1._________is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India

A. PSLV B. IRNSS C. INSAT D. ISTRAC

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System – IRNSS It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India.
2. The first Indian Communication Satellite...............was launched on 19th June 1981.

A. Rohini B. Bhaskara C. Aryabhata D. APPLE

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
APPLE (Ariane Passenger Payload Experiment) launched from South America
3. .................is India’s first dedicated multi wavelength space Observatory.

A. ASTROSAT B. GEOSAT C. SLV D. MOM

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
ASTROSAT was launched on a PSLV-XL on 28 September 2015
4. The Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), informally called is India’s first Mars orbiter.

A. NISAR B. Mangalyam C. IRNSS D. GSLV – D6

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Mangalyaan – launched on 5 November 2013
5. ...............was India’s first satellite launched from Kapustin Yar using a Kosmos-3M launch vehicle.

A. Apple B. Mangalyam C. Aryabhata D. Ariane

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
6. First experimental remote sensing satellite ................ which Carried TV and microwave cameras.

A. Bhaskara-I B. Rohini – I C. GSAT D. PSLV

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
It collected data on telemetry, oceanography and hydrology.
7. India’s first mission to Moon was launched successfully on October 22, 2008 from SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota

A. ANTRIX B. Chandrayaan-1 C. INSAT D. GAGAN

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Chandrayaan-1 – spacecraft was orbiting around the Moon at a height of 100 km from the lunar surface
8. GAGAN stands for

A. GPRS Aided Geogrpahy Augmented Navigation B. General Aided GEO Augmented Narrow C. GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation D. GEO Aided GPS Augmented Navigation

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
It is an implementation of a regional satellite-based augmentation system(SBAS) by the Indian government. It is a system to improve the accuracy of a GNSS receiver
9. .................. represents ISRO’s first attempt to design and develop an operational vehicle that can be used to orbit application satellites.

A. GSLV B. SLV C. PSLV D. ASLV

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
PSLV – Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
10. ISRO was formed in ..............

A. 1963 B. 1969 C. 1972 D. 1985

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
ISRO fomed in 1969,it superseded the erstwhile Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), which was established in 1962.
11.............................was the first human to journey to outer space in 1961

A. Sailyrude B. Yuri Gagarin C. Rakesh Sharma D. Neil Armstrong

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Yuri Alekseyevich Gagarin was a Russian Soviet pilot and cosmonaut. He was the first human to journey into outer space, when his Vostok spacecraft completed an orbit of the Earth on 12 April 1961.
12. Which of the following is the first ever manned Spacecraft ?

A. Vostok-I B. Sputnik-I C. Louika D. Columbia

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Vostok 1 was the first spaceflight of the Vostok programme and the first human spaceflight in history. The Vostok 3KA space capsule was launched on April 12, 1961 from Baikonur Cosmodrome with Yuri Gagarin, making him the first human to cross into outer space.
13. .......................... was the first artificial satellite launched in space

A. Vostok-I B. Sputnik-I C. Louika D. Columbia

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Sputnik 1 was the first artificial Earth satellite. The Soviet Union launched it into an elliptical low Earth orbit on 4 October 1957.
14. Which of the living being was sent first into space?

A. Parrot B. Human C. Dog D. Cat

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
On November 3, 1957, Laika the dog rode Sputnik 2 into outer space, the first living creature to reach Earth orbit.
15. Which was the first spacecraft without man sent to space ?

A. Voskhod B. Soyuz C. Vostok D. Shenzhou

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The first unmanned flight of the spacecraft was launched on November 19, 1999, after which Project 921/1 was renamed Shenzhou, A series of three additional unmanned flights ensued.
16. Which of the following lab is the first space lab in orbit?

A. Skylab B. American Space lab C. Media-Saturn SPACELAB D. Flylab

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Skylab was a space station launched and operated by NASA and was the United States’ first space station. Skylab orbited Earth from 1973 to 1979 and included a the workshop, a solar observatory, and other systems. It was launched unmanned by a modified Saturn V rocket.
17. Who was the first Indian to travel in space?

A. Rajesh B. Rakesh Maria C. Kapil Sharma D. Rakesh Sharma

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Rakesh Sharma, AC, Hero of the Soviet Union, is a former Indian Air Force pilot who flew aboard Soyuz T-11, launched April 3, 1984, as part of the Intercosmos programme. Sharma was the first Indian to travel in space.
18. Which of the following was the first space shuttle?

A. NASA Space shuttle B. Lego Space shuttle C. Avatar Space shuttle D. Columbia Space shuttle

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Space Shuttle Columbia was the first space-rated Space Shuttle in NASA’s orbiter fleet. It launched for the first time on mission STS-1 on 12 April 1981, the first flight of the Space Shuttle program.
19. Who was an American astronaut and the first perso to walk on the Moon?

A. David Scott B. John Glenn C. Neil Armstrong D. Karen Armstrong

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Neil Alden Armstrong was an American astronaut and the first person to walk on the Moon. He was an astronaut. He flew on two space missions.
20. Father of Indian space programme is ...................................

A. Rakesh Sharma B. Vikram Sarabhai C. Sarasimman D. Vivek Narayanan

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai was an Indian scientist and innovator widely regarded as the father of India’s space programme. Sarabhai received the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Medal in 1962. The nation honored him awarding the Padma Bhushan in 1966 and Padma Vibhushan (posthumously) in 1972.

1. India’s first successful nuclear bomb test on 18 May 1974 in ..........................

A. Uttar Pradesh B. Gujarat C. Rajasthan D. Maharashtra

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Smiling Buddha (Pokhran-I) was the assigned code name of India’s first successful nuclear bomb test on 18 May 1974.The bomb was detonated on the army base, Pokhran Test Range (PTR), in Rajasthan by the Indian Army.
2. Who is known as “father of the Indian nuclear programme” ?

A. Homi Jehangir Bhabha B. A.P.J.Abdul Kalam C. Rakesh Sharma D. Vikram Sarabhai

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Homi Jehangir Bhabha is mostly known as the chief architect of India’s nuclear programme. However, his contribution to India’s development goes far beyond the sphere of atomic energy. He also known as “father of the Indian nuclear programme”.
3. ............................is the first operational remote sensing satellite of India

A. IRS 1A B. IRS P1 C. IRS 1B D. IRS 1C

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
India began to develop the indigenous Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellite program to support the national economy in the areas of agriculture, water resources, forestry and ecology, geology, water sheds, marine fisheries and coastal management.IRS 1A is the first operational remote sensing satellite.
4. Which is the world’s first dedicated educational satellite ?

A. HAMSAT B. EDUSAT C. GSAT D. RISAT

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
EDUSAT is the world’s first dedicated educational satellite, according to the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). India launched the $20 million, 2- tonne EDUSAT from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota, a tiny island in the Bay of Bengal on Sep 20, 2004.
5. The Green house gases Observing Satellite “IBUKI” (GOSAT) launched by .......................

