Directions Q (1 - 3): In these questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions.
1. Statements:
T < P ≤ U = K ; L = U = K; P = R
Conclusions: I. K ≥ R II. L > R
2. Statements:
H = I ≤ R ; M ≥ R < S
Conclusions: I. M = I II. M > I
3. Statements:
D > H ≥ N ; S > I ≤ H
Conclusions: I. N ≤ S II. I < D

A. if only conclusion I is true B. if only conclusion II is true C. if either conclusion I or II is true D. if neither conclusion I nor II is true E. if both conclusions I and II are true

Directions Q (4 - 7): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
F 4 © J 2 E % M P 5 W 9 @ I Q R 6 U H 3 Z 7« A T B 8 V # G $ Y D
4. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? J E M 5 9 I R U 3 ?
R d K, K © M, M @ J

A. 7 A B B. 7 A T C. « 7 8 D. A B V E. None of these

5. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by a number?:

A. None is true B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

6. Which of the following is the tenth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the above arrangement?

A. M B. T C. # D. 2 E. None of these

7. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?

A. None is true B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three

Directions Q (8 - 10): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement:
Some buses are trains. No train is a dog All dogs are parrots.
Conclusions:
I. No bus is a parrot. II. Some parrots are trains. III. Some parrots are buses. IV. No dog is a bus

A. Only either I or III follows B. Only II follows C. Only IV follows D. Only I and III follow E. None of these

9.
Statement:
Some cups are flowers. Some flowers are boxes. All boxes are tigers.
Conclusions:
I. Some tigers are cups. II. Some tigers are flowers. III. Some boxes are cups. IV. No tiger is a flower.

A. None follows B. Only either II or IV follows C. Only III follows D. Only either I or III follows E. None of these

10.
Statement:
Some cats are lions. All lions are hares. All hares are horses.
Conclusions:
I. Some cats are horses. II. Some horses are lions. III. Some hares are cats. IV. Some cats are hares

A. Only I and II follow B. Only III and IV follow C. Only I and III follow D. All follow E. None of these

Directions Q (11 - 15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sites in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the center while those sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P, who faces the center, sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the center, is not an immediate neighbor of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to the right of Q. Q faces the center. R is not an immediate neighbor of P.
11. Who sits second to the left of Q?

A. V B. P C. T D. Y E. Cannot be determined

12. What is the position of T with respect of V?

A. Fourth of the left B. Second to the left C. Third to the left D. Third to the right E. Second to the right

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A. R B. W C. V D. S E. Y

14. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark based upon the given seating arrangement? WP TR QW RS ?

A. YT B. VY C. VQ D. PY E. QV

15. Which of the following is true regarding R

A. R is an immediate neighbor of V B. R faces the centre C. R sits exactly between T and S D. Q sits third to left of R E. None of these

Directions Q (16 - 17): Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow. In a certain code (a) "rem tur dimi wee" means "my pencil was stolen", (b) "soz rem legh ner" means "your pencil is here", (c) "rem zet tur legh" means " blue pencil was here" and (d) "dimi rem tur soz" means "your pencil was stolen".
16. Which of the following is the code for the word "here"?

A. tur B. ner C. dimi D. legh E. None of these

17. Which of the following indicates "Blue pencil is stolen"??

A. zet rem ner dimi B. ner legh tur zut C. dimi rem soz ner D. zet legh tur rem E. None of these

Directions Q (18 - 20):
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (A) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (B) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (C) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (D) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (E) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
18. On which day of the week did Sourav visit Delhi? I. Sourav visited Delhi after Monday but before Thursday but not on an odd day of the week. II. Sourav visited Delhi before Friday but after Monday
19. What is R’s position from the left end in a row? M is tenth from the left end of the row. II. There are sixteen children between M and R.
20. Town P is towards which direction of town T? I. Town T is towards South of town K, which is towards West of town P. II. Town R is towards South of town V and towards East of town T.
Directions Q (21): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow. Except for a research report – ‘Average life expectancy in the southern part of India is far more than that in Western India. While the average life of a native of South India is 82 years, the average life of a native of Western India is only 74 years.’
Based on the above fact, the proposal that the above study makes is that if an individual move from Western India to South India, his/her life expectancy would immediately increase by eight years.
21. Which of the following statements would weaken the above-mentioned study’s proposal that people belonging to Western parts of India should move to South India to increase their life expectancy?

