    C. Securities and Exchange Bank of India
    D. Securities and Exchange Board of Investment
    Answer: B


Q12. Headquarters of SEBI is located at ________

    A. Pune
    B. Mangalore
    C. New Delhi
    D. Mumbai
    Answer: D


Q13. When the SEBI was established?

    A. April 12, 1988
    B. April 17, 1992
    C. April 15, 1989
    D. April 12, 1992
    Answer: D


Q14. Who is the present chairman of SEBI?

    A. Upendra Kumar Sinha

    B. Ajay Tyagi
    C. Arundhati Bhattacharya
    D. Uday Dharmalingam
    Answer: B


Q15. Which of the following functions rolled into one body by SEBI?

    A. Quasi-legislative
    B. Quasi-judicial
    C. Quasi-executive
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


Q16. The rolling cycle of T + 2 means ________

    A. Settlement is done in 2 days after trade date
    B. Settlement is done in 2 months after trade date
    C. Settlement is done in 2 weeks after trade date
    D. Settlement is done in 2 years after trade date
    Answer: A


Q17. What is the increase in application limit for retail investors?

    A. From 1 lakh to 2 lakh
    B. From 1 lakh to 1.5 lakh
    C. From 2 lakh to 3 lakh
    D. From 1.5 lakh to 2 lakh
    Answer: A


Q18. Which of the following term is incorrect?

    A. Circuit broker
    B. Stable broker
    C. Merchant broker
    D. Discount broker
    Answer: B


Q19. SCORES stands for ________

    A. SEBI Complaints Redress System
    B. Sources for Complaints Redress System
    C. Special Complaints Remedy System
    D. SEBI Complaints Rectify System
    Answer: A


Q20. SEBI has to be responsive to the needs of ________

    A. The Investors
    B. The Issuer of securities
    C. The Market intermediaries
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


Q21. What are the basic functions of the SEBI?

    A. To protect the interests of investors in securities
    B. To promote the development of securities market
    C. To regulate the securities market and for matters connected therewith or incidental there to
    D. All of the Above
    Answer: D


Q22. What does RMRC stands for?

    A. Risk Management Reassess Commission
    B. Risk Managing Re-evaluate Committee
    C. Risk Management Review Committee
    D. Risk Managing Reconsider Commission
    Answer: C


Q23. Which among the following complaints not dealt with by SEBI?

    A. Complaints falling under the purview of the regulatory bodies like RBI, IRDA, PFEDA, CCI, FMC, etc
    B. Complaints regarding Pension Fund
    C. Complaints regarding Commodities
    D. All of the Above
    Answer: C


Q24. Which of the following powers does SEBI has been vested for the discharge of its functions efficiently?

    A. To approve by-laws of Securities Exchanges.
    B. To require the Securities exchange to amend their bylaws.
    C. Inspect the books of accounts and call for periodical returns from recognized Securities Exchanges.
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


Q25. CFD stands for ______

    A. Corrective Fiscal Division
    B. Corporation Finance Department
    C. Corporate Financing Division
    D. Corporation Fiscal Department
    Answer: D

Q1. The Vedic word Kusidin refers to which of the following? A banker An usurer A farmer A trader

    A. A banker
    B. An usurer
    C. A farmer
    D. A trader
    Answer: B


Q2. In which year, the rst bank of India “Bank of Hindustan” was established?

    A. 1870
    B. 1770
    C. 1795
    D. 1880
    Answer: B


Q3. Which among the following are the correct locations of three presidency banks during British India?

    A. Calcutta, Madras, Bombay
    B. Surat, Calcutta, Madras
    C. Surat, Madras, Bombay
    D. Bombay, Calcutta, Surat
    Answer: A


Q4. Which of the following is the oldest Joint Stock bank of India?

    A. Allahabad Bank
    B. Bank of Baroda
    C. Patiala Bank
    D. Bank of India
    Answer: A


Q5. At which of the following place, East India Company established its first presidency bank?

    A. Madras
    B. Calcutta
    C. Bombay
    D. Surat
    Answer: B


Q6. What was the name of State Bank of India (SBI) before it was created by SBI Act?

    A. Imperial Bank of Hindustan
    B. Imperial Bank of Bengal
    C. Imperial Bank of Madras
    D. Imperial Bank of India
    Answer: D


Q7. Which among the following was the first bank to open a branch on foreign soil?

    A. Bank of India
    B. State Bank of India
    C. Bank of Punjab
    D. Allahabad Bank
    Answer: A


Q8. Which of the following was first bank managed by Indians?

    A. Bank of Baroda
    B. Bank of India
    C. Punjab National Bank
    D. Central Bank of India
    Answer: C


Q9. In which year, the Paper Currency Act was enacted by the British Government of India?

    A. 1850
    B. 1861
    C. 1870
    D. 1858
    Answer: B


Q10. Which was the rst bank to be wholly owned and run by Indians?

    A. Allahabad Bank
    B. Bank of Baroda
    C. Bank of India
    D. Central Bank of India
    Answer: D


Q11. The Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance was also known as?

    A. Hilton-Young Commission
    B. Hartog Commission
    C. Muddiman Committee
    D. Buttler Commission
    Answer: A


Q12. Original headquarters of RBI were located at ___?

    A. Calcutta
    B. Bombay
    C. Madras
    D. New Delhi
    Answer: A


Q13. On which date, RBI started working?

    A. 1 January 1934
    B. 1 January 1935
    C. 1 April 1935
    D. 31 March 1934
    Answer: C


Q14. In which year, Nationalization of Reserve Bank of India was done?

    A. 1947
    B. 1948
    C. 1949
    D. 1950
    Answer: C


Q15. What was the initial share capital of Reserve Bank of India?

    A. Rs. 5 Crore
    B. Rs.10 Crore
    C. Rs.15 Crore
    D. Rs. 20 Crore
    Answer: A


Q16. Who was the first Governor of Reserve Bank of India?

    A. Sir James Taylor
    B. Sir Vincent Eyre
    C. Sir Osborne Smith
    D. Reginald Macdonald
    Answer: C


Q17. Who was the first Indian Governor of Reserve Bank of India?

    A. Sir C D Deshmukh
    B. Sir Benegal Rama Rau
    C. K G Ambegaonkar
    D. H V R Iengar
    Answer: A


Q18. Who is the longest serving Governor of Reserve Bank of India?

    A. Sir C D Deshmukh
    B. Sir Benegal Rama Rau
    C. K G Ambegaonkar
    D. H V R Iengar

    Answer: B


Q19. Which of the following governors of RBI did not any currency note?

    A. Sir C D Deshmukh
    B. Sir Benegal Rama Rau
    C. K G Ambegaonkar
    D. H V R Iengar
    Answer: C


Q20. During which of the following years, Dr. Manmohan Singh served as Governor of RBI?

    A. 1980-83
    B. 1982-83
    C. 1982-85
    D. 1886-89
    Answer: C


Q21. Which of the following name is used to refer to the RBI?

    A. Reserve Street
    B. Credit Street
    C. Mint Street
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C


Q22. For which of these countries the RBI has served as the central bank in the past?

    A. Myanmar
    B. Nepal
    C. Sri Lanka
    D. All of the above
    Answer: A


Q23. Till when the RBI served as the central bank of Pakistan?

    A. August 1947
    B. January 1950
    C. June 1948
    D. November 1949
    Answer: A


Q24. Who wrote the book The Problem of the Rupee – Its origin and its solution”, which gave the concept of RBI?

    A. B.R Ambedkar
    B. Jawahar Lal Nehru
    C. Lala Lajpat Rai
    D. Dadabhai Naroji
    Answer: C


Q25. In which year the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance recommended the creation of a central bank for India?

    A. 1926
    B. 1927
    C. 1928
    D. 1929
    Answer: A


Q26. In which year for the rst time a bill was introduced in the Indian Legislative Assembly for the creation of RBI?

    A. 1927
    B. 1928
    C. 1929
    D. 1930
    Answer: A


Q27. What was the paidup capital of RBI when it commenced operations as India’s central bank on April 1 1935?

    A. Rs 1 crore
    B. Rs 5 crore
    C. Rs 10 crore
    D. Rs 100 crore
    Answer: B


Q28. When did RBI stop acting as the currency issuing authority of Burma?

    A. 1941
    B. 1942
    C. 1943
    D. 1947
    Answer: B


Q29. When was Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation established under RBI?

    A. 1976
    B. 1978
    C. 1981
    C. 1969
    Answer: D


Q30 .Where is the headquarter of Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited located?

    A. Chennai
    B. New Delhi
    C. Hyderabad
    D. Bangalore
    Answer: D

Q1. Credit rating agency ‘Fitch’ has reduced the India’s growth forecast for the current scale 2019-20 from 6.8% to ____.

    A. 6.5%
    B. 6.4%
    C. 6.3%
    D. 6.6%

    Answer: D


Q2. Which of the following banks is authorized to issue the Electoral Bond?

    A. Indian Post Payment Bank
    B. ICICI Bank
    C. State Bank of India
    D. Central Bank of India

    Answer: C


Q3. In PPC what does the letter ‘C’ stands for in connection with Economics parlance?

    A. Cost
    B. Curve
    C. Circle
    D. Company

    Answer: B


Q4. Who has been appointed Managing Director (MD) of the National Housing Bank (NHB)?

    A. Sarada Kumar Hota
    B. Siddh Nath Singh
    C. Israr Ahmed
    D. Biswa Sarma

    Answer: A


Q5. Participatory notes are associated with which one of the following?

    A. Consolidated fund of India
    B. UNDP
    C. Kyoto Protocol
    D. Foreign Institutional Investors

    Answer: D


Q6. Which of the following best suits with VOSTRO Accounts?

    A. “Our account with you”
    B. “Your account with us”
    C. “Their account with them”
    D. “Our account with us”

    Answer: B


Q7. Which of the following All India Financial Institutions (AIFI) is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India?

    A. Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM)
    B. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
    C. National Housing Bank (NHB)
    D. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)
    Answer: D


Q8. ‘BSBDA’ stands for

    A. Basic Services of Bank Deposit Account
    B. Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account
    C. Basic Simple Bank Deposit Account
    D. Before Services of Bank Deposit Account

    Answer: B


Q9. According to a new study by Swedish telecom equipment maker Ericsson, India has the highest average data usage per smartphone, reaching ____month at the end of 2018.

    A. 9.8 GB per
    B. 7.9 GB per
    C. 8.0 GB per
    D. 7.5 GB per

    Answer: A


Q10. In which of the following cities is the headquarter of the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) located?

    A. Allahabad
    B. Mumbai
    C. New Delhi

    D. Lucknow
    Answer: D


Q11. Which of the following is not a feature of hybrid annuity model?

    A. It’s a mix of EPC and BOT formats
    B. Under this government entity would collect the revenue
    C. Share of the government and private would be 40:60 respectively

    D. Government would pay the money after the completion of the project
    Answer: D


Q12. According to the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF) Scheme 2014, deposits which were not operated or are unclaimed for which of the following periods had to be transferred annually to the DEAF account?

    A. 5
    B. 10
    C. 3
    D. 2

    Answer: B


Q13. The world’s highest weather station has been installed at which area across the Mount Everest?

    A. Everest Base Camp
    B. Annapurna Base Camp
    C. Manaslu Base Camp
    D. Balcony Area Camp

    Answer: D


Q14. NPL is a sum of borrowed money upon which the debtor has not made scheduled payments for a specied period of time. what does NPL stand for?

    A. Net-premium loan
    B. Non-principle loan
    C. Non-performing liabilities
    D. Non-performing loan

    Answer: D


Q15. Which of the following countries hosted the world’s foremost Artificial Intelligence (AI) Summit?

    A. USA
    B. China
    C. United Arab Emirates
    D. Japan

    Answer: C


Q16. What does ‘C’ stands for ‘CAGR’, a business specic term for the geometric progression ratio that provides a constant rate over the specic time period?

    A. Control
    B. Compound
    C. Credit
    D. Call

    Answer: B


Q17. The share of State Government in Regional Rural Banks is ____.

    A. 35%
    B. 15%
    C. 50%
    D. 25%

    Answer: B


Q18. ATMs which are set up, owned and operated by non-bank entities incorporated under Companies Act 1956, are called ___.

    A. White label ATMs
    B. Brown label ATMs
    C. Orange Label ATMs
    D. Pink Label ATMs

    Answer: A


Q19. In terms of Section 20(1) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, a bank cannot grant any loans and advances:

    A. On the security of its own shares
    B. On security of privately held Companies
    C. On security of publicly held Companies
    D. All of the above

    Answer: A


Q20. Which of the following ministries has launched the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana?

    A. Ministry of Social Justice
    B. Ministry of Finance
    C. Ministry of Health and Family welfare
    D. Ministry of Women and Child Development

    Answer: B


Q21. The flow of money in the form of income and expenditure over different sectors are known as ________

    A. Money flow

    B. Real flow

    C. Nominal flow

    D. Circular flow
    Answer: A


Q22. Factor services supplied by households are known as __________

    A. Circular flow

    B. Money flow

    C. Real flow

    D. Nominal flow

    E. None of these
    Answer: C


Q23. Goods and services supplied by firms are known as ____________

    A. Real flow

    B. Money flow

    C. Nominal flow

    D. Circular flow
    Answer: A


Q24. In which year, the first bank of India “Bank of Hindustan” was established?

    A. 1870
    B. 1770
    C. 1795
    D. 1880

    Answer: B


Q25. Which among the following are the correct locations of three presidency banks during British India?

    A. Calcutta, Madras, Bombay

    B. Surat, Calcutta, Madras

    C. Surat, Madras, Bombay

    D. Bombay, Calcutta, Surat

    Answer: A

Q1. Which of the following banks has launched the ‘Click OD’ for its MSME customers?

    A. ICICI Bank
    B. State Bank of India
    C. Union Bank of India
    D. Yes Bank
    Answer: D


Q2. According to the report from property consultancy Knight Frank, what is the rank of India among the top capital importing countries globally?

    A. 11
    B. 15
    C. 17
    D. 20
    Answer: D


Q3. Credit rating agency ‘Fitch’ has reduced the India’s growth forecast for the current fiscal 2019-20 from 6.8% to ____.

    A. 6.5%
    B. 6.4%
    C. 6.3%
    D. 6.6%
    Answer: D


Q4. As per the Insurance Ombudsman, any policyholders can be a complaint to the Insurance Ombudsman, if the satisfied the reply is not received from the insurers within a period of ____.

    A. 90 days
    B. 60 days
    C. 30 days
    D. 15 days
    Answer: C


Q5. Which of the following banks has launched the Trade AI Engine, a joint solution developed in partnership with IBM?

    A. SoftBank Group Corp
    B. HDFC Bank
    C. Bank of America
    D. Standard Chartered
    Answer: D


Q6. Who has been appointed Managing Director (MD) of the National Housing Bank (NHB)?

    A. Sarada Kumar Hota
    B. Siddh Nath Singh
    C. Israr Ahmed
    D. Biswa Sarma
    Answer: A


Q7. According to a new study by Swedish telecom equipment maker Ericsson, India has the highest average data usage per smartphone, reaching ____month at the end of 2018.

    A. 9.8 GB per
    B. 7.9 GB per
    C. 8.0 GB per
    D. 7.5 GB per
    Answer: A


Q8. The world’s highest weather station has been installed at which area across the Mount Everest?

    A. Everest Base Camp
    B. Annapurna Base Camp
    C. Manaslu Base Camp
    D. Balcony Area Camp
    Answer: D


Q9. Which of the following countries hosted the world’s foremost Artificial Intelligence (AI) Summit?

    A. USA
    B. China
    C. United Arab Emirates
    D. Japan
    Answer: C


Q10. Which of the following cities hosted Nepal Investment Summit 2019?

    A. Pokhara
    B. Bharatpur
    C. Biratnagar
    D. Kathmandu

    Answer: D


Q11. What does “L” stand for in PMLA?

    A. Leverage
    B. Limit
    C. Lending
    D. Liberalised
    Answer: D


Q12. What does ‘C’ stands for ‘CAGR’, a business specific term for the geometric progression ratio that provides a constant rate over the specic time period?

    A. Control
    B. Compound
    C. Credit
    D. Call
    Answer: B


Q13. Which of the following will not be included in the Banks total credit?

    A. Loans provided by the bank to customers.
    B. Cash payments provided by the bank to customers.
    C. Overdrafts provided by the bank to customers.
    D. Bills purchased by the banks from the customer
    Answer: D


Q14. National Stock Exchange (NSE) operates on the ‘NEAT system, a fully automated screen-based trading system. Here what does “NEAT’ stands for?

    A. National Exchange for Automatic Trading (NEAT)
    B. National Exchange for Authorized Training (NEAT)
    C. National Exchange for Automated Trading (NEAT)
    D. National Exchange for Automated Training (NEAT)

    Answer: C


Q15. What do we call an Underwriting Agreement where an underwriter agrees to buy a definite number of shares or debentures?

    A. Complete Underwriting
    B. Firm Underwriting
    C. Partial Underwriting
    D. Syndicate Underwriting
    Answer: B


Q16. Agri-Market Infrastructure Fund, which is proposed in the Budget 2018-19, will have a Corpus of ________.

    A. 500 crore
    B. 1000 crore
    C. 1500 crore
    D. 2000 crore
    Answer: D


Q17. The proposed National Health Protection scheme will cover which of the following sectors of Health:

    A. Primary care
    B. Secondary care
    C. Tertiary care
    D. Secondary care and Tertiary care
    Answer: D


Q18. The share of State Government in Regional Rural Banks is ____.

    A. 35%
    B. 15%
    C. 50%
    D. 25%
    Answer: B


Q19. CAMELS and CALCS rating systems are used by

    A. Insurance Supervisory Authorities
    B. Banking Supervisory authorities
    C. Stock Market Supervisory authorities
    D. A and B
    Answer: B


Q20. The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its member countries’ official reserves. The value of the SDR is based on a basket of which of the following major currencies?

    A. US Dollar
    B. Renminbi
    C. Yen
    D. Pound Sterling
    Answer: D


Q21. ATMs which are set up, owned and operated by non-bank entities incorporated under Companies Act 1956, are called ___.

    A. White label ATMs
    B. Brown label ATMs
    C. Orange Label ATMs
    D. Pink Label ATMs
    Answer: A


Q22. Which of the following All India Financial Institutions (AIFI) is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India?

    A. Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM)
    B. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
    C. National Housing Bank (NHB)
    D. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
    Answer: D


Q23. Which of the following Five Year Plan brought formal discontinuation of the Mahalanobis strategy in the Indian Economy?

    A. Fourth FYP
    B. Fifth FYP
    C. Sixth FYP
    D. Seventh FYP
    Answer: C


Q24. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

    A. Participatory Notes are offshore derivative instruments
    B. Participatory notes are issued by brokers and FIIs registered with SEBI.
    C. They are used outside India for making investments in shares listed in the Indian stock market.
    D. A and B
    Answer: B


Q25. Which of the following is not a feature of the hybrid annuity model?

    A. It’s a mix of EPC and BOT formats
    B. Under this government, an entity would collect the revenue
    C. Share of the government and private would be 40:60 respectively
    D. Revenue collection would be the responsibility of NHAI
    Answer: D

Q1. The 3rd edition of Namaste Thailand festival was held in______.

    A. New Delhi
    B. Pune
    C. Ranchi
    D. Mumbai
    Answer: A


Q2. The 462 annual ‘Kandoori festival’ 2019 was held in which state?

    A. Gujarat
    B. Orissa
    C. Madhya Pradesh
    D. Tamil Nadu

    Answer: D


Q3. In which state of India Hojagiri dance is performed?

    A. Tripura
    B. Megalaya
    C. Manipur
    D. Arunachal Pradesh
    Answer: A


Q4. What is the capital of Tajikistan?

    A. Ashgabat
    B. Astana
    C. Dushanbe
    D. Muscat
    Answer: C


Q5. Which of the following is the currency of Mauritius?

    A. Mauritian Rupee
    B. Mauritian Dinar
    C. Mauritian Dollar
    D. Mauritian Pound
    Answer: A


Q6. National Girl Child Day observed every year on ____.

    A. 22 January
    B. 21 January
    C. 23 January
    D. 24 January
    Answer: D


Q7. On which date, the National Voters’ Day (NVD) is celebrated in India?

    A. January 21
    B. January 25
    C. February 10
    D. February 17
    Answer: B


Q8. World Wetland Day observes on which date?

    A. February 4
    B. February 2
    C. February 3
    D. February 1
    Answer: B


Q9. Name the lake which is oligotrophic in nature and its water is alkaline?

    A. Prashar lake
    B. Tso Moriri
    C. Fateh sagar lake
    D. Roopkund
    Answer: A


Q10. On which river bank Charminar is situated?

    A. Musi
    B. Kosi
    C. Kaveri
    D. Krishana
    Answer: A


Q11. Which among the following is the largest temple of Bhubaneswar?

    A. Lingaraja temple
    B. Nageshwar
    C. Kashi Vishwanath
    D. Trimbakeshwar
    Answer: C


Q12. Which of the following river has Bisalpur Dam built upon it?

    A. Luni
    B. Narmada
    C. Banas
    D. Wainganga
    Answer: D


Q13. Talcher super thermal station is located in which of the following states?

    A. Andhra Pradesh
    B. Jharkhand
    C. Bihar
    D. Odisha
    Answer: D


Q14. In which of the following states is the Kadapa airport is located?

    A. Tamil Nadu
    B. Karnataka
    C. Telangana
    D. Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: B


Q15. In which of the following states is the Gobind Sagar Dam located?

    A. Gujarat
    B. Himachal Pradesh
    C. Rajasthan
    D. Haryana

    Answer: C


Q16. On the banks of which of the following rivers is Surat situated?

    A. Mahi
    B. Tapti
    C. Shipra
    D. Godavari

    Answer: C


Q17. Where is the headquarter of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)?

    A. Hyderabad
    B. Kolkata
    C. New Delhi
    D. Chennai
    Answer: C


Q18. ‘Valley of Flowers National Park’ is located in which state?

    A. Kerala
    B. Himachal Pradesh
    C. Uttarakhand
    D. Sikkim
    Answer: D


Q19. Indravati National Park is located in which state?

    A. Jharkhand
    B. Tamil Nadu
    C. Madhya Pradesh
    D. Chhattisgarh
    Answer: C


Q20. In which of the following states is the Bhitarkanika National Park located?

    A. Karnataka
    B. Haryana
    C. Odisha
    D. Bihar
    Answer: D


Q21. Baglihar Hydro Electric Power Project is located in which of the following Indian states?

    A. Himachal Pradesh
    B. Uttarakhand
    C. Punjab
    D. Jammu and Kashmir
    Answer: B


Q22. The highest dam in India is ____.

    A. Bhakra Dam
    B. Tehri Dam
    C. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
    D. Kosi Dam
    Answer: A


Q23. Mahanadi river originates in which among the following states of India?

    A Chattisgarh
    B Odisha
    C Manipur
    D Assam
    Answer: D


Q24. Which among the following city is not the route of Yamuna River?

    A. Agra
    B. New Delhi
    C. Mathura
    D. Kota
    Answer: D


Q25. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state of India?

    A. Nagaland
    B. Tripura
    C. Arunachal Pradesh
    D. Assam
    Answer: D

Q1. Which of the following Insurance Companies was launched with NABARD as one of its promoter’s with 30% stake in it?

    A. General Insurance Corporation Ltd.
    B. National Insurance Company Ltd.
    C. Agriculture Insurance Company Ltd,
    D. SBI Life Insurance Company Ltd.

    Answer: A


Q2. The central office of the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) is located at –

    A. Kolkata
    B. New Delhi
    C. Chennai
    D. Mumbai
    Answer: D


Q3. In Insurance policies we always nd a date which is “Date of Maturity”. What does it mean?

    A. This is the date on which the policy was sold to the customer/person insured.
    B. This is the date on which the policyholder will have to submit his/her claim seeking the amount of the policy. Otherwise, the company will not make any payment to him/her.
    C. This is the date on which the contract between the person and the insurance company will come to an end.
    D. The date on which the insurance company makes the final payment to the insured person which is normally fifteen days after the “payment due date”.
    Answer: C


Q4. What is the loan limit for Educational loans that can be classified under priority sector lending?

    A. Rs. 5 lakhs
    B. Rs. 7 lakhs
    C. Rs. 10 lakhs
    D. Rs. 15 lakhs
    Answer: C


Q5. The process of renewing an insurance policy after it gets terminated is called ____.

    A. Reinstatement
    B. Revival Period
    C. Reinsurance
    D. Proposal Form
    Answer: A


Q6. What is the Tagline of United India Insurance (UIIC)?

    A. Ek shaagun Zindagi ke naam
    B. With us, you are sure
    C. Rest Assured with us
    D. Jiyo Befiqar
    Answer: C


Q7. In which year the R. N. Malhotra Committee was formed to propose the recommendations for the introduction of reforms
and implementation of reforms in the Indian insurance sector?

    A. 1993
    B. 2002
    C. 2014
    D. 1964
    Answer: A


Q8. The ratio, which describes the percentage of the amount that would be charged as administrative, management, advertising,
and all other expense by dividing these by average value of asset

    A. Expense ratio
    B. Operating ratio
    C. Debt to equity ratio
    D. Current ratio
    Answer: A


Q9. Under the automatic route, what’s the limit up to which FDI is allowed?

    A. 49%
    B. 75%
    C. 26%
    D. 32%
    Answer: A


Q10. Insurance, as a subject is dealt in which of the following subject of the Indian constitution?

    A. 10th
    B. 7th
    C. 8th
    D. 9th
    Answer: B


Q11. ________is adened amount of time after the premium is due in which a policyholder can make a premium payment without
coverage lapsing.

    A. Null Period
    B. Void Period
    C. Prompt Period
    D. Grace Period
    Answer: D


Q12. What percent of share is held by the government in National Insurance Company Ltd.?

    A. 50%
    B. 74%
    C. 100%
    D. 49%
    Answer: C


Q13. Which of the following is an Insurance Policy that protects professional and business owner when found to be faulty for a
specific event?

    A. Indemnity insurance
    B. AD&D Insurance
    C. General Insurance
    D. Independent Insurance
    Answer: A


Q14. A type of insurance policy which includes more than one kind of insurance coverage is known as _____.

    A. Multiple policy
    B. Combined policy
    C. Package policy
    D. Facultative reinsurance

    Answer: C


Q15. Where is the headquarters of National Insurance Company (NIC)?

    A. Mumbai
    B. Lucknow
    C. Chennai
    D. Kolkata
    Answer: D


Q16. When the insured person/organization hides certain important information from the insurer then it is called ____.

    A. Appraisal Value
    B. Assessed Value
    C. Adverse Selection
    D. Deferred Acquisition Cost
    Answer: C


Q17. Which of the following acts made it mandatory that the premium rate tables of insurance companies should be certified by
an actuary?

    A. Life Insurance Companies Act, 1912
    B. Provident Fund Act, 1912
    C. The Insurance Act, 1938
    D. Life Insurance Company Act, 1956
    Answer: A


Q18. EFTPOS (electronic funds transfer at point of sale) is based on___.

    A. SMS Alerts
    B. Debit Cards
    C. Credit Cards
    D. Both (1) and (2)
    Answer: D


Q19. What is the minimum amount required to open a Fixed Deposit (FD)?

    A Rs. 100
    B Rs. 500
    C Rs. 1000
    D Rs. 5000

    Answer: C


Q20. What does the term ‘capitalization of reserves’, widely used in the dance world, refer to?

    A. It refers to the use of reserves for the acquisition of additional capital
    B. It refers to the use of reserves for paying-off loans raised for building up fixed assets
    C. It refers to the use of reserves for issuing bonus shares to the existing shareholders
    D. It refers to the use of reserves for the replacement of depreciated assets
    Answer: C


Q21. Which of the following is not a capital market instrument?

    A. Shares
    B. Debentures
    C. Bonds
    D. Treasury Bills
    Answer: D


Q22. Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in which year?

    A. 1991
    B. 1994
    C. 1996
    D. 1998
    Answer: D


Q23. Notice Money is a money lender for a period of how many days?

    A. Between 2 and 14 days
    B. exceeding 14 days
    C. 1 day
    D. 2 day
    Answer: A


Q24. Which of the following committees is associated with the microfinance institutions (MFIs)?

    A. B. N. Srikrishna
    B. Kirit Parekh
    C. Rangarajan
    D. Y.H. Malegam
    Answer: D


Q25. What does the letter F denote in ‘NBFCs’, a term seen very frequently in banking?

    A. Fiscal
    B. Federal
    C. Functional
    D. Financial
    Answer: D

Q1. Bank branches are established under ____________ of Banking Regulations Act, 1949.

    A. Section 20
    B. Section 21
    C. Section 22
    D. Section 23
    Answer: D


Q2. Mixed Banking is the system in which banks undertake activities of _______ and investment banking together.

    A. Commercial
    B. Personal
    C. Retail
    D. Cooperative
    Answer: A


Q3. A fiscal deficit occurs

    A. when a government’s total expenditures exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings.
    B. when a government’s total expenditures goes below the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings.
    C. when a government’s total savings exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings.
    D. when a government’s total savings goes below the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings.
    Answer: A


Q4. The difference between the outflow and inflow of foreign currency is known as

    A. Current Account Deficit
    B. Fiscal Deficit
    C. Foreign Exchange Reserves
    D. Balance of Payments
    Answer: C


Q5. Type(s) of account that can be opened under NRO are –

    A. Term Deposit
    B. Recurrent
    C. Savings
    D. Current
    Answer: D


Q6. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India?

    A. SIDBI
    B. SBI
    C. RBI
    D. SEBI
    Answer: D


Q7. What is D in BSBDA?

    A. Drawee
    B. Drawer
    C. Deposit
    D. Debit
    Answer: C


Q8. What is the minimum number of free of charge withdrawals through ATMs in BSBDA?

    A. 5
    B. 4
    C. 2
    D. 3
    Answer: D


Q9. National Housing Bank (NHB), a wholly owned subsidiary of Reserve Bank of India (RBI), was set up under the______________.

    A. National Housing Bank Act, 1985
    B. National Housing Bank Act, 1986
    C. National Housing Bank Act, 1987
    D. National Housing Bank Act, 1988
    Answer: C


Q10. What is the full form of ICICI bank?

    A. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
    B. Investment Credit and Industrial Corporation of India
    C. Industrial Corporation and Investment Credit of India
    D. Investment Corporation and Industrial Credit of India
    Answer: A


Q11. DICGC is a subsidiary of Reserve bank of India for the purpose of providing insurance of deposits and guaranteeing of credit facilities. What is the abbreviation of I in DICGC?

    A. India
    B. Industrial
    C. Insurance
    D. Information
    Answer: C


Q12. ANBC is the net bank credit plus investments made by banks in non-SLR bonds held in the held-to-maturity category equivalent amount of off-balance-sheet exposure, whichever is higher. What is the abbreviation of ANBC?

    A. Advance Non-Bank Credit
    B. Advance Net Bank Category
    C. Adjusted Net Bank Credit
    D. Advance Net Bank Credit
    Answer: C


Q13. SHG is a village-based financial internediary committee usually composed of 10–200 local women or men.What is the abbreviation of SHG?

    A. self-held group
    B. Securities -help group
    C. self-help group
    D. squares-help group
    Answer: C


Q14. The _________ scheme is a credit scheme introduced which was prepared by the NABARD on the recommendations of R.V.GUPTA committee to provide term loans and agricultural needs.

    A. Kisan Capital Card
    B. Kisan Central Card
    C. Kisan Credit Card
    D. Kaushal Credit Card
    Answer: C


Q15. The ______ Scheme is an expeditious and inexpensive forum for bank customers for resolution of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks.

    A. Adjusted Net Bank Credit
    B. Internal Ombudsman
    C. Kisan Credit Card
    D. Banking Ombudsman
    Answer: D


Q16. FEMA an act initiated to facilitate external trade and payments and to promote orderly management of the forex market in the country. What is the abbreviation of E in FEMA?

    A. Electronic
    B. European
    C. Exchange
    D. External
    Answer: C


Q17. FERA is an act promulgated, to regulate payments and foreign exchange in India.What is the abbreviation of FERA?

    A. Foreign Electrical Regulation Act
    B. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
    C. Foreign Export Regulation Act
    D. Floating Exchange Regulation Act
    Answer: B


Q18. RTGS is an electronic form of funds transfer where the transmission takes place on a real-time basis and transfer of funds with RTGS is done for high-value transactions, the minimum amount being _____

    A. Rs 2.5 lakh
    B. Rs 4 lakh
    C. Rs 2 lakh.
    D. Rs 3 lakh
    Answer: C


Q19. National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is an Indian system of electronic transfer of money from one bank or bank branch to another. The maximum transaction limit of NEFT per transaction is _______.

    A. 20000
    B. 70000
    C. 50000
    D. 60000
    Answer: C


Q20. IFSC code is a unique eleven-digit number which is a combination of alphabets and numerals,which is used to transfer funds online for NEFT, IMPS and RTGS transactions.What is the acronym for IFSC?

    A. Indian Financial Service Code
    B. Industrial Functional System Code
    C. Investment Financial System Code
    D. Indian Financial System Code
    Answer: D


Q21. MICR is a product of highly advanced Character Recognition Technology (CRT) used by banks to verify cheques for clearance. What is the acronym of C in MICR?

    A. Credit
    B. Commercial
    C. Central
    D. Character
    Answer: D


Q22. A SWIFT code is an international bank code that identifies particular banks worldwide. It’s also known as a _________

    A. Bank
    B. Bank Identifier Certificate
    C. Bankruptsy Code
    D. Bank Identifier Code
    Answer: D


Q23. A _______ is a negotiable instrument similar to a bill of exchange that can be issued to a client, directing another bank or one of its own branches to pay a certain sum to the specified party.

    A. Crossed Cheque
    B. Demand Draft
    C. Cheque
    D. Bill
    Answer: B


Q24. Which of the following comes under plastic money?

    A. Credit card
    B. Debit card
    C. Smart card
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D


Q25. NPCI aims to allow all Indian citizens to have unrestricted access to e-payment services.What is the acronym for C in NPCI?

    A. Credit
    B. Company
    C. Cash
    D. Corporation
    Answer: D


Q26. _______ is a cheque clearing system undertaken by the Reserve Bank of India RBI for faster clearing of cheques.

    A. Crossed cheque
    B. Over Draft
    C. Demand Draft
    D. Cheque Truncation System
    Answer: D


Q27. Which of the following account holds all the shares that you purchase in electronic or dematerialized form.?

    A. Fixed Deposit Account
    B. Demat Account
    C. Current Account
    D. Savings Account
    Answer: B


Q28. A BSBDA can be opened with simplified KYC document and also with nil balance.

    A. Balance Savings Bankruptcy Deposit Account
    B. Balance Savings Bank Deficit Account
    C. Balance Savings Bank Deposit Account
    D. Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account
    Answer: D


Q29. Who has been appointed as managing director of the country’s largest lender State Bank of India?

    A. Shyam Srinivasan
    B. Arijit Basu
    C. B Sriram
    D. Aditya Puri
    Answer: B


Q30. OLTAS is used to maintain the records of banks paid through banks through online upload of challan details. What is the acronym for OLTAS?

    A. Online Text accounting Service
    B. Online Tax accounting Service
    C. Online Tax accounting System
    D. Online Tax activation System
    Answer: C

Q1. All of the following were subsidiaries of the State Bank of India, except:

    A. State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur
    B. Central Bank of India
    C. State Bank of Hyderabad
    D. State Bank of Patiala
    Answer: B


Q2. The Securities and Exchange Board of India has been set up to:

    1. protect the interests of investors
    2. to regulate the activities of brokers in the stock market
    3. to ensure transparency in operation in the stock market.
    4. to encourage the healthy growth of the stock market
    Choose your answer from:
    A. 1 and 2
    B. 1, 2 and 4
    C. 1, 2 and 3
    D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer: D


Q3. Which among the following is the oldest Development Financial Institution of India?

    A. UTI
    B. IDBI
    C. ICICI
    D. IFCI
    Answer: D


Q4. Consider the following statements:

    1. The National Housing Bank, the apex institution in housing finance in India, was set up as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India
    2. The Small Industries Development Bank of India was established as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer: C


Q5. Regional rural banks:

    1. have limited area of operation
    2. have free access to liberal refinance facilities from NABARD
    3. are required to lend only to weaker sections

    A. 1 and 3
    B. 2 and 3
    C. 1, 2 and 3
    D. 1 and 2
    Answer: C


Q6. The arguments to support opening up of the Insurance sector in India were:

    1. It will provide wider choice to customers
    2. It will infuse competition and efficiency
    3. It will widen the base of long term funds
    4. It will improve balance of payments position
    Choose the correct answer from:
    A. 1, 2
    B. 2, 3
    C. 1, 2, 3
    D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer: C


Q7. Debenture holders of a company are its:

    A. shareholders
    B. creditors
    C. debtors
    D. directors
    Answer: B


Q8. Which of the following statements regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRB) in India is/are correct?

    1. The basic aim of setting up the RRBs is to develop the rural economy.
    2. The area of RRBs is limited to a specific region comprising one or more districts.
    3. RRBs are sponsored by Commercial Banks.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    A. 1 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2 and 3
    Answer: B


Q9. Consequent ‘upon the recommendations of the Working Group on Rural Banks, 5 Rural Regional Banks were initially set up in the year

    A. 1973
    B. 1974
    C. 1975
    D. 1976
    Answer: C


Q10. In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?

    A. Commercial Banks
    B. Cooperative Banks
    C. Regional Rural Banks
    D. Microfinance Institutions
    Answer: A


Q11. Which of the following is NOT a foreign bank working in India?

    A. Yes Bank
    B. HSBC
    C. Barclays
    D. StandardChartered
    Answer: A


Q12. Which of the following institutions is regarded as the “Lender of the Last Resort” by banks in India?

    A. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
    B. State Bank of India (SBI)
    C. World Bank
    D. Department of Financial Services (DFS)
    Answer: C


Q13. Axis Bank was previously known as:

    A. UTI Bank
    B. ICICI Bank
    C. HDFC Bank
    D. IBDI Bank
    Answer: A


Q14. The branding line of Bank of Baroda is

    A. International Bank of India
    B. India’s International Bank
    C. World’s local Bank
    D. Indian’s Multinational Bank
    Answer: B


Q15. Which of the following is NOT a type of economic system?

    A. Traditional Economy
    B. Public Market Economy
    C. Free Market Economy
    D. Command Economy
    Answer: B


Q16. The flow of money in the form of income and expenditure over different sectors are known as

    A. Money flow
    B. Real flow
    C. Nominal flow
    D. Circular flow
    Answer: A


Q17. Factor services supplied by households are known as

    A. Circular flow
    B. Money flow
    C. Real flow
    D. Nominal flow
    Answer: C


Q18. Goods and services supplied by firms are known as

    A. Real flow
    B. Money flow
    C. Nominal flow
    D. Circular flow
    Answer: A


Q19. Factor payment by firms are known as which of the following?

    A. Real flow
    B. Circular flow
    C. Nominal flow
    D. Money flow
    Answer: D


Q20. Expenditure by households are known as which of the following?

    A. Money flow
    B. Real flow
    C. Nominal flow
    D. Circular flow
    Answer: A


Q21. Factor income of household sector is equal to

    A. Factor payments by firms
    B. Factor income of firms
    C. Expenditure of households
    D. Income of households
    Answer: A


Q22. Saving is the function of

    A. Expenditure
    B. Income
    C. Investment
    D. Revenue
    Answer: B


Q23. What do you understand by Trade deficit?

    A. Export and Import
    B. Export + Import
    C. Export exceed import
    D. Import exceed exports
    Answer: D


Q24. What do you understand by Net factor income from abroad?

    A. Export + import
    B. Export – Import
    C. Import = Export
    D. All of these
    Answer: B


Q25. “ Rest of the world” is the major element in which model?

    A. Two sector model
    B. Three sector model
    C. Four sector model
    D. All the above
    Answer: C


Q26. Census in India is being held regularly after every ………..

    A. 6 years
    B. 8 years
    C. 10 years
    D. 12 years
    Answer: C


Q27. People belonging to what age group are eligible for training under TRYSEM scheme?

    A. 18-35
    B. 25-40
    C. 18-50
    D. 18-25
    Answer: A


Q28. According to the census in 2001, which city in India has the largest population?

    A. Kolkata
    B. Mumbai
    C. Delhi
    D. Chennai
    Answer: B


Q29. In terms of geographical area India occupies what position in the world?

    A. Five
    B. six
    C. seven
    D. three
    Answer: C


Q30. India does not share its boundary with which of the following countries?

    A. China
    B. Taiwan
    C. Burma
    D. Bhutan
    Answer: B

Q1. Which Organisation has begun a series of Development Dialogues to engage experts, thought leaders and government stakeholders across key avenues of long-term social and economic development recently?

    A. FICCI
    B. NABARD
    C. RBI
    D. NITI Aayog
    Answer: D


Q2. Which organisation has unveiled 200 billion US Dollars in climate action investment for 2021 to 2025, adding that this amounts to a doubling of its current five-year funding?

    A. New Development Bank
    B. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
    C. World Bank
    D. Asian Development Bank
    Answer: C


Q3. The Reserve Bank of India has approved the merger of SBM (Mauritius), India with SBM Bank (India). SBM Bank is the ___________ foreign bank to set up a wholly owned subsidiary (WOS), to provide universal banking service with a focus on wholesale banking, trade finance, capital market and retail banking.

    A. first
    B. third
    C. second
    D. fourth
    Answer: A


Q4. Moody’s Investors Service’s annual Banking System Outlook on India estimated the country’s real gross domestic product (GDP) for the current financial year (2018-19) and next fiscal (2019-20) to grow at _______________ and __________________ respectively.

    A. 7.9% and 7.2%
    B. 7.1% and 7.3%
    C. 7.7% and 7.1%
    D. 7.5% and 7.7%
    Answer: D


Q5. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) accorded approval for the acquisition of defence equipment worth nearly Rs _______________ crore which includes BrahMos Missiles, and Armoured Recovery Vehicles (ARVs) for Battle Tank Arjun.

    A. Rs 4000 crore
    B. Rs 1000 crore
    C. Rs 7000 crore
    D. Rs 3000 crore
    Answer: D


Q6. Who has been appointed as Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of Bank of Maharashtra?

    A. Arvind Saxena
    B. AN Jha
    C. Raninder Singh
    D. AS Rajeev
    Answer: D


Q7. Which company has announced that its board has approved the merger with GlaxoSmithKline Consumer Healthcare (GSKCH India) through an-all equity deal, valuing the total business of the latter at Rs31,700 crore?

    A. Dabur Healthcare company
    B. Johnson & Johnson
    C. Hindustan Unilever Limited
    D. Patanjali Ayurved Limited
    Answer: C


Q8. Who has been appointed as new Finance Secretary?

    A. Hasmukh Adhia
    B. Girish Chandra Chaturvedi
    C. Ajay Narayan Jha
    D. Bhaskar Khulbe
    Answer: C


Q9. The Centre and Asian Development Bank (ADB) have signed an 85 million dollar loan to improve skill development eco-system in which of the following state?

    A. Odisha
    B. Kerala
    C. Rajasthan
    D. Haryana
    Answer: A


Q10. The European Central Bank has launched a new system aimed at letting banks settle payments instantly across Europe. What is the name of that system?

    A. SWIFT
    B. TIPS
    C. NEFT
    D. MPIJ
    Answer: B


Q11. The web platform PAiSA has been designed and developed by which of the following banks?

    A. Allahabad Bank
    B. UCO Bank
    C. ICICI
    D. HDFC
    Answer: A


Q12. ________ has appointed former IRDAI chief T.S. Vijayan as an additional director (Independent) for five years.

    A. Yes Bank
    B. UCO Bank
    C. Bank of India
    D. PNB
    Answer: A


Q13. The Economic Development Board (EDB), the investment promotion arm of the Kingdom of Bahrain signed an MoU with the ______ Government to provide a framework for Co-operation between the two authorities to promote FinTech in their respective markets.

    A. Karnataka
    B. Maharashtra
    C. Goa
    D. Madhya Pradesh
    Answer: B


Q14. India and ____________ have signed an agreement on Currency Swap in a Joint Commission Meeting for Economic and Technical Cooperation.

    A. China
    B. Iran
    C. Qatar
    D. Bahrain
    Answer: D


Q15. State Bank of India has roped in Asian Games gold medalist _______ as brand ambassador for its digital app YONO.

    A. Swapna Barman
    B. Vinesh Phogat
    C. Sakshi Malik
    D. Laksya Sen
    Answer: A


Q16. Fitch Ratings revised downwards India’s GDP growth forecast to _______________ for current fiscal.

    A. 7.1%
    B. 7.2%
    C. 6.8%
    D. 7.4%
    Answer: B


Q17. Which of the following organization has launched an industry-first feature that will help loan applicants choose their most-suited lender on its platform?

    A. Policybazaar.com
    B. SBI General Insurance
    C. Paisabazaar.com
    D. Max Bupa
    Answer: C


Q18. Leading Investment Bank _________ announced that its MD & CEO Dharmesh Mehta has stepped down.

    A. Edelweiss Financial Services Ltd.
    B. BNP Paribas
    C. Bob Capital Markets Ltd.
    D. Axis Capital
    Answer: D


Q19. At the India Water Impact Summit 2018, the government has sanctioned 254 projects worth over ________________ rupees under National Mission for Clean Ganga.

    A. 29,000 Crore
    B. 24,000 Crore
    C. 18,000 Crore
    D. 34,000 Crore
    Answer: B


Q20. Which of the following Bank has extended a credit facility of USD 500 million to Tanzania for water supply projects in the country?

    A. Punjab National Bank
    B. State Bank of India
    C. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India
    D. Export-Import Bank of India
    Answer: D


Q21. Which company will acquire seven IBM products by mid-2019 for $1.8 billion (over Rs 12,700 crore) in its biggest-ever acquisition so far?

    A. Sony
    B. TCS
    C. HP
    D. HCL
    Answer: D


Q22. The ‘Agriculture Export Policy, 2018’ seeks to double farm exports to $60 billion by 2022 from $30 billion currently and will invest ____________ crore to set up specialised clusters in different states for different products to push exports.

    A. Rs. 1,400 crore
    B. Rs. 2,800 crore
    C. Rs. 1,000 crore
    D. Rs. 5,300 crore
    Answer: A


Q23. The Union Cabinet has approved the launching of National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems to be implemented by the Department of Science and Technology at a total cost of ___________________ crore for a period of five years.

    A. Rs 1,450 crore
    B. Rs 2,410 crore
    C. Rs 5,270 crore
    D. Rs 3,660 crore
    Answer: D


Q24. The government has appointed __________________________ as the new Chief Economic Advisor.

    A. Siddhartha Bhattacharya
    B. Dr Krishnamurthy Subramanian
    C. Preeti Saran
    D. Dharmesh Mehta
    Answer: B


Q25. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the Government of Goa, hosted the annual Startup India Venture Capital Summit in Goa. What is the theme of this summit?

    A. India Opportunity, Increase Capital Flow
    B. Showcased the Indian Startup Opportunity For Funds from Around the World
    C. Indian Startups and Further Promote Ease of Doing Business
    D. Mobilizing Global Capital for Innovation in India
    Answer: D