A. Japan B. Russia C. America D. India

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The Greenhouse gases Observing Satellite “IBUKI” (GOSAT), developed jointly by the Ministry of the Environment Japan, the National Institute for Environmental Studies, and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (hereinafter the Three Parties), is the world’s first satellite designed specifically for monitoring
6. India’s first microwave remote sensing satellite ...................was injected into orbit by the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle

A. CARTOSAT-1 B. IMS-1 C. RISAT-1 D. GSAT-1

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
India’s first indigenous all-weather Radar Imaging Satellite (RISAT-1), whose images will facilitate agriculture and disaster management, was launched successfully on board the PSLV-C19The RISAT series are the first all-weather earth observation satellites from ISRO.
7. Sputnik 1 was the first artificial Earth satellite launched in .......

A. 1956 B. 1972 C. 1987 D. 1957

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Sputnik 1 was the first artificial Earth satellite. The Soviet Union launched it into an elliptical low Earth orbit on 4 October 1957
8. IRNSS mean

A. Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System B. Indian Research Navigation Satellite System C. Industrial Research Navigation Satellite System D. Indian Regional Narrow Satellite System

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System or IRNSS is an indigenously developed Navigation Satellite System that is used to provide accurate real-time positioning and timing services over India and region extending to 1500 km around India.
9. INSAT-4E is also known as...................................

A. GSAT-6 B. GSAT-10 C. GSAT-12 D. GSAT-16

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
INSAT-4E, also known as GSAT-6, is a member of the INSAT family and is a multimedia communication satellite that will offer a Satellite Digital Multimedia Broadcasting (S-DMB) service across several digital multimedia terminals or consoles which can be used to provide information services to vehicles on the fly and to the mobile phones.
10. AGILE is an X-ray and Gamma ray astronomical satellite of the ...................Space Agency

A. Russian B. Indian C. Italian D. China

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
AGILE is an X-ray and Gamma ray astronomical satellite of the Italian Space Agency. AGILE was successfully launched on 23 April 2007, from the Indian base of Sriharikota and was inserted in an equatorial orbit.
11. India’s Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme was started in ......................

A. 1990-91 B. 1980-81 C. 1982-83 D. 1997-98

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme started in 1982–83 under the leadership of A. P. J. Abdul Kalam and ended in 2008 after these strategic missiles were successfully developed. The last major missile developed under the programme was the Agni 3 intermediate-range ballistic missile.
12. The Akash’s first flight occurred in .....................

A. 2000 B. 1993 C. 1987 D. 1990

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Akash is a medium-range mobile surface-to-air missile defense system developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) for Missile Systems, Ordnance Factories Board and Bharat Electronics (BEL) for other Systems in India.
13. Trishul is a which type of missile?

A. Surface to air missile B. Air to surface missile C. Air to air missile D. Surface to surface missile

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Trishul is a short-range surface-to-air missile developed by India. It was developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation as a part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program.
14. Astra is a state of the art beyond visual range air to air missile designed for a range of

A. 40km-80km B. 20km-80km C. 10km-60km D. 30km-90km

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Astra is an active radar homing beyond-visual-range air-to- air missile (BVRAAM)developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), India. Astra is designed to be capable of engaging targets at varying range and altitudes allowing for engagement of both short-range targets (up to 20 km) and long-range targets (up to 80 km) using alternative propulsion modes.
15. Messenger is a spacecraft of which Planet?

A. Jupiter B. Mercury C. Earth D. Mars

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
MESSENGER (MErcury Surface, Space ENvironment, GEochemistry, and Ranging, and a reference to the Roman mythological messenger, Mercury) was a NASA robotic spacecraft that orbited the planet Mercury between 2011 and in 2015. The spacecraft was launched aboard a Delta II rocket in August 2004 to study Mercury’s chemical composition, geology, and magnetic field.
16. Venus Express is a spacecraft for Venus. It was launched by .................

A. ISRO B. NASA C. ESA D. NASA & ISRO

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Venus Express (VEX) was the first Venus exploration mission of the European Space Agency (ESA). Launched in November 2005, it arrived at Venus in April 2006 and began continuously sending back science data from its polar orbit around Venus.
17. ...................... is a spacecraft for SATURN planet

A. Messenger B. Juno C. Cassini D. Curiosity

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Cassini–Huygens is an unmanned spacecraft sent to the planet Saturn. It is a flagship-class NASA–ESA–ASI robotic spacecraft.Cassini is the fourth space probe to visit Saturn and the first to enter orbit, and its mission is ongoing as of 2016. It has studied the planet and its many natural satellites since arriving there in 2004.
18. GSAT -2 was launched in ......................

A. 2002 B. 2006 C. 2012 D. 2003

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
GSAT-2 was an experimental communication satellite built by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and launched on one of the first GSLVs. The satellite was positioned at 48 deg east longitude in the geo-stationary orbit.It was launched on 8th May, 2003.
19. Voyager-2 is a spacecraft for which planet ?

A. Uranus B. Neptune C. Saturn D. Venus

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The exploration of Uranus has, to date, been solely through telescopes and NASA’s Voyager 2 spacecraft, which made its closest approach to Uranus on January 24, 1986. Voyager 2 discovered 10 moons, studied the planet’s cold atmosphere, and examined its ring system, discovering two new rings.
20. India announced that it had destroyed all of its chemical weapons stocks in ...............

A. 2004 B. 2009 C. 1998 D. 1989

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
India informed the United Nations in May 2009 that it had destroyed its stockpile of chemical weapons in compliance with the international Chemical Weapons Convention. With this India has become third country after South Korea and Albania to do so.

1. SHAR centre is located in ..........................

A. Rajasthan B. Andhra Pradesh C. Madhya Pradesh D. Maharashtra

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Satish Dhawan Space Centre or Sriharikota High Altitude Range is a rocket launch center operated by Indian Space Research Organisation. It is located in Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
2. In ........................ the Sriharikota Space Centre was renamed as Prof. Satish Dhawan Space Centre

A. 1998 B. 2000 C. 2002 D. 2008

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
In 2002 the Sriharikota Space Centre was renamed as Prof. Satish Dhawan Space Centre.
3. Space Application Centre(SAC) is ISRO’s research and development center for conceiving, organizing and building systems for practical applications of space technology located in ....................

A. Mysore B. Bangalore C. Ahmedabad D. Thiruvananthapuram

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Space Application Centre(SAC) is ISRO’s research and development center for conceiving, organizing and building systems for practical applications of space technology located in Ahmedabad.
4. Master Control Facility is located in ....................

A. Kerala B. Karnataka C. Rajasthan D. Madhya Pradesh

Answer: Option B and D
Explanation:
Master Control Facility (MCF) at Hassan in Karnataka and Bhopal in Madhya Pradesh monitors and controls all the Geostationary/Geosynchronous satellites of ISRO, namely, INSAT, GSAT, Kalpana and IRNSS series of satellites.
5. NRSA is .................................

A. National Regulatory of Special Agency B. National Regional Service Agency C. National Remote Satellite Agency D. National Remote Sensing Agency

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
National Remote Sensing Centre or NRSC, located at Hyderabad is one of the centers of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), striving to realize the Indian Space Vision, as a key player in Earth Observation Programme and Disaster Management Support programme.
6. CNSA is the national space Agency of .....................