A. The average life expectancy of the population living in the Eastern part of the country is also less than the population living in South India B. Nearly 80% of the population in Southern India has a minimum age of 83 years. C. Higher life expectancy in Southern India can be ascribed to the genetic makeup of the population belonging to that area D. The average life expectancy of South India is comparable to the best averages in the world. E. Higher life expectancy in Southern India can be attributed to better environmental conditions and better healthcare facilities

Directions Q (22 - 25): Fortunately, more and more countries are shifting their focus away from industrial development to control of climate change these days
Which of the following statements would weaken the above-mentioned study’s proposal that people belonging to Western parts of India should move to South India to increase their life expectancy?

A. The countries which focus more on controlling climate change than industrial development are only the richer ones which can afford to concentrate on areas other than development. B. Many countries had once prioritized industrial development which proved to be harmful to the environment in the long run. C. Some experts are of the view that climate change is not as alarming an issue as it is made to be because it is a natural phenomenon and has been occurring regularly throughout the history of earth. D. If climate change continues at the present rate, it would bring in large-scale destruction to human habitation in a very short time. E. Industrial development is one of the biggest but definitely not the only reason behind global warming

22. Which of the statements numbered A, B, C and D mentioned above would weaken the argument for the need of a shift away from industrial development to that controlling climate change?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. Both B and D

23. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) can be assumed / inferred from the facts / information given in the statement ? (As assumption is something supposed or taken for granted and an inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts.?

A. E B. C C. A D. B E. Either D or A

24. Which of the following can be inferred from statement (E) if it is considered to be true with regard to the given information?

A. Nations also need to focus on sources other than those generated due to industrial development. B. Other sources of pollution have more adverse effects as compared to those generated due to industrial development. C. Unlike older times, industrial development has ceased to be a reason behind global warming these days D. if industrial development stops, global warming would automatically come to an end. E. if sources other than industrial development are identified and controlled, global waring will end completely.

25. Which of the statements numbered A, C, D and E mentioned above represents a reason behind curtailing industrial development by some of the countries?

A. Either C or E B. D C. C D. Either A or C E. A

Directions Q (26 - 30): Study the following information to answer the questions given below
A number arrangement machine when given an input of numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement
Input: 48 245 182 26 99 542 378 297 Step I: 542 48 245 182 26 99 378 297 Step II: 542 26 48 245 182 99 378 297 Step III: 542 26 378 48 245 182 99 297 Step IV: 542 26 378 48 297 245 182 99 Step V: 542 26 378 48 297 99 245 182
This is the final arrangement and step V is the last step for this input.
26. What will the fourth step for an input whose second step is given below Step: 765 42 183 289 542 65 110 350

A. 765 42 542 350 183 289 65 110 B. 765 42 542 65 110 183 289 350 C. 765 42 542 65 183 289 110 350 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

27. What should be the third step of the following input? Input: 239 123 58 361 495 37

A. 495 37 361 123 239 58 B. 495 37 58 361 123 239 C. 495 37 58 123 361 239 D. 495 37 361 239 123 58 E. None of these

28. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input? Input: 39 88 162 450 386 72 29

A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Six E. None of these

29. What should be the last step of the following input Input: 158 279 348 28 326 236

A. 348 28 326 158 279 236 B. 348 28 326 236 158 279 C. 348 28 236 158 279 326 D. 348 28 158 326 236 279 E. None of these

30. If the first step of an input is “785 198 32 426 373 96 49”, then which of the following steps will be “785 32 426 49 198 373 96”?

A.Third B. Fourth C. Fifth D. Second E. None of these

Directions Q (31 - 35): Study the following information to answer the given questions:

• Six plays are to be organised from Monday to Sunday - one play each day with one day when there is no play. ‘No play’ day is not Monday or Sunday.


• The plays are held in sets of 3 plays each in such a way that 3 plays are held without any break, ie 3 plays are held in such as way that there is no ‘No play’ day between them but immediately before this set of immediately after this set it is ‘No play’ day.


• Play Z was held on 26th and play X was held on 31st of the same month.


• Play B was not held immediately after play A (but was held after A, not necessary immediately) and play M was held immediately before Q.


• All the six plays were held in the same month.

31. Which plays was organised on Monday?

A. Z B. M C. Q D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

32. Which day was play Z organised?

A. Tuesday B. Monday C. Wednesday D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

33. Which date was a ‘No play’ day?

A. 26th B. 28th C. 29th D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

34. Which of the following is true?

A. Play B is held immediately before play M. B. Play Z is held after play B. C. There was a gap after 2 plays and then 4 plays were organised. D. First play was organised on the 25th. E. Play B was held on Friday.

35. Which day was play Q organised?

A. Friday B. Wednesday C. Saturday D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

36. The term “Encoder-decoder” is used for a?

A. networker B. joiner C. router D. modem E. connection

37. __________ permanently stores data and consists of nonvolatile chips.

A. RAM B. CPU C. ROM D. Matherboard E. connection

38. In Excel, the contents of the active cell can be changed through.

A. menu bar B. formula bar C. tool bar D. footer bar E. task bar

39. In a sequence of events that take place in an instruction cycle. the second cycle is called.

A. fetch cycle B. store cycle C. code cycle D. decode cycle E. execute cycle

40. An e-mail address consists of.

A. domain name followed by user’s name B. user’s name @ symbol followed by domain name C. user’s name followed by domain name D. User’s name space @ symbol followed by domain name E. None of these

41. DSL stands for.

A. Data Subscriber Line B. Direct Subscriber Line C. Digital Subscriber Line D. Dual Subscriber Line E. Divisible Subscriber Line

42. The .ppt extension is used for _____ files.

A. word B. access C. power point D. excel E. None of these

43. You can group non-contiguous worksheets with.

A. ctrl key, mouse B. alt + enter keys C. shift key, mouse D. alt key, mouse E. None of these

44. The advantage of using pre-written software packages is to.

A. eliminate program writing B. eliminate program testing C. save time and cost D. All the above E. None of these

45. Which of the following is an impact printer.

A. Laser printer B. LCD/LED printer C. Ink-Jet printer D. Thermal printer E. Drum printer

Solutions: For Q(1-45)
Q1:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
R ≤ P ≤ U≤ K U R is true.
Q2:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
H = I ≤ R ≤ M Hence, M ≥ I I. M = I II. M > I Either I or II is true.
Q3:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
D > 3 H ≥ N H ≥ I < S I. N ≤ S is not true. II. I < D is true.
Q4:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The corresponding element of the succeeding term moves six places forward.
Q5:
Answer: Option B
Q6:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
10th to the right of 19th from right = (19 – 10) = 9th from the right = T
Q7:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
© , @ and ★.
Q8:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Conclusions I and III make a complementary pair. Hence, either I or III follows. Conclusion II does not follow since “No train is a dog” (E) + “All dogs are parrots” (A) gives the conclusion “Some parrots are not trains” [Q E + A O ★]. Conclusion IV does not follow because “Some buses are trains” + “No train is a dog” gives the conclusion “Some buses are not dogs[∴ I + E = O].
Q9:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
“Some flowers are boxes” (I) + “All boxes are tigers” (A) gives conclusion “Some flowers are tigers” (I)[∴ I + A = I]. On conversion, we get “some tigers are flowers”. Hence, conclusion II follows but IV does not follow. “Some cups are flowers” (I) + “Some flowers are boxes” (I) gives no conclusion [∴ I + I= No conclusion]. Hence, III does not follow. No relation is given between tigers and cups and hence, I does not follow.
Q10:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
“Some cats are lions” (I) + “All lions are hares” (A) ⇒ “Some cats are hares” (I) [∴ I + A = I]. Hence, conclusion IV follows. Conversion of conclusion IV gives conclusion III. Now, conclusion IV + “All hares are horses" (A) gives conclusion I [∴ I + A = I]. “All lions are hares" (A) + "All hares are horses" (A) gives conclusion "All lions are horses" (A) [∴ A + A = A]. Now, "All lions are horses" implies "Some horses are lions." Hence, conclusion II also follows.
Q(11-15):

Q11:
Answer: Option B
Q12:
Answer: Option C
Q13:
Answer: Option D
Q14:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Move 1[latex]{1}{2}[/latex], 2, 2[latex]{1}{2}[/latex], 3 sides clockwise on the square.
Q15:
Answer: Option C
Q16:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(a) "rem tur dimi wee" ⇒ "my pencil was stolen". (b) "soz rem legh ner" ⇒ "your pencil is here". (c) "rem zet tur legh" ⇒ "blue pencil was here". (d) "dimi rem tur soz" ⇒ "your pencil was stolen".
Thus from (b) and (c), we get "rem legh" ⇒ pencil here" (though not necessarily in the same order.) Further, from (a), (b), (c) & (d) together, we get "rem" ⇒ "pencil". Hence, we get, "legh" ⇒ "here".
Q17:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(a) We have, "rem" ⇒ "pencil". Now, from (c) & (d), we get "tur" ⇒ "was" and hence (since "legh"⇒ "here"), we get, "zet" ⇒ "blue". Now, from (a) and(d), we get, "rem tur dimi" ⇒ "pencil was stolen". Hence, we get, "dimi"⇒ "stolen". Now, from (d), we get, "soz" ⇒ "your". Hence, from (b), we get, "ner" ⇒ "is". Thus, "zet rem ner dimi" ⇒ "blue pencil is stolen".
Q18:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
From I: Saurav visited Delhi on Wednesday. From II: He visited on Tue, Wed or Thu.
Q19:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
From I & II: R’s position = 10 + 16 + 1 = 27th from left.
Q20:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
From I:

Hence, P is north-east of T. From II: We can’t move to any conclusion because town has not even been mentioned.
Q21:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Since life expectancy depends on genetic make-up migration can’t enhance it.
Q22:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
If climate change is a natural phenomenon, all this maligning of industrial development amount to unnecessary fuss.
Answer: Option
Q23:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The realisation of wrong priorities is leading to the shift of focus.
Q24:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Since industrial development is “not the only reason” behind the problem, we need to address this as well as other reasons.
Q25:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Industrial development is being curtailed so that the said destruction can be avoided.
Q(26-30):
From the last step it is clear that there are two alternating series of numbers: One in descending order and the other in ascending order. When we go through input to step I, we find that the largest no. becomes the first and remaining numbers shift rightward. In the next step the smallest no. becomes the second and the rest shift rightward. These two steps continue alternately untill the two alternate series are formed.
Q26:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Step II: 765 42 183 289 542 65 110 350 Step III: 765 42 542 183 289 65 110 350 Step IV: 765 42 542 65 183 289 110 350
Q27:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Input: 239 123 58 361 495 37
Step I: 495 239 123 58 361 37 Step II: 495 37 239 123 58 361 Step III: 495 37 361 239 123 58
Q28:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Input: 39 88 162 450 386 72 29
Step I: 450 39 88 162 386 72 29 Step II: 450 29 39 88 162 386 72 Step III: 450 29 386 39 88 162 72 Step IV: 450 29 386 39 162 88 72 Step V: 450 29 386 39 162 72 88
Q29:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Last step can be known directly.
Q30:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Step I: 785 198 32 426 373 96 49 Step II: 785 32 198 426 373 96 49 Step III: 785 32 426 198 373 96 49 Step IV: 785 32 426 49 198 373 96
Q(31-35):
Q31:
Answer: Option E
Q32:
Answer: Option A
Q33:
Answer: Option B
Q34:
Answer: Option D
Q35:
Answer: Option C
Q36:
Answer: Option D
Q37:
Answer: Option C
Q38:
Answer: Option B
Q39:
Answer: Option D
Q40:
Answer: Option B
Q41:
Answer: Option C
Q42:
Answer: Option C
Q43:
Answer: Option A
Q44:
Answer: Option D
Q45:
Answer: Option E

Directions Q(46-50): In each of these questions a number series is given. Below the series one number is given followed by (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). You have to complete this series following the same logic as in the original series and answer the question that follow.
46. 5 9 25 91 414 2282.5 3 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) What will come in place of (3)?

A. 63.25 B. 63.75 C. 64.25 D. 64.75 E. None of these

47. 15 9 8 12 36 170 19 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) What will come in place of (2)?

A. 18 B. 16 C. 22 D. 24 E. None of these

48. 7 6 10 27 104 515 9 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) What will come in place of (4)?

A. 152 B. 156 C. 108 D. 112 E. None of these

49. 6 16 57 244 1245 7506 4 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) What will come in place of (4)?

A. 985 B. 980 C. 1004 D. 1015 E. None of these

50. 8 9 20 63 256 1285 5 (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) What will come in place of (5)?

A. 945 B. 895 C. 925 D. 845 E. None of these

Directions Q(51-55): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions. Rate of interest (P.C.P.A.) offered by five companies on deposits under different schemes

51. Mr X. deposited an amount in Scheme II with Company for two years. After that he withdrew the amount and reinvested only the principal amount in Scheme IV of Company B for two years. Total amount of simple interest accrued from the two schemes is Rs. 14,800. What was the principal amount?

A. Rs. 48,000 B. Rs. 42,000 C. Rs. 40,000 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

52. Company E offers compound interest under Scheme I and Company A offers simple interest under Scheme IV. What will be the difference between the interest earned under Scheme I of Company E and Scheme IV of Company A respectively in two years on an amount of Rs. 1.2 lakhs?

A. Rs. 1,428 B. Rs. 1,328 C. Rs. 1,528 D. Rs. 1,548 E. None of these

53. Company D offers compound interest under Scheme II simple interest under Scheme IV. Abhijit invested Rs. 25,000 with this company under Scheme IV and after one year switched to Scheme II along with the interest for one more year. What is the total amount he will get at the end of two years?

A. Rs. 28,939.25 B. Rs. 29,838.75 C. Rs. 31,748.25 D. Rs. 31,738.75 E. None of these

54. Abhishek invested an amount of Rs. 45,000 for two years with Company B under Scheme III, which offers compound interest, and Jeevan invested an equal amount for two years with Company C under Scheme IV, which offers simpleinterest. Who earned more interest and how much?

A. Abhishek, Rs. 1,875 B. Jeevan, Rs. 1,875 C. Abhishek, Rs. 1,962 D. Jeevan, Rs. 1,962 E. None of these

55. Mr. Lal invested Rs. 30,000 in Company A under Scheme II, which offers compound interest and Rs. 48,000 in Company D under Scheme II, which offers compound interest. What will be the total amount of interest earned by Mr. Lal in twoyears?

A. Rs. 14,728.80 B. Rs. 17,428.50 C. Rs. 14,827.70 D. Rs. 16,728.20 E. None of these

Directions Q(56-60): Analyse the following chart showing the exports and imports of Sono Ltd. and answer the questions based on this chart.
56. Approximately by what percentage are the total Exports greater/smaller than the total imports for the given period?

A. Greater by 9 percent B. Smaller by 10 percent C. Smaller by 9 percent D. Greater by 10 percent E. None of these

57. If the absolute difference between imports and exports are ranked in ascending order, which year gets 4th rank?

A. 2010 B. 2008 C. 2009 D. 2011 E. None of these

58. In which year was the fifth largest annual percentage increase in exports recorded?

A. 2007 B. 2005 C. 2009 D. 2008 E. None of these

59. Which year saw the second largest annual percentage increase in imports?

A. 2010 B. 2005 C. 2006 D. 2004 E. None of these

60. What is the approximate percentage point difference in the maximum annual percentage increase in export and the minimum annual percentage decrease in imports?

A. 28 B. 48 C. 64 D. 12 E. None of these

Directions Q(61-65): Study the following pie-charts carefully and answer the questions given below:
Discipline-wise Breakup of the Number of candidates appeared in Interview and Discipline-wise Break up of the Number of candidates selected by an organisation Discipline-wise Breakup of Number of candidates appeared in Interview.
61. What is the ratio of the number of candidates appeared in interview from other discipline and the number of candidates selected from Engineering discipline respectively (rounded off to the nearest integer)?

A. 3609 : 813 B. 3094 : 813 C. 3094 : 1035 D. 4125 : 1035 E. 3981 : 767

62. The total number of candidates appeared in interview from Management and other discipline was what percentage of?

A. 50 B. 150 C. 200 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

63. Approximately what was the difference between the number of candidates selected from Agriculture discipline and number of candidates selected from Engineering discipline?

A. 517 B. 665 C. 346 D. 813 E. 296

64. For which discipline was the difference in number of candidates selected to number of candidates appeared in interview the maximum?

A. Management B. Engineering C. Science D. Agriculture E. None of these

65. Approximately what was the total number of candidates selected from Commerce and Agricultural discipline together?

A. 1700 B. 1800 C. 2217 D. 1996 E. 1550

Directions Q(66-70): Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow: There are two companies A and B. Both companies produce all the four different products, viz Computers, Phones, Pen drives and Compact Discs (CDs). Company A produces a total of 800 products. The ratio of the total products produced by Company A to that of Company B is 4 : 5 : 20% of the total products produced by Company B are Pen Drives and 40% of them are CDs. Twofifths of the remaining products produced by Company B are Phones. The total number of Computers produced by both the companies together is 340.20% of the total products produced by Company A are CDs. Company A produces equal number of Pen Drives and Phones.
66. What is the ratio of the number of Pen Drives produced by Company A to the number of Computers produced by Company B?

A. 8 : 9 B. 9 : 7 C. 7 : 9 D. 4 : 9 E. None of these

67. What is the total number of Phones produced by both the companies together?

A. 430 B. 420 C. 390 D. 530 E. None of these

68. The number of Phones produced by Company A is what percentage of the total number of products produced by Company B?

A. 25 B. 29 C. 27 D. 37 E. None of these

69. What is the average of the number of Pen Drives, CDs and Computers produced by Company B?

A. 840 B. 280 C. 270 D. 860 E. None of these

70. What is the difference between the number of CDs produced by Company B and the number of Computers produced by Company A?

A. 200 B. 250 C. 300 D. 350 E. None of these

Directions Q(71-75): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow: Numbers (N) of Six types of Electronic Products Sold by six different stores in a month and the price per product (P) (price in Rs. 000) charged by each Store
71. The number of L type products sold by Store F is what percent of the number of the same type of products sold by Store E?

A. 76.33 B. 124 C. 83.33 D. 115 E. None of these

72. What is the ratio of the total number of N and L type products together sold by Store D and that of the same products sold by Store A.

A. 119 : 104 B. 102 : 115 C. 104 : 115 D. 117 : 103 E. None of these

73. What is the average price per product charged by all the Stores together for Product Q?

A. