1Q. The Human cell contains how many Chromosomes?

A. 28 B. 46 C. 32 D. 42 E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: A human cell contains 46 Chromosomes Each cell normally contains 23pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46.
2Q. …………………. number of bones in the Human Body

A. 206 B. 639 C. 214 D. 312 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Human body composed of 300 bones at birth, this total decreases to 206 bones by adulthood after some bones have fused together.
3Q. The range of Hb content in the human body is …………….

A. 500-600gm B. 600-700gm C. 500-700gm D. 450-600gm E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Hb is the iron-containing oxygen-transport metalloprotein in the red blood cells of all vertebrates.
4Q. How many numbers of cells present in the human body?

A. 50 trillion B. 25 million C. 65 billion D. 75 trillion E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The estimated approximate number of cells in the body is given as 75 trillion(max)
5Q. The total number of muscles in the human body is …………………………

A. 523 B. 765 C. 639 D. 452 E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The muscular system consists of all the muscles present in a single body. There are approximately 639-656 skeletal muscles in the human body.
6Q. The largest part of the human body is ……………

A. Brain B. Kidney C. Skin D. Lungs E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The longest bone in the human body is the femur. The largest artery is the aorta The largest vein is the inferior vena cava. The largest internal organ is the liver.
7Q. The weight of the human brain is ………………………..

A. 1424g B. 1500g C. 1250g D. 1234g E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: 2% of the human weight
8Q. How many bones are there in a newly born infant?

A. 206 B. 197 C. 230 D. 300 E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: At birth, a newborn baby has approximately 300 bones, whereas on average an adult human has 206 bones.
9Q. The Scientific name of Human is ……………………….

A. Panthera leo B. Homo sapiens C. Anura D. Cercopithecidae E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Cercopithecidae – Monkey Homo sapiens-Human Anura-Frog Panthera leo – Lion
10Q. The human body consists of more than ……………. of water

A. 70% B. 60% C. 50% D. 80% E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Blood is 92 percent water, the brain and muscles are 75 percent of water and bones are about 22 percent water.

1Q. Rickets is a disease caused due to deficiency of…………………………

A. Vitamin D B. Calcium C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin B E. Both 1 and 2

Answer: Option E
Explanation: Option Rickets is defective mineralization or calcification of bones before epiphyseal closure in immature mammals due to deficiency or impaired metabolism of vitamin D, phosphorus or calcium, potentially leading to fractures and deformity. Rickets is among the most frequent childhood diseases in many developing countries.
2Q. ……………..are made up of DNA and proteins

A. Chromosomes B. Chromophores C. Homophones D. Genes E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Option Chromosomes are thread-like structures located inside the nucleus of animal and plant cells. Each chromosome is made of protein and a single molecule of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
3Q. ……………………… percentage of whole blood is blood plasma and is straw yellow in color

A. 50% B. 45% C. 55% D. 42% E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Option Blood plasma is the pale yellow liquid component of blood that normally holds the blood cells in whole blood in suspension. This makes plasma the extracellular matrix of blood cells. It makes up about 55% of the body’s total blood volume.
4Q. Which of the following is the longest bone in the Human Body?

A. Femur B. Ear Ossicle C. Stapes D. Both 2 and 3 E. Both 1 and 2

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Femur, or thighbone, is the largest bone in your body. The head of your femur fits into your hip socket and the bottom end connects to your knee. The two bones beneath your the knee that makes up your shin are your tibia and fibula
5Q. Which of the following is the smallest bone in the Human Body?

A. Femur B. Ear Ossicle C. Stapes D. Both 2 and 3 E. Both 1 and 2

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Stapes or stirrup is the smallest bone in the human body. It is one of the ear ossicles – anvil, hammer, stapes.
6Q. Which of the following contains Haemoglobin?

A. Plasma B. Red Blood cells C. White Blood cells D. Platelets E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Hemoglobin is an iron-containing protein in red blood cells. Hemoglobin carries oxygen around the body and without enough of it, your muscles and organs don’t get all the oxygen they need.
7Q. Which of the following disease is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B1?

A. Beriberi B. Pellagra C. Biotin D. Scurvy E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Beriberi, a nutritional disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamin (vitamin B 1) and characterized by impairment of the nerves and heart. General symptoms include loss of appetite and overall lassitude, digestive irregularities, and a feeling of numbness and weakness in the limbs and extremities.
8Q. Which of the following animal has long Gestation period?

A. Buffalo B. Tiger C. Lion D. Elephant E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Elephant – 610 days – 18-22 months
9Q. The human eye can distinguish about …………….. colors

A. 10 million B. 5 billion C. 1 million D. 50,000 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The human eye is an amazing instrument and can accurately distinguish between the tiniest, most subtle differences in color.
10Q. ……………blood group is a universal recipient

A. O B. B C. A D. AB E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: when only A (or B) group RBC are transferred, no reaction takes place since the AB plasma does not contain any Anti-A (or Anti-B) antibodies thereby making it a universal recipient.

1Q. ………………… is the basic structural and functional unit of all known living organisms

A. The Chromosome B. The Cell C. The Cell wall D. The Plasma E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all known living organisms. It is the smallest unit of life and is often called the building block of life.
2Q. The first living cell was discovered by ……………….

A. Leeuwenhoek B. Theophrastus C. Aristotle D. Lamarck E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The cell walls observed by Hooke gave no indication of the nucleus and other organelles found in most living cells. The first man to witness a live cell under a microscope was Anton van Leeuwenhoek, who in 1674 described the algae Spirogyra.
3Q. Who is known as “Father of Botany”?

A. Leeuwenhoek B. Aristotle C. Lamarck D. Theophrastus E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Botany is the scientific study of plants. The ancient Greek Theophrastus is known as the father or founder of botany.
4Q. The scientists who gave his thought for the first time about the life of plants and animal was……………………

A. Theviranus B. Dr. Jagadish Chandra Bose C. Aristotle D. Charles Darwin E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Aristotle was also known as the father of Biology and Father of Zoology. Aristotle was a Greek philosopher and scientist born in the city of Stagira, Chalkidice, on the northern periphery of Classical Greece
5Q. The study of the cell is called ………………………..

A. Biology B. Zoology C. Botany D. Cytology E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The study of cell structure came to be called cytology and that of tissues histology. In the 20th cent. appreciation of the biochemistry of the cell has flourished, along with a better understanding of its structure; cell biology now integrates both chemical and structural information.
6Q. ………………………. is called a powerhouse of the cell

A. Plastids B. Mitochondria C. Cell wall D. Endoplasmic Reticulum E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Because it stepwise oxidation of fuel occurs which result in the release of chemical energy. This energy is stored in the form of ATP
7Q. The bead-like structure found on the chromosome is called ……………………….

A. Genes B. Centrosomes C. Cell D. Ribosomes E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: A chromosome is thread-like structure found in the nucleus and bead-like structure found on the chromosome are called genes
8Q. What is the Chemical name of fats?

A. Biotin B. Retinol C. Lipids D. Thiamine E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Lipids – Fats Fats are also compounds of Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen. The main source of fats is ghee, butter, almond, cheese etc.
9Q. …………………. is a process in which the respired oxygen is used in the oxidation of food resulting in the release of energy

A. Aerobic Respiration B. Anaerobic Respiration C. Digestion D. Respiration E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Respiration is a process in which the respired oxygen is used in the oxidation of food resulting in the release of energy. In the presence of Oxygen – Aerobic Respiration In the absence of Oxygen – Anaerobic Respiration
10Q. A newborn baby’s heart weight is about……………………

A. 100g B. 20g C. 50g D. 150g E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: A newborn baby’s heart weight is about 20g and average heart weight of men is 280-340g while in women is 230-280g 1Q. Which of the following is the richest source of Vitamin C?

A. Apple B. Amla C. Grapes D. Orange E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: This humble fruit is known to be a rich source of Vitamin C. So much so, that one small amla has as much Vitamin C as 2 medium oranges. Vitamin C has many benefits for skin, hair, and health.
2Q. …………………… is due to either the pancreas not producing enough insulin or the cells of the body not responding properly to the insulin produced.