A. China B. Chile C. Canada D. Cambodia

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The China National Space Administration (CNSA) is the national space agency of the People’s Republic of China. It is responsible for the national space program and for planning and development of space activities.
7. ......................... is the national space agency of Japan

A. JASA B. JXAX C. JAXA D. JSRO

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency ) is the National Research and Development Agency on Aerospace Research and Development”), or JAXA, is Japan’s national aero-space agency. Through the merger of three previously independent organizations, JAXA was formed on 1 October 2003.
8. Which of the following centre is located at Dehradun ?

A. IIRS B. NE-SAC C. LPSC D. VSSC

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The Indian Institute of Remote Sensing is a premier institute for research, higher education and training in the field of Remote Sensing, Geoinformatics and GPS Technology for Natural Resources, Environmental and Disaster Management under the Indian Department of Space, which was established in the year 1966. It is located at Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
9. Regional Remote Sensing Service Centre(RRSSCs) is not located at ....................

A. Jodhpur B. Nagpur C. Kolkata D. Ahmedabad

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Five Regional Remote Sensing Service Centres (RRSSCs) established under National Natural Resources Management System (NNRMS) by DOS at Bangalore, Jodhpur, Kharagpur (recently relocated to Kolkata), Dehradun and Nagpur have been integrated with NRSC and renamed as Regional Remote Sensing Centres (RRSCs) South, West, East, North and Central respectively on December 2, 2009.
10. National Atmospheric Research Laboratory(NARL) is located at .......................

A. Umiam B. Gadanki C. Dehradun D. hiruvananthapuram

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
NARL at Gadanki near Tirupati is an autonomous society supported by Department of Space.
11. The brightest planet is ....................

A. Venus B. Mars C. Neptune D. Saturn

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Venus is so bright because its thick clouds reflect most of the sunlight that reaches it (about 70%) back into space, and because it is the closest planet to Earth.
12. .................... planet has rings on four sides

A. Mercury B. Saturn C. Jupiter D. Uranus

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Saturn is the sixth planet from the Sun and the second- largest in the Solar System, after Jupiter. It is a gas giant with an average radius about nine times that of Earth.It has rings on four sides.
13. Which is the nearest planet from the earth?

A. Earth B. Mars C. Venus D. Saturn

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Venus would be the closest planet to Earth. On rare occasions, Mercury can be the closest planet.
14. .................. is the coldest body of our Solar system

A. Pluto B. Neptune C. Saturn D. Uranus

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Pluto is one of the coldest large bodies in the solar system. But despite the fact that it lies so far away. Pluto can reach temperatures of minus 369 degrees Fahrenheit (minus 223 degrees Celsius).
15. Which planet take maximum time to revolve around the Sun?

A. Venus B. Mars C. Jupiter D. Earth

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Jupiter, the solar system’s largest planet, takes 4,331.572 days to orbit around the sun, but the fast turning planet only takes 9.8 hours to completely rotate on its axis.
16. .................. planet moves from east to west

A. Venus B. Uranus C. Earth D. Mercury

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
All the Planets Spin West To East, Except Venus.
17. Which of the following emits green light?

A. Uranus B. Saturn C. Jupiter D. Venus

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Uranus is the seventh planet from the Sun and is the third largest in the Solar System. Methane in the upperthe atmosphere absorbs red light, giving Uranus its blue- green color.
18. .......................... spins on its axis at the fastest rate

A. Pluto B. Jupiter C. Mars D. Mercury

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Jupiter spins faster than any other planet, taking a little under 10 hours to complete a turn on its axis, compared with 24 hours for Earth.
19. The fastest planet in the Solar system is .......................

A. Venus B. Saturn C. Mercury D. Uranus

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Mercury is the closest planet to the sun. The surface of Mercury can reach temperatures of 460 degrees Celsius. Mercury is the fastest-moving planet in the solar system.
20. .......................... is also known as the red planet

A. Venus B. Jupiter C. Uranus D. Mars

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Mars is often called the ‘Red Planet’ because it appears in the sky as an orange-red color.

1. ................... is the largest natural satellite in the solar system

A. Eris B. Haumea C. Ganymede D. Charon

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Ganymede is the largest moon of Jupiter and in the Solar System, and the only moon known to have a magnetosphere. It is the seventh satellite outward from Jupiter.
2. The family of stars with which the Sun is related is ...............

A. Supernova B. Nysa C. Draco D. Cosmo

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A supernova is an explosion of a massive supergiant star. It may shine with the brightness of 10 billion suns. The total energy output may be 1044 joules.
3. Who was the first to view the Milky Way galaxy ?

A. Newton B. Sidereus Nuncius C. Ptolemy D. Galileo Galilei

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Galileo first studied the Milky Way through his telescope in January, 1610
4. ................ is credited with the expounding of the theory of black holes

A. Albert Einstein B. David Finkelstein C. S. Chandrashekar D. Robert Oppenheimer

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The theory of general relativity predicts that a sufficiently compact mass can deform spacetime to form a black hole.In 1931, Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar calculated, using special relativity, that a non-rotating body of electron- degenerate matter above a certain limiting mass has no stable solutions.
5. Cassini Spacecraft related to .................

A. Saturn B. Pluto C. Mars D. Venus

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Cassini–Huygens is an unmanned spacecraft sent to the planet Saturn. It is a flagship-class NASA–ESA–ASI robotic spacecraft.Cassini is the fourth space probe to visit Saturn and the first to enter orbit, and its mission is ongoing as of 2016.
6. The transit of Venus was seen on 8th June 2004. This Celestial event took place after a gap of ....................

A. 100 years B. 122 years C. 125 years D. 90 years

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The Transit of Venus took place on 8th June 2004 after a gap of 122 years. The rare celestial event was utilized by Vigyan Prasar as an opportunity to undertake large-scale science communication.
7. The brightness of the star indicates its .....................

A. Power B. Radiation C. Temperature D. Humidity

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The brightness of the star dependent upon the temperature of the star and the surface area of the star
8. Astronomer have determined the approximate age of Sun to be

A. [latex]{10}^{8}[/latex] years B. [latex]{10}^{9}[/latex]years C. [latex]{10}^{12}[/latex]years D. [latex]{10}^{10}[/latex]years

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The Sun formed about 4.6 billion years(approx [latex]{10}^{10}[/latex]years) ago from the collapse of part of a giant molecular cloud that consisted mostly of hydrogen and helium and that probably gave birth to many other stars.
9. Asteroids move around the Sun in between .........................................

A. Mars and Earth B. Mars and Jupiter C. Venus and Mars D. Neptune and Saturn

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Most asteroids orbit between Mars and Jupiter in the Main Asteroid Belt
10. Which planet of the solar system is as big as the Earth ?

A. Jupiter B. Mars C. Venus D. Saturn

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Venus is the second planet from the Sun and the sixth largest. Venus is as big as earth Venus probably once had large amounts of water like Earth but it all boiled away.
11. The Sea of Tranquility situated on the ........................

A. Moon B. Sun C. Earth D. Venus

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The Sea of Tranquility is a dark spot located in the northern hemisphere of the Moon. The sea is not a body of water but a lower-altitude plain.
12. Cosmos 2406 is a Russian expedition to .........................

A. Jupiter B. Mars C. Jupiter D. Venus

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Cosmos 2406 is a Russian military satellite to Mars that was launched from Baikonur by a Zenit 2 rocket at 01:28 UT on 10 June 2004. The satellite was reported to be a new Tselina-2 electronic intelligence satellite.
13. Which planets do not have their own satellite?

A. Venus B. Jupiter C. Mercury D. Both A and C

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Only Mercury and Venus do not have any moons
14. ..................... is also known as the evening star

A. Jupiter B. Venus C. Mars D. Saturn

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
One of the nicknames of Venus is “the Morning Star”. It’s also known as the Evening Star.
15. The Altitude of the geostationary satellite is ................

A. 3600km B. 2200km C. 1700km D. 4000km

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Geosynchronous orbits have altitudes up to 3600 km.
16. The distance of separation between two points in the space is known as ....................

A. Asteroids B. Nebula C. Orion D. Perihelion

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The distance of separation between two points in the space is known as Orion.It is a prominent constellation located on the celestial equator and visible throughout the world.
17. Pulsar is a ..............................

A. Spacecraft B. Moon C. Planet D. Star

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A pulsar (short for pulsating radio star) is a highly magnetized, rotating neutron star that emits a beam of electromagnetic radiation.
18. ................... is also known as shooting star

A. Zodiac B. Comet C. Meteors D. All of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Meteors, or shooting stars as they are more commonly known, are the streaks of light produced when a meteoroid burns up in the Earth’s atmosphere.
19. The closest planet to the sun is ................

A. Mars B. Mercury C. Earth D. Venus

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Mercury is the smallest planet in the Solar System and the one closest to the Sun, with an orbital period of about 88 Earth days, which is much faster than any other planet in the Solar System.
20. ................... is the hottest planet in the solar system

A. Venus B. Mars C. Jupiter D. Saturn

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The hottest planet in our solar system is Venus.It is the second closest planet to the Sun.

1. The Study of Universe is known as ...............

A. Cosmology B. Theology C. Graphology D. Selenology

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Cosmology is the study of the origin, evolution, and eventual fate of the universe.
2. .................. is the latest known galaxy

A. Milky Way B. Dwarf Galaxy C. Andromeda D. Nebulae

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A dwarf galaxy is a small galaxy composed of up to several billion stars
3. Which of the following is the terrestrial planet ?

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth and Mars D. All of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The four inner planets: Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. Known as the terrestrial planets
4. A ninth planet has been recently discovered by NASA named as .....................

A. Sterla B. Cyrus C. Tyche D. Carla

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A ninth planet has been recently discovered by NASA named as Carla.
5. ............................ is also known as the Blue planet.

A. Earth B. Mars C. Venus D. Jupiter

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Planet Earth has been called the “Blue Planet” due to the abundant water on its surface.
6. Selenology is the study of .....................

A. Earth B. Satellite C. Moon D. Planet

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Selenography is the study of the surface and physical features of the Moon.
7. Titan is the largest satellite of .........................

A. Mars B. Jupiter C. Uranus D. Saturn

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Titan (or Saturn VI) is the largest moon of Saturn. It is the only natural satellite is known to have a dense atmosphere, and the only object other than Earth.
8. Neptune is surrounded by ................. rings of sub zero temperature

A. Methane B. Ethane C. Methylene D. Hydrogen and Nitrogen

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The clouds farthest from Neptune’s surface consist mainly of frozen methane.
9. Which Planet is also known as Winter planet ?

A. Venus B. Jupiter C. Uranus D. Mars

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Jupiter is called winter planet because Jupiter is visible all night long in our winter skies
10. ............................... is the first planet to have been discovered by the use of a telescope

A. Venus B. Saturn C. Earth D. Uranus

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Uranus is the seventh planet from the Sun. It’s not visible to the naked eye, and became the first planet discovered with the use of a telescope.
11. Prithvi-II for the ............................

A. Indian Army B. Indian Air Force C. Indian Navy D. All of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Prithvi-II(Sanskrit: pṛthvī “Earth”) is a tactical surface-to- surface short-range ballistic missile (SRBM) developed by DRDO of India under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP). It is deployed by India’s Strategic Forces Command. It was developed with the Indian Air Force is the primary user.
12. Dhanush developed for the which of the following?

A. Indian Army B. Indian Air Force C. Indian Navy D. All of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Dhanush (Sanskrit: “Bow”) is a variant of the surface to- surface/ship-to-ship Prithvi III missile, which has been developed for the Indian Navy.
13. Barak-8 is a long-range anti-air and anti-missile naval defence system being developed jointly by ........................ and DRDO

A. JAXA B. SpaceX C. ISRO D. IAI

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Barak-8 is a long-range anti-air and anti-missile naval defence system being developed jointly by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI) and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India.
14. Akash is a mid-range ............................. missile

A. Surface to Surface B. Air to Air C. Surface to Air D. Air to Surface

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Akash (sky) is a mid-range surface-to-air missile (SAM). It is medium range nuclear capable supersonic missile. Indigenously developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) under the Integrated Guided-Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
15. The world’s first robot lawyer named............... has been employed by a US law firm BakerHostetler.

A. GERTY B. ROSS C. BOSS D. CLANK

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The world’s first robot lawyer named ‘ROSS’ has been employed by a US law firm Baker Hostetler. The ‘ROSS’ the robot is built upon IBM’s cognitive computer Watson. It will function using Watson’s cognitive computing and natural language processing capabilities.
16. Who developed the World’s first water-based computer along with his team?

A. Nitya Anand B. Harish Chandra C. Anna Mani D. Manu Prakash

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Manu Prakash, an Indian-origin scientist, who is also credited with the discovery of the paper microscope, only last year has once again stunned the world by developing the World’s first water-based computer along with his team, as published in the journal Nature Physics.
17. Which is is a large telescope in space?

A. Hubble Space Telescope B. Kepler Space Telescope C. Spitzer Space Telescope D. James Webb Space Telescope

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The Hubble Space Telescope is a large telescope in space. NASA launched Hubble in 1990. Hubble is as long as a large school bus.
18. Olympus Mons is a very large shield volcano on which Planet?

A. Saturn B. Earth C. Jupiter D. Mars

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Olympus Mons is a very large shield volcano on the planet Mars. By one measure, it has a height of nearly 25 km (16 mi). Olympus Mons stands almost three times as tall as Mount Everest’s height above sea.
19. The first digital and programmable robot was invented by

A. Jerome Pearson B. George Devol C. Richard Baerwald D. Herbert Lochs

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The first digital and programmable robot was invented by George Devol in 1954 and was named the Unimate. It was sold to General Motors in 1961 where it was used to lift pieces of hot metal from die casting machines at the Inland Fisher Guide Plant in the West Trenton section of Ewing Township, New Jersey
20. Prithvi-I missile was inducted into the .................. in 1994

A. Indian Army B. Indian Air Force C. Indian Navy D. All of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Prithvi (Sanskrit: pṛthvī “Earth”) is a tactical surface-to- surface short-range ballistic missile.This class of Prithvi missile was inducted into the Indian Army in 1994.

1. A magnetic needle in compass always direct in which direction?

A. North-South B. South – North C. East – West D. West – East

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
In Magnetic compass, a magnetic needle which always direct in North-South (N-S) direction.
2. Static friction is _____________ Kinetic Friction

A. same as B. Lesser than C. Equal to D. Greater than

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Static friction is greater than kinetic friction because of irregularities between the static object and the surface upon which it rests. The irregularities mesh together making it more difficult to start movement than to keep the object in motion
3. Fleming’s left-hand rule is applicable for which of the following ?

A. Electric Generators B. Electric motors C. Electric Fans D. Electric Lights

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
In an electric motor, the electric current and magnetic field exist (which are the causes), and they lead to the force that creates the motion (which is the effect), and so the left hand rule is used.
4. X-rays travel in_________________and a beam of X- rays diverges from its source.

A. Opposite direction B. Can’t say C. Straight line D. Circle

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
X-rays are electromagnetic waves with a wavelength range 0.1 A-100 A.X-rays were discovered by Roentgen and X-rays travels in straight line.
5. In ophthalmoscope which mirror is used to examine eye, ear, nose by doctors.

A. Convex mirror B. Spherical Mirrors C. Plane mirrors D. Concave mirror

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
In ophthalmoscope concave mirror is used to examine the eye, ear, nose by doctors. The concave mirror is used in a shaving mirror and also used as a reflector for the headlights of a the vehicle, searchlight
6. The density of sea water is _________ the density of fresh water

A. Lesser than B. Equal to C. Greater than D. Can’t say

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Salt water is denser than fresh, salt water provides more buoyancy there is even differences from the pacific ocean and the Atlantic
7. The density of pure water is _________________

A. 100 kg/[latex]{m}^{3}[/latex] B. 1000 kg/[latex]{m}^{3}[/latex] C. 2000 kg/[latex]{m}^{3}[/latex] D. 1500 kg/[latex]{m}^{3}[/latex]

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The density of pure water is 1000 kg/m3. Ocean water is more dense because of the salt in it. Density of ocean water at the sea surface is about 1027 kg/[latex]{m}^{3}[/latex].
8. The Upthrust is a which type of force ?

A. Upward force B. Downward force C. Frictional Force. D. Applied force

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Upthrust is defined as the upward force on the object provided by the liquid because the object has “displaced” some of the fluid.
9. Thermionic emission occurs when the metal is _______________

A. Heated at very high temperature B. Heated at high temperature C. Cooled at very low temperature D. All of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The process by which free electrons are emitted from the surface of a metal when external heat energy is applied is called thermionic emission. Thermionic emission occurs in metals that are heated to a very high temperature.
10. Which rule is applicable for Generators ?

A. Fleming’s right-hand rule B. Centrifugal force C. Kirchhoff’s circuit laws D. Fleming’s right-hand rule

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Fleming’s right-hand rule (for generators) shows the direction of induced current when a conductor moves in a magnetic field. It can be used to determine the direction of current in a generator’s windings.
11. The............... acid is present in lemon

A. Tartaric acid B. Citric Acid C. Lactic Acid D. Malic acid

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Lemon contains 5% to 6% citric acid which gives a sour taste. Lemon – Citrus(Scientific name)
12. Which of the following metal is present in hemoglobin?

A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Iron D. Vitamin – C

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
In hemoglobin ,the proteins α and β subunits are in red and blue and the iron-containing heme groups in green. It is involved in the transport of other gases.
13. The chemical name of Vitamin A is .................................

A. Niacin B. Riboflavin C. Biotin D. Retinol

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Vitamin A – Retinol is the chemical name of Vitamin A Deficiency Disease – Night blindness, Keratomalacia
14. Grapes contain which of the following acid ?

A. Amino acid B. Citric acid C. Tartaric acid D. Malic acid

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Tartaric acid is also present in bananas, and tamarinds. Vitis vinifera – Scientific name of grapes
15. Human bone contain which of the following?

A. Potassium B. Oxygen C. Carbon-di-oxide D. Carbon

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Human bone contains calcium, carbon, phosphorous.
16. .................. is a form of chemical bonding that is characterized by the sharing of electrons between 2 atoms

A. Coordinate Bond B. Covalent Bond C. Chemical Bond D. Ionic Bond

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Bond may be single /double /triple depend upon the number of sharing electrons
17. pH value of rainwater is ..............

A. 6.5-7.5 B. 7.5 C. 6.0 D. 4.8 – 8.4

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
pH value is a measure of acidity or basicity of a solution.
18. The process of conversion of a liquid into vapors at any temperature below its boiling point is called ................................

A. Melting B. Condensation C. Sublimation D. Evaporation

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Evaporation is a fundamental part of the water cycle and is constantly occurring throughout nature.
Ex: Water –Boiling – gas
19. All atoms of the same element have the same number of...............

A. Protons B. Neutrons C. Electrons D. Protons and Neutrons

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
All atoms of the same element have the same number of protons. This number is used to arrange the elements in the periodic table, beginning with hydrogen
20. Malic acid is present in which of the following fruit ?

A. Apple B. Lemon C. Orange D. Goya

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Apple production – China, US and Italy Malus Domestica – Apple scientific name

1. The sum of number of protons and number of neutrons is called as ................

A. Atomic Number B. Mass number C. Quantum number D. Spin quantum number

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
[latex]{C}_{12}[/latex] – 12 is the mass number.
2. Isotones have ................... numbers of neutrons

A. Same B. Different C. Maximum D. Minimum

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Isotones have same numbers of neutrons.
3. .............................. have same atomic number but different mass number

A. Isobars B. Isotones C. Isotropics D. Isotopes

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Isotopes have same atomic number but different mass number.
4. Azimuthal Quantum Number(l) has values ....................

A. 0 to n B. n-1 C. n D. 0 to n-1

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Azimuthal Quantum Number(l) has values 0 to n-1 It describes the subshells and orbital angular momentum of each electron.
5. Ionisation energy is the energy required to remove an ...................... from the outermost shell of an isolated gaseous atom.

A. Both electron and Proton B. Nuetron C. Proton D. Electron

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Ionisation energy is the energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of an isolated gaseous atom.It is increases along a period from left to right and decreases along a group on moving downwards
6. Sea water contains pH value in the range of ..........................

A. 8.5 B. 7 C. 6.5-7.5 D. 10.5

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The acidity of the acidic water is represented by pH value. The neutral fresh water has a pH value of 7 and Saltwater 8.5
7. Spin Quantum number have the values lies in the range of ................

A. -1/2 B. 1/2 C. 0 to 1/2 D. +1/2 or -1/2

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Spin Quantum number(S) = +1/2 or -1/2 It describes the spin of each electron.
8. E = hv is known as ............................ theory

A. Planck’s Quantum Theory B. Niels Bohr Model C. De-Brpgile Concept D. Quantum Theory

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The energy of a quantum is proportional to its frequency
E = hv
H = planck’s constant = 6.626×[latex]{10}^{-34}[/latex] Js
9. Isobars have the ....................... mass number but ................. atomic number

A. Different, Same B. Same, Same C. Same, Different D. Maximum, Minimum

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Isobars are atoms (nuclides) of different chemical elements that have the same number of nucleons.
10. Tomato contains which of the following acid?

A. Malic acid B. Citric acid C. Oxalic acid & Lactic acid D. All A,B and C

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Potatoes contain malic, citric, oxalic, phosphoric and pyroglutamic acids.
11. ............................. is the process of conversion of the solid phase to gas phase without passing an intermediate liquid phase

A. Evaporation B. Oxidation C. Sublimation D. Condensation

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Sublimation is the process of conversion of the solid phase to gas phase without passing an intermediate liquid phase.This process is used to separate a sublimate particles from non sublimate.
12. Elements contain only ..................... type of atoms

A. Single B. Many C. Same D. Different

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Elements contain only single type of atoms. Presently there are 118 atoms. Out of which 94 are natural Ex of the element: Oxygen, Sulphur etc.
13. Elements have the following order of abundance in earth crust

A. Calcium<Silicon<Aluminium<Oxygen<Iron B. Oxygen<Silicon<Aluminium<Iron<Calcium C. Silicon>Aluminium>Iron>Oxygen>Calcium D. Oxygen>Silicon>Aluminium>Iron>Calcium

Answer: Option D
14. Elements have the following order of abundance in human body

A. Nitrogen>Calcium<Carbon<Oxygen B. Oxygen>Carbon>Hydrogen>Nitrogen C. Hydrogen>Oxygen>Magnesium>Carbon D. Oxygen<Carbon<Hydrogen<Nitrogen

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Elements have the following order of abundance in human body Oxygen>Carbon>Hydrogen>Nitrogen
15. ................ contain more than one kind of atoms

A. Substance B. Elements C. Compounds D. Atom

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Compounds contain more than one kind of atoms. These can’t be separated into constituent atoms by simple methods.
Ex: Silica, Salt
16. Avogadro’s number is ................................

A. 3.025×1024 B. 4.023×1026 C. 5.020×1025 D. 6.023×1023

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
1 mol atom = 6.023×1023 atoms – Avogadro’s number It states that the number of molecules present in 12g of C- 12 is called one mol
17. Which does not exist in a free state?

A. Atom B.. Molecule C. Compound D. Mixture

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Atom does not exist in the free state. Atom is the smallest the particle of matter that takes part in a chemical reaction
18. A solution contains 2 components. Which is in less quantity is called as

A. Substance B.. Solvent C. Solution D. Solute

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A solution contains 2 components. Which is in less quantity is called as Solute
Ex: The salt is the solute and the water the solvent
In such a mixture, a solute is a substance dissolved in another substance, known as a solvent.
19. A solution contains 2 components. Which is in more quantity is called as

A. Substance B.. Solvent C. Solution D. Solute

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A solution contains 2 components. Which is in more quantity is called as Solvent The salt is the solute and the water the solvent. In such a mixture, a solute is a substance dissolved in another substance, known as a solvent.
20. ..................... is the only atom in which neutrons are not present

A. Carbon B.. Oxygen C. Hydrogen D. Helium

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Normal hydrogen (H) atom does not have any neutrons in its tiny nucleus. It has only one electron and one proton.

1. A pearl is composed of ..............................

A. Calcium Carbonate B.. Carbon-di-oxide C. Carbon D. Calcium Oxide

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Pearl like the shell of a clam, a pearl is composed of calcium carbonate(CaC[latex]{O}_{3}[/latex] in minute crystalline form, which has been deposited in concentric layers.
2. Electron affinity is defined as the ............................... when an extra electron is added to an atom

A. Ionised energy B.. Energy Liberated C. Electron Added D. Electron Combined

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Electron affinity is defined as the Energy Liberated when an extra electron is added to an atom or the change in energy (in kJ/mole) of a neutral atom (in the gaseous phase) when an electron is added to the atom to form a negative ion.
3. Which is used in brain imaging ?

A. Carbon-14 B.. Iodine-131 C. Iodine-123 D. Sodium-24

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Iodine-123 is a radioactive isotope of iodine used in nuclear medicine imaging, including single photon emission computed tomography and X-ray computed tomography scans.
4. .............................. are positively charged helium nuclei

A. Alpha Particle B.. Beta Particle C. Gamma Rays D. Atom Bomb

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
An alpha particle is a fast moving packet containing two protons and two neutrons (a helium nucleus). Alpha particles carry a charge of +2 and strongly interact with matter. Produced during alpha decay, alpha particles can travel only a few inches through air and can be easily stopped with a sheet of paper.
5. Which of the following has high penetrating power ?

A. Beta Particle B.. Alpha Particle C. All of the above D. Gamma Rays

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Gamma rays are ionizing radiation, and are thus biologically hazardous. Decay of an atomic nucleus from a high energy state to a lower energy state, a process called gamma decay, produces gamma radiation.
6. Beta particles are ......................... charged electrons

A. Positively B.. Negatively C. Neutral D. Both 1 and 2

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Beta particles are just electrons from the nucleus.The high energy electrons have greater range of penetration than alpha particles, but still much less than gamma rays.
7. Which of the following is used for the treatment of Cancer ?

A. Phosphorus-32 B.. Cobalt-32 C. Carbon-14 D. Cobalt-60

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Cobalt-60 is a synthetic radioactive isotope of cobalt with a half-life of 5.2714 years. It is produced artificially in nuclear reactors. Cobalt therapy, using beams of gamma rays from 60[latex]{C}_{0}[/latex] teletherapy machines to treat cancer, has been widely used since the 1950s.
8. ................................ is used to trace the flow of blood

A. Sodium-60 B.. Iodine-131 C. Sodium – 24 D. Phoshorous-32

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Sodium-24 is one of the most important isotopes. It is radioactive and created from common sodium-23 by neutron bombardment. Measurements of its quantity are used to determine the absorbed radiation dose of the patient. This is used to determine the level of medical treatment required.
9. Phosphorous-32 is used for ..............................

A. To trace the location of stone B.. Used for Leukemia therapy C. Treatment of Cancer D. Used in Brain Imaging

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Phosphorus-32 is a radioactive isotope of phosphorus. The nucleus of phosphorus-32 contains 15 protons and 17 neutrons.P.32 is used as a tracer in studies of themetabo lism of nucleic acids and phospholipids, and also used in the treatment of certain diseases of the osseous and hematopoietic systems.
10. Which is used for diagnosis of coronary artery disease other heart conditions ?

A. Selenium-75 B.. Thallium-201 C. Carbon-11 D. Iridium-192

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Thallium-201 Used for diagnosis of coronary artery disease other heart conditions such as heart muscle death and for location of low-grade lymphomas.
11. Diamond is a/an.........................

A. Insulator B.. Conductor C. Semiconductor D. All of these

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Most diamonds are electrical insulators but extremely efficient thermal conductors. Diamond is a good conductor of heat because of the strong covalent bonding and low phonon scattering.
12. Graphite is a/an ....................

A. Insulator B.. Conductor C. Semiconductor D. All of these

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Graphite is a mineral composed exclusively of the element carbon. Graphite is a conductor of electricity.
13. ................. is the process of heating the oxides of elements with cock and flux above their melting point

A. Refining B.. Oxidation C. Roasting D. Smelting

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Smelting is the process of heating the oxides of elements with cock and flux above their melting point.
14. Metal with lowest density is........................

A. Copper B.. Magnesium C. Lithium D. Tungsten

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Li density is 0.53 g.cm -3 at [latex]{20}^{0}[/latex] C. Lithium is the first of the alkalis in the periodic table. In nature it’s found like a mixture of the isotopes Li6 and Li7. It’s the lightest solid metal, it’s soft, silvery-white, with a low melting point and reactive.
15 ......................... is the metal having the highest melting point

A. Magnesium B.. Tungsten C. Barium D. Aluminium

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Tungsten has the highest melting point ([latex]{3422}^{0}[/latex] C, [latex]{6912}^{0}[/latex] F), lowest vapor pressure (at temperatures above [latex]{1650}^{0}[/latex] C, [latex]{3000}^{0}[/latex] 0F) and the highest tensile strength.
16. Which metal is first used by man ?

A. Nickel B.. Magnesium C. Copper D. Aluminium

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Copper was the first metal used by man due to it’s low forging heat, but was replaced relatively quickly due to durability issues.
17. ...................... is called strategic metal

A. Ni B.. Cu C. Si D. Ti

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Titanium is called a strategic metal because the metal and its alloys are used in aerospace, marine equipment, aircraft frames, chemical industries and chemical reactors.
18. Most poisonous metal is ..............................

A. Plutonium B.. Chromium C. Polonium D. Arsenic

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Plutonium with an atomic number of 94.Pu gives off alpha, beta and gamma radiation.
19. The..................noble gases are found in group 18 of the periodic table.

A. Eight B.. Six C. Seven D. Nine

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The six noble gases are found in group 18 of the periodic table. These elements are Helium, Neon, Argon, Krypton, Xenon, Radon.
20. Which statement is true ?

A. All ores are minerals B.. All minerals are not ores C. All ores are not minerals & All minerals are ores D. Both A and B

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Metals and their compounds are found in earth as natural elements known as minerals. Ores are minerals from which metals are extracted at low cost with minimum effort. Ores contains metal compounds with a percentage of impurities. All the ores are minerals, but all the minerals are not ores.

1. Which acid is responsible for the digestion ?

A. C[latex]{H}_{3}[/latex]COOH B.. HCl C. HN[latex]{0}_{3}[/latex] D. [latex]{H}_{2}[/latex]S[latex]{O}_{4}[/latex]

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Hydrochloric acid, also called HCl, is a clear, highly corrosive liquid. HCl is one of the many chemicals released in our stomach when we eat a meal. The role of hydrochloric acid in the stomach, along with the other gastric juices, is to break down foods and cause the release of enzymes that further aid digestion.
2. Sulphuric acid is also known as ..........................

A. Oil of Vitriol B.. Blue Vitriol C. Water Vitriol D. Acid Vitriol

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Later, in 18th century Europe, there were two processes in use by which sulfuric acid was made. One was by distilling green vitriol (ferrous sulfate) and collecting the acid vapors evolved, a method which gave the acid its early name ‘oil of vitriol. – Highly concentrated sulfuric acid has an oily appearance.
3. ..........................is used in vinegar, medicines and as a solvent

A. Sulphuric Acid B.. Nitric Acid C. Hydrochloric Acid D. Acetic Acid

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Acetic acid(C[latex]{H}_{3}[/latex]COOH) named as ethanoic acid is an organic compound with the chemical formula CH3COOH. It is a colourless liquid that when undiluted is also called glacial acetic acid.
4. What is the chemical name of Lime ?

A. Calcium Nitrate B.. Calcium Carbonate C. Calcium Oxide D. Calcium Sulphate

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Calcium oxide, commonly known as quicklime or burnt lime, is a widely used chemical compound. It is a white, caustic, alkaline, crystalline solid at room temperature.
5. Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate is the chemical name of ...............................

A. Baking Soda B.. Washing Soda C. Bleaching Powder D. Common Salt

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Sodium bicarbonate is a chemical compound with the formula NaHC[latex]{O}_{3}[/latex]. It is a salt composed of sodium ions and bicarbonate ions. Sodium bicarbonate is a white solid that is crystalline but often appears as a fine powder.
6. Which of the following is also known as Common Salt ?

A. N[latex]{a}_{2}[/latex]C[latex]{O}_{3}[/latex] B.. NaCl C. NaHC[latex]{O}_{3}[/latex] D. N[latex]{a}_{2}[/latex]S[latex]{O}_{4}[/latex]

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Sodium chloride also known as salt or halite, is an ionic compound with the chemical formula NaCl, representing a 1:1 ratio of sodium and chloride ion.
7. If pH value of the solution is 7 then the solution is ............................

A. Acidic Solution B.. Basic Solution C. Neutral Solution D. All of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Solutions with a pH less than 7 are acidic and solutions with a pH greater than 7 are basic. Pure water is neutral, being neither an acid nor a base
8. The Solution of pH value is .................................. then it is called as Basic solution

A. Equal to 7 B.. Greater than 7 C. Lesser than 7 D. Equal to 1

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Solutions with a pH less than 7 are acidic and solutions with a pH greater than 7 are basic. Pure water is neutral, being neither an acid nor a base.
9. Blue Vitriol is used to test the presence of water.Blue Vitriol is

A. Calcium Oxide B.. Sulphuric Acid C. Sodium Oxide D. Copper Sulphate

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Copper sulfate, also known as cupric sulfate or copper sulphate, is the inorganic compound with the chemical formula CuSO4. Other names for copper(II) sulfate are “blue vitriol” and “bluestone”.
10. In acidic solution the pH value should be .............................

A. Equal to 7 B.. Greater than 7 C. Lesser than 7 D. Equal to 1

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Solutions with a pH less than 7 are acidic and solutions with a pH greater than 7 are basic. Pure water is neutral, being neither an acid nor a base
11. Battery is an arrangement of one or more cells connected in .....................

A. Series B.. Parallel C. Both 1 and 2 D. a fixed manner

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
An electric battery is a device consisting of two or more electrochemical cells connected in series that convert stored chemical energy into electrical energy.
12. Rechargeable batteries are called as .......................

A. Primary batteries B.. Secondary batteries C. Fuel cell D. Electrochemical cell

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A secondary battery is a portable voltaic cell that is rechargeable.Ex – Lead storage battery
13. Which of the following is an example of primary batteries ?

A. Nickel-Cadmium battery B.. Lead storage battery C. Dry cell D. All of these

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A primary battery is a portable voltaic cell that is not rechargeable. Ex- Dry cell
14. Carbon is a member of group .................... in the periodic table.

A. 5 B.. 8 C. 11 D. 14

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Carbon is a member of group 14 in the periodic table.
15. ................................ is a process in metallurgy in which a sulfide ore is heated in air

A. Oxidation B.. Rosting C. Rusting D. Reduction

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Roasting is a process in metallurgy in which a sulfide ore is heated in air.The process may convert a metal sulfide to a metal oxide or to a free metal.
Example: Roasting ZnS may yield ZnO
16. .................... converts into poisonous when exposed to sunlight

A. [latex]{C}_{3}[/latex][latex]{H}_{8}[/latex][latex]{O}_{3}[/latex] B.. CHC[latex]{L}_{3}[/latex] C. HCOOH D. [latex]{C}_{6}[/latex][latex]{H}_{5}[/latex]OH

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Chloroform converts into poisonous when exposed to sunlight. So it is kept in dark bottles
17. Which is used to manufacture printer ink?

A. Methane B.. Benzene C. Glycol D. Ethylene

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A methane molecule consists of one carbon and four hydrogen atoms (C[latex]{H}_{4}[/latex]). It is used to manufacture printer ink
18. Calorific Value of Petrol and diesel is ...............

A. 55,45 B.. 40,50 C.. 40,30 D. 50,40

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The calorific value of a fuel is the quantity of heat produced by its combustion.
Petrol – 50
Diesel – 40
19. .................... are sodium and potassium salts of higher fatty acids

A. Fertilizers B.. Detergents C.. Soaps D. Glass

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Soaps are made from fats and oils or their fatty acids. In general, fats/oils from plant origin are high in unsaturated and low in saturated fatty acids. Fats/oils from animal
10. Bituminous coal contains........................... of Carbon

A. 50% B.. 80% C.. 70% D. 60%

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Bituminous coal(80% C)or black coal is a relatively softcoal containing a tarlike substance called bitumen. It is of higher quality than lignite coal but of poorer quality than anthracite.

1.............................. is an example of emulsion

A. Acid B.. Water C.. Curd D. Milk

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Emulsion is a fine dispersion of minute droplets of one liquid in another in which it is not soluble or miscible.
2. The color of the stars reflects the ................ of the stars.

A. distance B.. age C.. intensity D. power

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The color of a star indicates its temperature and age. Stars are classified by their spectral type
3. ....................... is called as stranger gas

A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen C. Xenon D. Helium

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Xenon is called the ‘stranger’ gas. This gas very un-reactive and heavier than air, that was why named strange. Atomic number of Xe is 54.
4. Natural rubber consists of polymers of the organic compound ...........................

A. Ethylene B.. Polyisoprene C.. Propylene D. Isoprene

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Natural rubber, also called India rubber or caoutchouc, as initially produced, consists of polymers of the organic compound isoprene, with minor impurities of other organic compounds plus water. Malaysia is a leading producer of rubber.
5. Dry air contains .........................nitrogen

A. 75.80% B.. 78.09% C.. 80% D. 65.05%

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
By volume, dry air contains 78.09% nitrogen, 20.95% oxygen,0.93% argon, 0.039% carbon dioxide, and small amounts of other gases.
6. .......................... is called as liquid gold

A. Petroleum B.. Diesel C.. Kerosene D. Water

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
petroleum is called liquid gold because of its high price and value and it's economic.
7. Pencil lead contains the element......................

A. Hydrogen B.. Lead C.. Carbon D. Nitrogen

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Pencil lead contains the element carbon in the form (allotrope) of graphite. The powdered graphite is mixed with a clay binder.
8. Which of the following is true about methane?

A. colour gas B.. colourless gas C.. inflammable gas D. Both B and C

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Methane: A colorless, inflammable gas which exists in the atmosphere in concentrations of 1,500 parts per billion by the volume of dry air. It is a “greenhouse gas” in that it retards the escape of the Earth’s heat into space.
9. The color of ruby is red.It is caused mainly by the presence of the element...........................

A. Neon B.. Chromium C.. Helium D. Chlorine

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Ruby is a pink to the blood-red colored gemstone, a variety of the mineral corundum (aluminum oxide). The red color is caused mainly by the presence of the element chromium
10. Which is also known as Marsh gas?

A. Ethane B.. Acetylene C.. Ammonia D. Methane

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Methane is called as marsh gas, especially as generated by decaying matter in marshes.
11. ........................... is used for food preservative

A. Salicylic Acid B.. Citric Acid C.. Tartaric Acid D. Boric Acid

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Salicylic acid is a monohydroxybenzoic acid, a type of phenolic acid and a beta hydroxy acid. It has the formula [latex]{C}_{7}[/latex][latex]{H}_{6}[/latex][latex]{O}_{3}[/latex]. It is used for food preservative.
12. Which is also known as treacherous gas?

A. Carbon-di-oxide B.. Oxygen C.. Chlorine D. Carbon monoxide

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Carbon monoxide is completely odorless. Therefore smell cannot be relied upon to provide warnings of this treacherous gas. Open solid fires should be assumed to be constantly generating this gas.
13. ......................... is a noble metal

A. Palladium B.. Platinum C.. Gold & Silver D. All of these

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The noble metals are a group of metals that resist oxidation and corrosion in moist air. Ruthenium, rhodium, palladium, silver, osmium, iridium, platinum and gold are noble metal.
14. Babbit is an alloy of ........................

A. Iron B.. Nickel C..Tin D. Copper

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Babbitt metal is an alloy of Tin.It is also called white metal, is a soft, white non-ferrous alloy used to provide a bearing surface. It has properties that help reduce friction which make it a good material to use in a plain bearing.
15. Which is a good absorbent of colour?

A. Solid Camper B.. Sodium Oxide C.. Animal Charcoal D. Sodium hydroxide

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Animal charcoal is used in decolourising colour of liquids because it is a good adsorbent.
16. Graphite has ...................... crystal system

A. Hexagonal B.. Polygon C.. Cubic D. Pentagonal

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Graphite has a Hexagonal crystal system In crystallography, the hexagonal crystal system is one of the 7 crystal systems, the hexagonal lattice system is one of the 7 lattice systems and the hexagonal crystal family is one of the 6 crystal families.
17. ....................... is called a universal Solvent

A. Acid B.. Oil C.. Milk D. Water

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Water is capable of dissolving a variety of different substances, which is why it is such a good solvent. And, water is called the “universal solvent” because of it dissolves more substances than any other liquid. This is important to every living thing on earth.
18. Which of the following is used for washing wounds?

A. Tartaric Acid B.. Salicylic Acid C.. Oxalic Acid D. Boric Acid

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Boric acid can be used as an antiseptic for minor burns or cuts. It can be applied in very dilute solution as an eye wash, or to treat certain outer ear infections. It is an ingredient of various dressings and salves.
19. ........................ is used to slow down neutrons emitted in a nuclear fission reaction

A. Agent B.. Reactors C.. Moderators D. Controller

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The explosive effects of nuclear fission chain reactions can be reduced by using substances like moderators which slow down the speed of secondary neutrons
Ex- Heavy water, Beryllium
20. Which is literally means ‘acid former’?

A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen C. Oxygen D. Carbon

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The explosive effects of nuclear fission chain reactions can be reduced by using substances like moderators which slow down the speed of secondary neutrons
The name oxygen comes from the Greek stems oxys, “acid,” and gennan, “to form or generate.” Thus, oxygen literally means acid former.