A. Trachoma B. Blood Pressure C. Diabetes D. Pyorrhoea E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Diabetes mellitus (DM), commonly referred to as diabetes, is a group of metabolic diseases in which there are high blood sugar levels over a prolonged period. Symptoms of high blood sugar include frequent urination, increased thirst, and increased hunger.
3Q. Normal blood pressure of the human body is approximately

A. 90/60 mm Hg B. 110/80 mm Hg C. 140/90 mm Hg D. 120/80 mm Hg. E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Blood pressure (BP) is the pressure exerted by circulating blood upon the walls of blood vessels. When used without further specification, “blood pressure” usually refers to the arterial pressure in the systemic circulation. It is usually measured at a person’s upper arm. 140/90 mm Hg is considered high blood pressure or hypertension.
4Q. Trachoma is a disease of the ………………………..

A. Lungs B. Eye C. Ear D. Liver E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Trachoma is a contagious bacterial infection of the eye, causing inflamed granulation on the inner surface of the lids.
5Q. The richest source of vitamin D is …………………

A. Almond B. Milk C. Cod liver oil D. Apple E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Cod liver oil is a nutritional supplement derived from the liver of codfish. As with most fish oils, it has high levels of Vitamin D, omega-3 fatty acids, eicosapentaenoic acid, and docosahexaenoic acid.
6Q. During sleep a man’s blood pressure is……………………………..

A. Fluctuate B. Increases C. Decreases D. Constant E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: An individual’s blood pressure varies with exercise, emotional reactions, sleep, digestion and time of day.
7Q. …………………..is provided by sunlight to the body

A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin D E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Vitamin D from Sunlight. Ultraviolet B rays from the sun convert a natural vitamin D precursor present in your skin, 7-dehydrocholesterol, into vitamin D3.
8Q. Psoriasis is a disease connected with

A. Brain B. Skin C. Heart D. Eye E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Psoriasis is a skin disease marked by red, itchy, scaly patches.
9Q. Malaria is a disease which affects the………………………..

A. Eye B. Skin C. Brain D. Spleen E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease of humans and other animals caused by parasitic protozoans belonging to the genus Plasmodium Malaria affects the spleen, kidneys, lungs, and liver. Mediterranean region.
10Q. Tuberculosis is an infectious ………………..disease

A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Fungi D. Algae E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Tuberculosis(TB) is an infectious bacterial disease characterized by the growth of nodules (tubercles) in the tissues, especially the lungs.

1Q. Carbohydrates contain Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen are in the ratio ………………..

A. 1:2:2 B. 1:1:2 C. 2:1:1 D. 1:2:1 E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Carbohydrates are technically hydrates of carbon, structurally it is more accurate to view them as polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones.
2Q. Amphibians heart is divided into ………………….. chambers

A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The heart is a muscular organ in humans and other animals, which pumps blood through the blood vessels of the circulatory system. Amphibians heart is divided into 3 chambers.
3Q. The wall of the heart is made up of …………….. layers

A. Two B. Three C. Five D. Eight E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The wall of the heart is made up of three layers: epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium.
4Q. The chambers which receive the blood from body tissues are called ……………

A. Ventricles B. Pericardium C. Auricles D. Aorta E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The chambers which receive the blood from body tissues are called Auricles.
5Q. The breathing rate of a human is ………………………

A. 12-15/mon B. 15-18/min C. 20-25/min D. 18-20/min E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Actual breathing rate is about 18-20 breaths/min.
6Q. ……………………… is breathing out of the air

A. Expiration B. Respiration C. Inspiration D. Digestion E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The process of breathing out of the air into the lungs is an inspiration or exhalation.
7Q. ……………………. is the process of intake of air

A. Expiration B. Respiration C. Inspiration D. Digestion E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The process of taking air into the lungs is an inspiration or inhalation.
8Q. Fishes have only …………………………….. heart

A. Three chambered B. One chambered C. Two chambered D. Four-chambered E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Fishes have the only two-chambered heart – one auricle and one Ventricle.
9Q. The chambers of the heart which pump blood to body tissues are called ………………….

A. Ventricles B. Pericardium C. Auricles D. Aorta E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The chambers of the heart which pump blood to body tissues are called Ventricles.
10Q. In humans, other mammals, and birds, the heart is divided into how many chambers?

A. Three B. Two C. Four D. Six E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The heart is a muscular organ in humans and other animals, which pumps blood through the blood vessels of the circulatory system. In humans, other mammals, and birds, the heart is divided into four chambers: upper left and right atria; and lower left and right ventricles.

1Q. Which of the following carry pure blood from the heart?

A. Diastole B. Systole C. Veins D. Arteries E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Arteries carry blood (with oxygen) from your heart out to your body, while veins carry blood (without oxygen) from your body to your heart.
2Q. The ……………………. kidney is placed a little higher than the……………….. kidney

A. left, right B. right, left C. right, right D. left, left E. none of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The left kidney is located slightly more superior than the right kidney due to the larger size of the liver on the right side of the body.
3Q. ………………….. are the functional and structural unit of the kidney

A. Urethra B. Urochrome C. Nephrons D. Cloaca E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The nephrons are the basic structural and functional unit of the kidney. Its chief function is to regulate the concentration of water and soluble substances like sodium salts by filtering the blood, reabsorbing what is needed and excreting the rest as urine
4Q. Which of the following is absent in birds?

A. Ureters B. Urinary bladder C. Nervous system D. Urethra E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Birds evolved from a diapsid reptile. All known diapsid reptiles (crocodilians, lizards, snakes, and the tuatara) are uricotelic, which means they excrete uric acid as nitrogen waste. Uric acid is insoluble Since birds do not have a separate opening for the urinary tract, both the uric acid and the feces come out of the same opening, the cloaca.
5Q. ………………… is found only in animals and absent in plants

A. Ureters B. Urethra C. Excretory system D. Nervous System E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The nervous system develops from ectoderm and is found only in animals and absent in plants. The study of the nervous system and receptors is called neurology.
6Q. Which is deal with visual analysis, auditory etc?

A. Forebrain B. Midbrain C. Hindbrain D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The midbrain or mesencephalon is a portion of the central nervous system associated with vision, hearing, motor control, sleep/wake, arousal (alertness), and temperature regulation.
7Q. How many spinal nerves found in humans?

A. 15pairs B. 12 pairs C. 31 pairs D. 30pairs E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: A spinal nerve is a mixed nerve, which carries motor, sensory, and autonomic signals between the spinal cord and the body. In the human, there are 31 pairs of spinal nerves, one on each side of the vertebral column.
8Q. ………………….. is bean-shaped, chocolate brown structure lying in the abdomen

A. Heart B. Urethra C. Uters D. Kidney E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The kidneys are bean-shaped organs that serve several essential regulatory roles in vertebrates. They remove excess organic molecules from the blood and it is by this action that their best-known function is performed the removal of waste products of metabolism.
9Q. Which is responsible for blood clotting?

A. Thrombocytes B. Plasma C. Erythrocytes D. Leukocytes E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Platelets, also called are a component of blood whose function (along with the coagulation factors) is to stop bleeding by clumping and clotting blood vessel injuries.
10Q. ………………..carry impure blood from the heart

A. Diastole B. Systole C. Veins D. Arteries E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Arteries carry blood (with oxygen) from your heart out to your body, while veins carry blood (without oxygen) from your body to your heart.

1Q. Humans are ………………..

A. Autotrophs B. Chemoautotrophs C. Archaeans D. Heterotrophs E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Heterotrophs must consume autotrophs to obtain their energy and are therefore also called consumers. These include all animals from reptiles to humans.
2Q. In seed plants, the immature male gametophyte is also known as ………………

A. Cone B. Sperm C. Pollen D. Seed E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: As in animals, female and male gametes are called, respectively, eggs and sperm.In the seed plants, the microgametophyte is called pollen.
3Q. Red blood cells and white blood cells are produced in …………….

A. Red bone marrow B. Spongy bone C. Compact bone D. Yellow bone marrow E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Redbone marrow(hematopoietic) produces red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
4Q. Fats and Oils are …………………….

A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Acids E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The triesters of fatty acids with glycerol (1,2,3 trihydroxypropane) compose the class of lipids known as fats and oils.
5Q. Viruses are not responsible for which disease?

A. AIDS B. Flu C. Malaria D. Cold E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The Plasmodium parasite that causes malaria is neither a virus nor a bacterium.
6Q. Which is the largest gland in the human body?

A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Thyroid E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The liver is the largest gland in the human body. It weighs approximately 1200-1500 g or, on average, one-fiftieth of the total adult body weight.
7Q. Food is normally digested in the ……………………

A. Small intestines B. Large intestines C. Liver D. Stomach E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: As the food is digested in the small intestine and dissolved into the colon, where they remain, usually for a day.
8Q. Ricketts is a disease of ……………………….

A.Tissue B.Bones C.Eye D.Ear E.None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Rickets is a childhood bone disorder in which bones soften and become prone to fractures and deformity. Rickets is a disorder caused by a lack of vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate.
9Q. Fats are stored within specialized cells called ………………………..

A. Adipocytes B. Epidermis C. Epithelium D. Liver E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Fats are stored within specialized cells called adipocytes. Fatty acids and glycerol are converted into triacylglycerols (triglycerides) which are stored within the adipocytes primarily as an energy store.
10Q. …………………………….of the Endocrine glands is known as master gland?

A. Adrenal B. Spleen C. Pituitary D. Thyroid E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The pituitary is an important gland in the body and it is often referred to as the ‘master gland’ because it controls several of the other hormone glands

1Q. Gout is a kind of …………………….

A. arthritis B. osteoarthritis C. angina D. infraction E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Gout is a kind of arthritis. It can cause an attack of sudden burning pain, stiffness, and swelling in a joint.
2Q. ……………. is an abnormally high level of uric acid in the blood.

A. Hyperuricemia B. Mellitus C. Rheumatism D. Ascariasis E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Hyperuricemia is an abnormally high level of uric acid in the blood. In the pH conditions of body fluid, uric acid exists largely as urate, the ion form. The amount of urate in the body depends on the balance between the number of purines eaten in food, the amount of urate synthesized within the body.
3Q. Which one of the following is the average Tidal volume in case of human respiration?

A. 200ml B. 500ml C. 700ml D. 400ml E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The average Tidal volume in case of human respiration is 500ml.
4Q. How many primary sensations of taste present in the human being?

A. 8 B. 6 C. 4 D. 7 E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Human beings have 4 primary sensations of taste.These are sweet, sour, salt and bitter.
5Q. The maximum life span of the turtle is …………………….

A. 150 years B. 210 years C. 150 years D. 200 years E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Turtles are reptiles of the order Testudines characterized by a special bony or cartilaginous shell developed from their ribs and acting as a shield. ” The maximum life span of the turtle is 200 years.
6Q. How many lobes are present in the right lung of humans?

A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 1 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The right lung is composed of 3 lobes and the left has 2
7Q. Yeast is an example of ………………….

A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Fungi D. Algae E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Yeasts are fungi that grow as single cells, producing daughter cells either by budding (the budding yeasts) or by binary fission (the fission yeasts). They differ from most fungi, which grow as thread-like hyphae.
8Q. Which factor is true about bacteria?

A. It is acellular organisms B. It has a single chromosome C. It does not have an unclear membrane D. It has a cellulose wall E.None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Bacteria have a cellulose wall. The cell envelope is composed of the plasma membrane and cell wall. As in other organisms, the bacterial cell wall provides structural integrity to the cell.
9Q. ………………….. is called as ‘Police Force’ of the human body?

A. Fibrinogen B. Erythrocytes C. Leucocytes D. Thrombocytes E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Leukocyte, also known as white blood cells. It acts as the police force of the human body.
10Q. Which one of the following is the average residual volume in case of human respiration?

A. 1200ml B. 700ml C. 1500ml D. 1000ml E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The average residual volume in the case of human respiration is 1200ml

1Q. Which among the following parts of plants are involved in gaseous exchange?

A. Vaceoles B. Lenticles C. Stomata D. Both 1 and 2 E. Both 2 and 3

Answer: Option E
Explanation: Lenticles and Stomata are parts of plants are involved in gaseous exchange.
2Q. …………………..tissue convert sugar into insoluble starch and store these up for future

A. Sclerenchyma B. Collenchyma C. Parenchyma D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Parenchyma tissue converts sugar into insoluble starch and store these up for future.
3Q. The amount of cholesterol required for an adult a human being is ………..

A. 60grams B. 20grams C. 70 grams D. 80grams E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The amount of cholesterol required for an adult human being is 60grams. A human male weighing 68 kg (150 lb) normally synthesizes about 1 g (1,000 mg) per day, and his body contains about 35 g, mostly contained within the cell membranes. Typical daily cholesterol dietary intake for a man in the United States is 307 mg.
4Q. Which is is the primary building block for plant protoplasm?

A. Calcium B. Nitrogen C. Magnesium D. Phosphorous E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Nitrogen is the primary building block for plant protoplasm. Protoplasm is the translucent substance that is the living matter in cells. It is needed for flower differentiation, speedy shoot growth, the health of flower buds and the quality of fruit set. It also acts as a catalyst for the other minerals.
5Q. Which Cereals contains the maximum amount of protein?

A. Bazra B. Maize C. Rice D. Wheat E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Wheat is having a higher protein content than other major cereals, maize (corn) or rice.In terms of total production tonnages used for food, it is currently second to rice as the main human food crop and ahead of maize.
6Q. Light rays enter the eye through the ………………..

A. Cornea B. Iris C. Retina D. Lens E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Light rays enter the eye through the cornea, the clear front “window” of the eye. The cornea’s refractive power bends the light rays in such a way that they pass freely through the pupil the opening in the center of the iris through which light enters the eye.
7Q. Which among the following kinds of lenses are used to treat Astigmatism?

A. Bifocal Lens B. Concave Lens C. Cylindrical D. Convex Lens E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Astigmatism is a defect in the eye or in a lens caused by a deviation from spherical curvature, which results in distorted images, as light rays are prevented from meeting at a common focus.
8Q. ……………………are plant hormones that are derivatives of the purine adenine.

A. Cytokines B. Aspirin C. Cytokinins D. Spirogyra E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Cytokinins are plant hormones that are derivatives of the purine adenine.
9Q. …………………………. lens is used to correct Presbyopia

A. Concave B. Bifocal C. Cylindrical D. Convex E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: For centuries presbyopia was corrected with the use of bifocal eyeglasses. Presbyopia is a condition associated with aging in which the eye exhibits a progressively diminished ability to focus on near objects.
10Q. ……………………. is needed for energy transfer and storage in plants

A. Phosphorous B. Nitrogen C. Oxygen D. Carbon-di-oxide E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Phosphorus is needed for energy transfer and storage in plants. It is needed for the formation of nucleic acids ( RNA and DNA ). It helps plants to mature and promotes root, flower and seed development.

1Q. What is the approximate time required for a heartbeat?

A. 0.8s B. 1s C. 0.4s D. 0.5s E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Take 60 and divide it by the number of beats counted per minute. If your heart beats 60 times per minute that is 1 second. If your heart beats 75 times per minute then that is 60/75 which is 0.8 seconds for each beat and so on.
2Q. The metal present in insulin is ………………………….

A. Magnesium B. Iron C. Zinc D. Chlorine E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The components of insulin as part are as follows: Metal ion – zinc (19.6 μg/mL) Buffer – disodium hydrogen phosphate dihydrate (1.25 mg/mL) Preservatives – m-cresol (1.72 mg/mL) and phenol (1.50 mg/mL).
3Q. Which is used to prevent infections from the human body?

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin B D. Vitamin C E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Vitamins are a group of substances needed in small amounts by the body to maintain health. Vitamin C is also called ascorbic acid. It is used to prevent infections from human
4Q. What is the name of first clones sheep?

A. Downen B. Dolly C. Dewey D. Snuppy E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Dolly was a female domestic sheep, and the first mammal to be cloned from an adult somatic cell, using the process of nuclear transfer.
5Q. Xerophthalmia is a disease caused by lack of of…………………..

A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin B D. Vitamin A E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Vitamin A deficiency (VAD) is a lack of vitamin A in humans. It is common in poorer countries but rarely seen in more developed countries. Nyctalopia (night blindness) is one of the first signs of VAD. Xerophthalmia, keratomalacia, and complete blindness can also occur since Vitamin A has a major role in phototransduction.
6Q. Which animal uses sounds as its eyes?

A. Bat B. Owl C. Eagle D. Snake E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Bats are mammals of the order Chiroptera whose forelimbs form webbed wings, making them the only mammals naturally capable of true and sustained flight. It uses sounds as its eyes.
7Q. Which organ of the body never rest?

A. Lungs B. Liver C. Brain D. Heart E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The body never rest is Heart. The heart is a muscular organ in humans and other animals, which pumps blood through the blood vessels of the circulatory system.
8Q. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced by ………………………….

A. Heart valves B. Stomach C. Liver cells D. Lungs E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: A serum α2 globulin secreted in the liver which, on hydrolysis by renin, gives rise to angiotensin.
9Q. The major energy currency molecule of the cell is……………………………….

A. KTP B. MTP C. CTP D. ATP E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The major energy currency molecule of the cell, ATP, is evaluated in the context of creationism. This complex molecule is critical for all life from the simplest to the most complex.
10Q. ………………. is considered the biological clock of the body

A. Pineal gland B. Thyroid gland C. Adrenal gland D. Parathyroid gland E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The pineal gland is called a biological clock of the body because it regulates the melatonin production in your body via the amount of light detected by your retina. when it’s dark the gland releases the melatonin which lets your body go to sleep and start “repairing” itself.

1Q. Chewing gum is made from which of the following?

A. Spice B. Polystyrene C. Runny D. Latex E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: chewing gum was made of a substance called chicle mixed with flavorings.Chicle is a latex sap that comes from the sapodilla tree (native to Central America).
2Q. Ripe Grapes contain ……………………

A. Lactose B. Galactose C. Fructose D. Muscovado E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: In addition to glucose and fructose, several other sugars are present in small amounts in grapes.
3Q. Guttation takes place due to the development of ………………………

A. Cells B. Transpiration C. Root Pressure D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Guttation takes place due to the development of root pressure.
4Q. Hydathodes are also called ……………..

A. Water stomata B. Starch Stomata C. Water absorber D. Protein Stomata E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Hydathodes are specialized pores along the margins and apex of the leaf through which the secretion of water (guttation) takes place. Hydathodes or water stomata consists of vein endings, epithem, chamber, and pores. The pore is surrounded by guard cells but it remains open permanently.
5Q. Animals living in the three trunks are known as………………

A. Amphibious B. Volant C. Arboreal D. Aquatic E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Animals living in the three trunks are known as Arboreal.
6Q. ……………………… is a non-poisonous snake

A. Python snake B. Hognose snake C. Garter snake D. Ribbon snake E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Python is a non-poisonous snake. pythons are large muscular snakes which grow up to 35 feet and weigh as much as 300 pounds. Pythons are well known for the way they kill their prey by squeezing them to death and then swallowing them all at once.
7Q. T8 cells related with which of the following?

A. Cell Receptors B. Antigen-presenting cell C. Cytotoxic T cells D. Virus E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: A cytotoxic T cell (also known as TC, cytotoxic T lymphocyte, CTL, T-killer cell, cytolytic T cell, CD8+ T-cells or killer T cell) is a T lymphocyte that kills cancer cells, cells that are infected or cells that are damaged in other ways.
8Q. What is the Ratio of Carbon and Nitrogen in the soil?

A. 7:13 B. 14:1 C. 12:3 D. 1:11 E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The ratio of Carbon and Nitrogen in the soil is 14:1
9Q. Plants receive their nutrients mainly from …………

A. Atmosphere B. Water C. Soil D. Sunlight E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Plants receive their nutrients mainly from the soil.
10Q. Cod is a variety of ………………..

A. Fish B. Bird C. Plant D. Animal E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Atlantic cod. Cod is the common name for the genus Gadus of demersal fishes, belonging to the family Gadidae.

1Q. ………………. is a gaseous plant hormone.

A. Ethylene B. Methylene C. Acrylate D. Alkaline E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Ethylene is also a gaseous plant hormone. The hormone effects of ethylene on general plant growth were first noted in 1864 when leakage from the gas street.
2Q. The capsule of Tenon is associated with

A. Heart B. Ear C. Liver D. Eyeball E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The fascia bulbi (also known as the capsule of Tenon and the bulbar sheath) is a thin membrane which envelops the eyeball from the optic nerve to the limbus.
3Q. A healthy man needs ………………….. calories per day

A. 1700 B. 2500 C. 2200 D. 3100 E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Within a healthy, balanced diet, a man needs around 10,500kJ (2,500Kcal) a day to maintain his weight. For a woman, that figure is around 8,400kJ (2,000Kcal).
4Q. Which of the following is not a part of the balanced diet?

A. Carbohydrates B. Vitamins C. Alcohol D. Proteins E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Dieters are usually urged to lay off alcoholic drinks to cut calories and to avoid alcohol’s presumed effects on boosting appetite and loosening inhibitions.
5Q. Jalpriya is a variety of ………………………….

A. Paddy B. Mustard C. Flower D. Wheat E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Jalpriya is a variety of Paddy.
6Q. How many laminae are present in the grey matter of the spinal cord?

A. 6 B. 8 C. 7 D. 10 E.None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The grey matter of the spinal cord is divided into 10 laminae.
7Q. Reserpine is used to …………………………..

A. reduce the fever B. reduce the glucose level C. reduce high blood pressure D. reduce the pain E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Reserpine is used with or without other medications to treat high blood pressure (hypertension). Lowering high blood pressure helps prevent strokes.
8Q. Broca’s area in the left hemisphere of the brain is related to…………………….

A. Thinking B. Emotion C. Action D. Speech E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Nevertheless, Broca’s area in the left hemisphere and its homolog in the right. This area was responsible for speech production.
9Q. …………………… is also known as Christmas disease

A. Hartnup’s Disease B. Haemophilia B C. Cori’s Disease D. Cystic Fibrosis E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Christmas disease also called hemophilia B or factor IX hemophilia is a rare genetic disorder in which your blood does not clot properly.
10Q. ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of ………………………………………………

A. Lungs B. Liver C. Heart D. Ear E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The bundle of His or His bundle is a collection of heart muscle cells specialized for electrical conduction. Bundle of His a band of cardiac muscle fibers connecting the atria with the ventricles of the heart.

1Q. Pneumoconiosis is a disease of ……………..

A. Lungs B. Heart C. Liver D. Brain E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in the Coal Mining Industry. It is a disease of the lungs due to inhalation of dust, characterized by inflammation, coughing, and fibrosis.
2Q. Which one of the following is a good source of nutritional Calcium?

A. Milk B. Egg C. Ragi D. Rice E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Ragi (Eleusine coracana) is a widely growing annual plant found most abundantly in Africa and Asia. It is a hardy crop that can grow in high altitudes and withstand harsh weather conditions. Karnataka is the largest producer of this crop in India.
3Q. In human beings, normally which one of the following parts does the sperm fertilize the ovum?

A. The upper part of Uterus B. The lower part of Uterus C. Cervix D. Fallopian Tube E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: In human beings, normally Fallopian Tube does the sperm fertilize the ovum.
4Q. Which of the following belong to the genus Dalbergia?

A. Paddy B. Coffee C. Rosewood D. Tea E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: All genuine rosewoods belong to the genus Dalbergia. The pre-eminentrose wood appreciated in the Western world is the wood of Dalbergia nigra which is now a CITES-listed endangered species. It is best known as Brazilian Rosewood, but also as Bahia rosewood.
5Q. …………………… is another name of RDX

A. Dextran B. Cyclomethicone C. Hextran D. Cyanotran E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Dextran(RDX) is a complexly branched glucan composed of chains of varying lengths. It is used medicinally as an antithrombotic, to reduce blood viscosity, and as a volume expander in hypovolaemia.
6Q. Which types of light colors are strongly absorbed by plants?

A. Red and Yellow B. Green and Yellow C. Blue and Red D. Indigo and Red E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Chlorophyll absorbs light most strongly in the blue portion of the electromagnetic spectrum, Absorbance spectra of free chlorophyll a (blue) and b (red) in a solvent.
7Q. Which of the following is not an ape?

A. Bonobo B. Langur C. Gorilla D. Orangutan E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Apes are a branch of Old World tailless anthropoid catarrhine primates native to Africa and Southeast Asia.
8Q. Which of the following is/are plant products?

A. Vanilla B. Chicory C. Camphor D. All of these E. Only 1 and 3

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Vanilla, Chicory, and Camphor are Plant products.
9Q. …………… has the highest energy

A. Blue light B. Green light C. yellow light D. Red light E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Blue light has more energy. because the wavelength of red light is more than blue light and you now that the wavelength has opposite relation with F(frequency) and according to plank law we now that the energy of a quantum is a relation to its frequency.wavelength=light velocity/f
10Q. Ethanol as a viable bio-fuel can be obtained from …………….

A. Corn B. Sugarcane C. Maize D. Both 1 and 2 E. Both 1 and 3

Answer: Option D
Explanation: 100% ethanol fuel or a mix of Ethanol and gasoline (aka flex-fuel). It is commonly made from biomass such as corn or sugarcane.

1Q. Ames Test is used to diagnosis

A. Typhoid B. Tuberculosis C. Carcinogenicity D. Syphilis E.None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The use of the Ames test is based on the assumption that any substance that is mutagenic for the bacteria used in his test may also turn out to be a carcinogen.
2Q. ……………. The test is used to identify plague

A. Montoux test B. Touriquet test C. Widal test D. Wayson stain test E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The Wayson stain is a basic fuchsin-methylene blue, ethyl alcohol-phenol microscopic staining procedure. This test to confirm the plague.
3Q. ELISA test is associated with.

A. Dengue B. AIDS C. Scarlet fever D. Typhoid E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: ELISA for AIDS, HIV introduction, Symptoms and signs of HIV infections (AIDS), Diagnosis of HIV.
4Q. The disease Syphilis is identified by …………………….

A. Wassermann test B. Rose Waaler Test C. Dick Test D. Widal Test E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The Wassermann test or Wassermann reaction (WR) is an antibody test for syphilis, named after the bacteriologist August Paul von Wassermann.
5Q. Tourniquet test is used to diagnosis which of the following disease?

A. Typhoid B. Plague C. Dengue D. AIDS E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The tourniquet test is part of the new WHO case definition for dengue. The test is a marker of capillary fragility and it can be used as a triage tool to differentiate patients with acute gastroenteritis.
6Q. ………………. for diagnosis of typhoid fevers.

A. Widal test B. Dick Test C. Montoux test D. Ames Test E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The Widal test, developed in 1896 and named after Georges-Fernand Widal, who introduced it, is a presumptive serological test for enteric fever or diagnosis of typhoid fevers.
7Q. Dick test is used to identify which type of fever?

A. Rheumatoid fever B. Typhoid C. Dengue fever D. Scarlet fever E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Dick test, a method of determining susceptibility to scarlet fever by injection into the skin of 0.1 cubic centimeter of scarlet fever toxin.
8Q. The disease Tuberculosis is identified by which test?

A. Ames test B. Montoux test C. Tourniquet test D. Rose Waller test E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The Mantoux skin test consists of an intradermal injection of one-tenth of a milliliter test for purified protein derivative) is a screening tool for tuberculosis (TB).
9Q. Rose Waller test is associated with.

A. Cancer B. Rheumatoid fever C. Dengue fever D. Viral fever E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Rose-Waaler test – obsolete test for demonstration of rheumatoid arthritis.
10Q. A bilirubin blood test is used to diagnose ………….

A. Cancer B. AIDS C. Dengue D. Jaundice E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is in everyone’s blood and stool. If you notice a yellowing of your skin or the whites of your eyes, this is called jaundice.

1Q. MRI mean.

A. Magnetic Resonance Indicator B. Maximum Resonance Imaging C. Magnetic Resizing Imaging D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a test that uses a magnetic field and pulses of radio wave energy to make pictures of organs and structures inside the body.
2Q. Insects Responsible for transmitting disease are called ………………..

A. Fleas B. Ticks C. Vector D. Arthropods E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Vectors are living organisms that can transmit infectious diseases between humans or from animals to humans. Many of these vectors are blood-sucking insects.
3Q. Tamiflu is front line drug against ……………

1. AIDS 2. Bird Flu 3. Swine Flu 4. Cancer 5. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Tamiflu, one of the front-line drugs against bird flu, can kill, a new warning from America’s drug regulator.
4Q. …………….. scientific name is Columba livia.

A. Parrot B. Pigeon C. Penguin D. Peacock E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The rock dove (Columba livia) or rock pigeon is a member of the bird family. The genus name Columba is the Latin word meaning “pigeon, dove”.
5Q. The First successful heart transplantation was done by …………………..

A. CN Barnard B. Hamilton Naki C. Astley Paston Cooper D. William Hartnell E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Christiaan Neethling Barnard was a South African cardiac surgeon who performed the world’s first successful human-to-human heart transplant.
6Q. …………………. helps to prevent infections in the human body

A. Vitamin B B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin C E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin that has the ability to protect the cells of the body, including the immune cells from the harmful effects of free radicals. This increased lifespan of the immune cells boosts the ability of the immune system to fight diseases.
7Q. An ECG shows the functioning of the …………………

A. Lungs B. Heart C. Brain D. Stomach E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) is a diagnostic tool that is routinely used to assess the electrical and muscular functions of the heart.
8Q. Cell or tissue death within a living body is referred as ……………..

A. Necrosis B. Mitochondrial C. Sickle D. Zygote E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Necrosis is the name given to unprogrammed death of cells and living tissue.
9Q. ………………… is an insufficient blood supply in the human body

A. Leukemia B. Anemia C. Ischemia D. Hemophilia E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Ischemia is an insufficient blood supply to a specific organ or tissue, not to the whole body.
10Q. Thalassemia is a hereditary disease. It affects …………

A. Blood B. Liver C. Heart D. Skin E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Thalassemia is actually a group of inherited diseases of the blood that affect a person’s ability to produce hemoglobin, resulting in anemia. Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen and nutrients to cells in the body.

1Q. Mumps is a disease caused by ……………….

A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Mumps, also known as epidemic parotitis, is a viral disease caused by the mumps virus.
2Q. Nymph is the name of which of the following?

A. Mupli Beetle B. Cockroach C. Lizards D. Bee E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Eggs produced by female cockroaches are enclosed in resilient egg cases known as oothecae. The oothecae of cockroach species contain a range of nymph.
3Q. Number of chromosomes in Down’s Syndrome is

A. 47 B. 52 C. 35 D. 50 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Between 90% and 95% of all Down syndrome is Standard Trisomy 21. Translocation is caused when a piece of chromosome 21 is located on another chromosome such as chromosome 14. The person with Translocation Trisomy 21 will have 46 chromosomes but will have the genetic material of 47 chromosomes.
4Q. …………………. are the maximum number of species of living things on earth.

A. Birds B. Animals C. Insects D. Humans E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Insect species represent the largest percentage of the world’s known species.
5Q. In humans, the number of tetrads formed during mitosis is ………………

A. 0 B. 10 C. 5 D. 23 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Bivalents/tetrads are not present during mitosis, so there are 0 of these
6Q. Protein coasts of viruses are synthesized in ……………………

A. Lysogenic Cycle B. Cryogenic Cycle C. Otto Cycle D. Lytic Cycle E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The lytic cycle is a six-stage cycle. In the first stage, called “penetration,” the virus injects its own nucleic acid into a host cell. In some viruses, this genetic material is circular and mimics a bacterial plasmid.
7Q. …………………… is called a Herbal Indian Doctor

A. Honey B. Amla C. Mint D. Neem E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Amla is called a Herbal Indian Doctor.
8Q. Goiter is caused by the deficiency of …………….

A. Vitamin C B. Iron C. Blood D. Iodine E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Iodine deficiency can lead to enlargement of the thyroid (goiter ).
9Q. ………………….. is the edible part of Cabbage

A. Flower bud B. Stem C. Vegetative bud D. Broccoli E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Edible plant stems are one part of plants that are eaten by humans. In cabbage, the edible part is vegetative bud.
10Q. Alpha-Keratin is a protein present in …………………….

A. Heart B. Skin C. Liver D. Bllood E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Alpha keratin is a protein present in hair, wool, nails, horns, hooves of mammals. Keratin is a type of folding protein found in hair nails and skin.

1Q. The Cotton crop field rotation is ……………………..

A. Four yearly B. Three yearly C.Haly yearly D.Two yearly E.None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Crop rotation is the practice of growing a series of dissimilar or different types of crops in the same area in sequenced seasons. Cotton – Four yearly
2Q. Nili Ravi is a ………………………

A. Elephant B. Horse C. Buffaloe D. Cow E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The Niliravi is a water buffalo breed. Nili and Ravi were two different breeds until 1950, but after this period it was difficult to distinguish between the two breeds probably due to overlapping selection criteria of breeders.
3Q. Deoni is a variety of ………………………..

A. Elephant B. Horse C. Buffaloe D. Cow E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Deoni is a native breed of cattle in India. They originated in the taluks of Basavakalyan, Bidar, and Bhalki of Bidar district in Karnataka and adjoining Latur district of the state of Maharashtra.
4Q. Lincoln is associated with ………………

A. Cow B. Sheep C. Goat D. Pig E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The Lincoln sometimes called the Lincoln Longwool, is a breed of sheep from England. Lincoln is the largest British sheep, developed specifically to produce the heaviest, longest and most lustrous fleece of any breed in the world.
5Q. Ganglioside found in ………………………….

A. Nerve System B. Excretory systems C. Muscular System D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: A ganglioside is a molecule composed of a glycosphingolipid. They are found predominantly in the nervous system.
6Q. Study of field crops is called ……………..

A. Apiculture B. Horticulture C. Agronomy D. Agriculture E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Agronomy is a branch of agricultural science that deals with the study of crops and the soils in which they grow. Agronomists work to develop methods that will improve the use of soil and increase the production of food and fiber crops.
7Q. Maya is the variety of ………………………..

A. Maize B. Rice C. Wheat D. Mustard E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Maya is a variety of Mustard.
8Q. …………….. is an example of compound leaves

A. Guava B. Coconut C. Black cherry D. Mango E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: a compound leaf is a leaf consisting of several or many distinct parts (leaflets) joined to a single stem.
9Q. Lewy bodies are found in ………………….

A. Nerve cell B. Heart C. Brain D. Liver E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Lewy bodies are abno]rmal aggregates of protein that develop inside nerve cells in Parkinson’s disease (PD), Lewy body dementia, and some other disorders. They are identified under the microscope when histology is performed on the brain.
10Q. Tube feet are characteristics of ………………..

A. Star Fish B. Sea Urchin C. Basket Star D. Brittle star E. All of these

Answer: Option E
Explanation: Tube feet are the many small tubular projections found on the oral face of a sea star’s arms. They are characteristic of the water vascular system of starfish

1Q. Fluoride pollution mainly affects ……………

A. Teeth B. Stomach C. Skin D. Liver E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Fluoride is present in the teeth, bones, thyroid gland and skin of animals.But Fluoride pollution mainly affects Teeth.
2Q. An algal boom is also called as

A. Eburnification B. Eutropication C. Chylification D. Eutrophy E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: In aquatic ecosystems, species such as algae experience a population increase (called an algal bloom). Algal blooms limit the sunlight available to bottom-dwelling organisms and cause wide swings in the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water.
3Q. The study of human population and things that affect them is …………….

A. Dystrophy B. Discography C. Demography D. Atrophy E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Demography is the study of statistics such as births, deaths, income, or the incidence of disease, which illustrate the changing structure of human populations.
4Q. The chemical wastes from Industry is called

A. Industrial Garbage B. Industrial Pollutants C. Industrial Wastages D. Industrial Effluents E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Effluent is defined by as “wastewater – treated or untreated – that flows out of a treatment plant, sewer, or industrial outfall.
5Q. The incubation period of Hepatitis ‘B’ virus is how many days?

A. 30-180 days B. 40-120 days C. 50-150 days D. 20-100 days E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: After the virus enters the body, there is an incubation period lasting 1.5 to 6 months (average 4 months) until illness begins. During the acute phase (first 6 months after infection) most persons have no symptoms or might experience mild illness.
6Q. Study of a single population’s relationship to its environment is called

A. Ecology B. Biology C. Gynecology D. Autecology E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The ecological study of a particular species is called Autecology.
7Q. The carbon-di-oxide content in the air that we exhale about

A. 23% B. 4% C. 10% D. 7% E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: carbon-di-oxide content in the air that we exhale about only 4%.
8Q. Which of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?

A. Sugar Cane B. Paddy C. Mango D. Wheat E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Mango has a maximum genetic diversity in India.
9Q. Animals living at the bottom of the Sea are known as

A. Epipelagic B. Pelagic C. Oceanic D. Benthic E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The benthic zone is the ecological region at the very bottom of the sea.
10Q. Energy flow in the ecosystem is ……………….

A. Uni-directional B. Bi-directional C. Multi-directional D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The flow of energy in the ecosystem is unidirectional. The energy enters the plants (from the sun) through photosynthesis during the making of food. This energy is then passed on from one organism to another in a food chain.

1Q. Does photoperiodism affect which of the following?

A. Flowering B. Fruiting C. Growth D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Photoperiodism is the physiological reaction of organisms to the length of day or night. Photoperiodism can also be defined as the developmental responses of plants to the relative lengths of light and dark periods.
2Q. ….………….are located in the fluid that surrounds the nucleus

A. Golgi bodies B. Ribosome C. Mitochondria D. Endoplasmic reticulum E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: This genetic material is known as mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA.which are located in the fluid that surrounds the nucleus (the cytoplasm). Outside the nucleus, DNA is found in mtDNA.
3Q. ………………….. is helps the embryo exchange gases and handle liquid waste

A. Digestion B. Excretion C. Protection D. Respiration E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Allantois is helped the embryo exchange gases and handle liquid waste
4Q. ……………………. animals belong to Mollusca

A. Haliotis B. Hyla C. Hare D. Hydra E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Haliotis – Mollusca is one of the most diverse groups of animals on the planet. It includes such familiar organisms as snails, octopuses, squid.
5Q. Xenobiotics which are inherently resistant to microbial attack are called as

A. Persistent B. Biodegradable C. Recalcitrant D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: A xenobiotic is a foreign chemical substance found within an organism that is not normally naturally produced by or expected to be present within that organism.
6Q. Which part of root involved in water absorption?

A. Zone of root hairs B. Zone of cell division C. Zone of elongation D. Zone of root cap E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: In roots, the most efficient region of water absorption is the root hair zone.
7Q. The virus without capsid but only with nucleic acid is called …………………..

A. Prion B. Nucleoid C. Virion D. Capsomere E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The nucleoid (meaning nucleus-like) is an irregularly-shaped region within the cell of a prokaryote that contains all or most of the genetic material.
8Q. Which of the following is biodegradable?

A. Water bottles B. Mobile covers C. Iron Ball D. Leather belts E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Leather is biodegradable and can be decomposed.
9Q. Which of the following involving synthetic chemical compound?

A. Siddha B. Unani C. Allopathy D. Ayurveda E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The branch of medicine involving synthetic chemical compounds is Allopathy. Allopathy means a treating disease by the use of agents that produce impact various from those of the disease treated.
10Q. Archeology is the study of ………………………..

A. Ants B. Spiders C. Flies D. Bees E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The study of spiders is called Araneology.

1Q. Expand DNA

A. Deoxyhydro Nitric Acid B. DeoxyriboNucleic Acid C. Deoxyribo Nitric Acid D. Deoxyhydro Nitrous Acid E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Deoxyribonucleic acid or DNA is a molecule that contains the instructions an organism needs to develop, live and reproduce.
2Q. The single set of the chromosome is called in a cell is called ……………. A. Tonoplast B. Haploid C. Allele D. Diploid E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Haploid describes a cell that contains a single set of chromosomes and Ploidy is the number of sets of chromosomes in a cell
3Q. ………………….. is a functional unit of gene

A. Muton B. Recon C. Cistron D. Genome E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Cistron is the smallest unit of genetic material that must be intact to function as a transmitter of genetic information.
4Q. Mulberry is a ……………. fruit

A. False B. Aggregate C. Simple D. Composite E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Mulberry Composite fruit – a complete inflorescence is called a multiple or a composite fruit.
5Q. The blood circulation inside the body takes approximately how many seconds?

A. 23 B. 20 C. 18 D. 15 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The blood circulation inside the body takes approximately 23 seconds.
6Q. Expand DPT

A. Dengue, Polio, and Tetanus B. Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus C. Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Typhoid D. Dengue, Polio, and Typhoid E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis are serious diseases caused by bacteria. Diphtheria and pertussis are spread from person to person.
7Q. Blood is a which type of tissue?

A. Epithelial B. Reproductive C. Connective D. Muscular E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Blood is considered a connective tissue for two basic reasons: 1. Embryologically, it has the same origin (mesodermal) as do the other connective tissue types 2. Blood connects the body systems.
8Q. The Orange and Yellow colors of leaves are due to ………………..

A. Chlorophylls B. Flavonoids C. Betalains D. Carotenoids E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Chlorophylls – green and Carotene is a pigment that absorbs blue and indigo light, and that provides rich yellows and oranges, Flavonoids are the yellow plant pigments seen most notably in lemons, oranges, and grapefruit.
9Q. Saliva helps in digestion of …………………… A. Carbohydrate B. Protein C. Starch D. Fat E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The digestive functions of saliva include moistening food and helping to create a food bolus.
10Q. The optimum dissolved oxygen level required for survival of aquatic organisms is …………

A. 2-4 mg/litre B. 4-6 mg/litre C. 4-9 mg/litre D. 3-6 mg/litre E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Dissolved oxygen levels below 3 ppm are stressful to most aquatic organisms. Levels below 2 ppm will not support fish at all.

1Q. Bos Taurus is a scientific name of ………………..

A. Buffalo B. Horse C. Cow D. Cat E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Cows are raised in many different countries around the world, mainly for the cow's natural resources such as milk, meat.
2Q. Which of the following is the basic unit of classification?

A. Types of Genus B. Species C. Character D. Gene E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Species are known as the basic units of classification because individuals of species are closely related structurally and functionally and can interbreed freely.
3Q. …………… is the scientific name of Frog

A. Rana Tigrina B. Reso Indicus C. Cicer Aestivum D. Rana Sativa E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Rana tigrina Hoplobatrachus tigerinus, the Indus Valley bullfrog or Indian bullfrog, popular name Asian bullfrog, Asian bullfrog or Asia bullfrog is a large species of frog found in Myanmar.
4Q. Which kingdom includes unicellular from usually found in aquatic habitats?

A. Monera B. Fungi C. Animalia D. Protista E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Kingdom Protists includes all unicellular eukaryotic microorganisms.
5Q. ………………………… is the scientific name of Housefly

A. Pisum Indica B. Mangifera Indica C. Felis Domestica D. Musca Domestica E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The housefly Musca domestica is a fly of the suborder Cyclorrhapha.
6Q. …………….. includes all prokaryotic organism likes bacteria, cyanobacteria, and archeobacteria

A. Animalia B. Protista C. Monera D. Plantae E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Monera Kingdom- All the organisms of this kingdom are prokaryotes.
7Q. Triticum Aestivum is the scientific name of …………………….

A. Wheat B. Mustard C. Rice D. Gram E. None of these

Answer: Option A Common wheat (Triticum aestivum), also known as bread wheat, is a cultivated wheat species.
8Q. The number of Mitochondria in bacteria cell is ………………

A. One B. Zero C. Two D. Four E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Number of Mitochondria in Bacterial Cell is 0
9Q. Who is the father of Taxonomy?

A. Carlos Linnus B. R.H. Whittaker C. Linus Pauling D. Carlos Guerrero E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Carlos Linnus is also known after his ennoblement as Carl von Linné was a Swedish botanist, physician, and zoologist, who formalized the modern system of naming organisms called binomial nomenclature. He is known by the epithet “father of modern taxonomy”.
10Q. The scientific name of Cat is ……………………

A. Felis Domestica B. Rana Tigrina C. Canis Familiaris D. Picum Indicus E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The domestic cat or the feral cat is a small, typically furry, carnivorous mammal. The scientific name of Cat is Felis Domestica.

1Q. Study of crop production is ………………

A. Anthology B. Ecology C. Botany D. Agronomy E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Agronomy is the science and technology of producing and using plants for food, fuel, fiber, and land reclamation.
2Q. Taxonomy is the study of

A. Outerspace B. Fossils C. The system of classification and naming of organisms D. Insects E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Taxonomy is the branch of science concerned with classification, especially of organisms; systematics.
3Q. ……………….. is the study of animal behavior

A. Paleontology B. Ethology C. Embryology D. Ichthyology E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Ethology is the scientific and objective study of animal behavior, usually with a focus on behavior under natural conditions, and viewing behavior as an evolutionarily adaptive trait.
4Q. Herpetology is the study of

A. Plants B. Embryos C. Amphibians and Reptiles D. Fossils E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Herpetology is the branch of zoology concerned with the study of amphibians (including frogs, toads, salamanders, newts, and caecilians (Gymnophiona) and reptiles (including snakes, lizards, amphisbaenids, turtles, terrapins, tortoises, crocodilians, and the tuataras).
5Q. ……………. is the study of Fish

A. Primatology B. Anthology C. Physiology D. Ichthyology E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Ichthyology also is known as Fish Science, is the branch of biology devoted to the study of fish.
6Q. Mammalogy is the study of ………………….

A. Mammals B. Fish C. Ocean D. Forest E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: In zoology, mammalogy is the study of mammals – a class of vertebrates with characteristics such as homeothermic metabolism, fur, four-chambered hearts, and complex nervous systems.
7Q. …………………. is the study of physical production of body A. Anthropology B. Anatomy C. Embryology D. Herpetology E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Anatomy is the branch of biology concerned with the study of the structure of organisms and their parts.
8Q. The anthology is the study of which of the following?

A. Distribution of living thing B. Plants C. Animals D. Hybrids E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: “Anthology” is the study of “Hybrid,” and how “Complex Something” came into existence from “Nothing,” for no reason or purpose.
9Q. Ornithology is the study of ………….

A. Insects B. Birds C. Reptiles D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Ornithology is a branch of Zoology or Biology concerned with the scientific study of birds.
10Q. ………………….. is dealing with the normal functions of living organisms and their parts

A. Primatology B. Herpetology C. Physiology D. Pathology E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Physiology is the branch of biology that deals with the normal functions of living organisms and their parts.

1Q. Barley, Rye, and Pearl millet belong to which of the following?

A. One plant families B. Three plant families C. Two plant families D. Four Plant families E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Wheat, Barley, Lemon, Orange, rye and pearl millet belong to Two plant families.
2Q. The kidney can be taken from a dying person who has the

A. Cessation of kidney function B. Cessation of brain function C. Cessation of heart function D. Cessation of neurological function E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Death is certified following the loss of cardiorespiratory function. The body is cooled aggressively and taken to the theatre for organ retrieval. The kidney can be taken from a dying person who has the Cessation of neurological function.
3Q. A keel is absent in which of the following?

A. Amorpha B. Chicken C. Caudal D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: A keel or carina (plural carinae) in bird anatomy is an extension of the sternum (breastbone) which runs axially along the midline of the sternum and extends outward, perpendicular to the plane of the ribs.
4Q. ………………….. is the male sex hormone

A. Leptin B. Calcitonin C. Testosterone D. Lipoprotein E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Testosterone is a steroid hormone from the androgen group and is found in humans and other vertebrates. In humans and other mammals, testosterone is secreted primarily by the testicles of males and, to a lesser extent, the ovaries of females.
5Q. The cells outer membrane made up of two layers of ………………………. With embedded proteins

A. Phosphoprotein B. Phosphocreatine C. Fatty acid D. Phospholipids E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Plasma Membrane Structure. It is the boundary, which separates the living cell from their non-living surroundings. It is the phospholipids bilayer. The plasma membrane is amphipathic, which contains both hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. It is a fluid mosaic of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates.
6Q. ………………………… is Freon

A. Difluoro Dichloro Ethane B. Difluoro Dichloro Methane C. Difluoroamines Dichloro Methane D. Difluoro Methylornithine E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: In the early 1930s, Midgley found dichlorodifluoromethane or freon to be an ideal refrigerant, replacing toxic chemicals such as ammonia and dichloromethane.
7Q. Iodoform is used as an ……………………

A. Antiseptic B. Drug C. Antipyretic D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Iodoform can also be used as an antiseptic for treating skin infections, sores, bruises, boils, burns etc. When applied on the skin, iodoform decomposes to release iodine. It is iodine which acts as the actualantiseptic, killing bacteria and fungi.
8Q. Pyroligneous acid is obtained from wood contains

A. 25% Ethanol B. 10% Acetic acid C. 20% Citric acid D. 10% Formic acid E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Pyroligneous acid, also called wood vinegar or wood acid is a dark liquid produced by the destructive distillation of wood and other plant materials. Pyroligneous acid has been used for ages as a sterilizing agent.
9Q. Polar bears hold clues for treating …………………..

A. Type II diabetes B. Skin Diseases C. Heart attack D. Kidney Failure E. Type I diabetes

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Polar bears, which pile on fat to survive hibernation and yet do not become diabetic, may also hold clues for treating Type II diabetes
10Q. Which drug is used to increase the discharge of urine?

A. Laxative B. Antacid C. Tranquiliser D. Diuretic E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The diuretic drug is used to reduce anxiety and brings about calmness.

1Q. The amoeba is a tiny ………… organism

A. One-celled B. Two-celled C. Three-celled D. Multi-Celled E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The amoeba often called amoeboid, is a type of cell or organism which has the ability to alter its shape, primarily by extending and retracting pseudopods.
2Q. Almond is related to

A. Fruit B. Seed C. Root D. Leaf E. Stem

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The edible part of an almond that we call a nut is actually a seed.
3Q. Azadirachta indica is the scientific name of

A. Jack Fruit B. Mango Tree C. Neem Tree D. Banyan Tree E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Azadirachta indica, also known as Neem, Nimtree, and Indian Lilac is a tree in the mahogany family Meliaceae.
4Q. Which of the following are the large macromolecules?

A. Vitamins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats D. Proteins E. None of these

Answer: Option D Proteins are large biomolecules or macromolecules, consisting of one or more long chains of amino acid residues. The largest amount of physical and chemical molecules present in the Protein.
5Q. …………….. is used in the biosynthesis of proteins.

A. Histidine B. Aedine C. Cytidine D. Cimetidine E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Histidine is an α-amino acid that is used in the biosynthesis of proteins.
6Q. Which of the following is excreted from our body during a process of Urination?

A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin B D. Vitamin C E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Urine is a liquid by-product of the body secreted by the kidneys through a process called urination (or micturition). Vitamin C is generally excreted through Urination.
7Q. The taste buds for “sweet” are on the ………..of the tongue A. Mid B. Tip C. Left Side D. Right Side E. Either left r right
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Taste receptors of the tongue are present in the taste buds of papillae. The taste buds for “sweet” are on the tip of the tongue; the “salt” taste buds are on either side of the front of the tongue; “sour” taste buds are behind this; and “bitter” taste buds are way in the back.
8Q. Which is best known as a plant hormone?

A. Ethylene B. Acetic acid C. Abscisic acid D. Auxin E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Abscisic acid is the stress hormone’ of plants.
9Q. Psidium guajava is the scientific name of which tree?

A. Teak B. Guava C. Apple D. Basil E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Guavas are common tropical fruits cultivated and enjoyed in many tropical and subtropical regions. Psidium guajava (common guava, lemon guava).
10Q. Charaka is related to which field of science?

A. Biology B. Chemistry C. Physics D. Astronomy E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Charaka was one of the principal contributors to the ancient art and science of Ayurveda, a system of medicine and lifestyle developed in Ancient India.

1Q. Which was the first vitamin to be produced by a fermentation process using Acetobacter?

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Vitamin C was the first vitamin to be produced during a fermentation process using Acetobacter bacteria.
2Q. Which part of fishes known as the Age of Fishes?

A. Cambrian B. Devonian C. Mesozoic D. Silurian E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: The Devonian, part of the Paleozoic era, is otherwise known as the Age of Fishes, as it spawned a remarkable variety of fish.
3Q. Viticulture is the study of

A. Grapes B. Apples C. Oranges D. Mangoes E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Viticulture is the science, production, and study of grapes. It deals with the series of events that occur in the vineyard.
4Q. The Zoological name of goat is

A. Capra aegagrus hircus B. Bos taurus C. Canis lupus D. Equus ferus caballus E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: The goat is a member of the family Bovidae and is closely related to the sheep as both are in the goat-antelope subfamily Caprinae. Scientific name: Capra aegagrus hircus, Lifespan: 15 – 18 years and Gestation period: 150 days
5Q. Vitamin D preventing calcium loss from which part of the body?

A. Heart B. Kidney C. Lungs D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Vitamin D regulates calcium levels in the blood by helping the body to absorb calcium from food and by preventing calcium loss from the kidneys.
6Q. The retina present in eye convert the image into

A. Electronic Signal B. Optical Signal C. Electrical Signal D. Digital Signal E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The photoreceptors in the retina convert the image into an electrical signal.
7Q. CAT Scanning is used for diagnostic of a body using Xray, CAT mean

A. Computerized Axis Tomography B. Computer Axial Tomography C. Control Acid Tomography D. Computerized Axial Tomography E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT) Scanning: A development of diagnostic radiology for the examination of soft tissues of the body, through the use of X-ray.
8Q. Birds excrete which of the following?

A. Carbon-di-oxide B. Uric acid C. Carbon-monoxide D. Both 1 and 2 E. Both 1 and 3

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Birds excrete carbon dioxide and uric acid. They use the lungs to excrete carbon dioxide and the kidney to excrete uric acid.
9Q. Which organ is used to the removal of excess water and salt?

A. Skin B. Liver C. Lungs D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Skin is used to the removal of excess water, salt, urea, and uric acid Lungs – removal of excess carbon dioxide Liver – produces urea and uric acid as a by-product of the breakdown of proteins.
10Q. The edible part of Walnut is

A. Root B. Stem C. Seed D. Leaf E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The walnut consists of three distinct parts. The edible portion, known as the kernel or fruit of the nut, is actually the seed of the walnut tree.

1Q.1. Young people will have ______________ taste buds

A. 1000 B. 10000 C. 100000 D. 1000000 E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The average human has about 10,000 taste buds and Young people will have 1, 00, 000 taste buds.
2Q. Albinism in humans is a congenital disorder characterized by the complete or partial absence of pigment in which parts of the human body?

A. Eyes B. Hair C. Skin D. All of these E. None of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Albinism in humans is a congenital disorder characterized by the complete or partial absence of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes.
3Q. Which of the following is a part of the endocrine system?

A. Reproductive Glands B. Pituitary gland C. Hypothalamus D. Adrenal glands E. All of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The endocrine system is the collection of glands that produce hormones that regulate metabolism, growth and development, tissue function, sexual function, reproduction, sleep, and mood, among other things. The major glands that make up the human endocrine system include the Hypothalamus, Pituitary gland, Thyroid, parathyroids, Adrenal glands, Pineal body, Reproductive glands, pancreas.
4Q. One gram of carbohydrate yields _____ calories

A. 4 B. 9 C. 6 D. 5 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Protein and carbohydrates both contain 4 calories per gram, while fat provides 9 calories per gram.
5Q. One gram of fat yields how many calories?

A. 9 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Protein and carbohydrates both contain 4 calories per gram.
6Q. While fat provides 9 calories per gram.6. Protein contains ___________ calories per gram

A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 2 E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Protein and carbohydrates both contain 4 calories per gram, while fat provides 9 calories per gram.
7Q. ____________is defined as the type of cell division that produce two identical cells from parent cells

A. Mitosis B. Fusion C. Heterosis D. Meiosis E. None of these

Answer: Option A Mitosis is a process of nuclear division in eukaryotic cells that occurs when a parent cell divides to produce two identical daughter cells.
8Q. Meiosis is a process where a single cell divides twice to produce how many cells?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 8 E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes in the parent cell by half and produces four gamete cells. This process is required to produce egg and sperm cells for sexual reproduction.
9Q. Which of the following is used as a vaccine for Tetanus?

A. Recombivax B. Toxoid C. PedvaxHIB D. Havrix E. None of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Tetanus vaccine, also known as tetanus toxoid (TT), is an inactive vaccine used to prevent tetanus.
10Q. Gastric juice is a fluid secreted by glands it contains which acid?

A. Amino acids B. Lactic acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Fatty acids E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Gastric juice is a fluid secreted by glands lining the inside of the stomach. It contains hydrochloric acid and enzymes, such as pepsin, that aid indigestion.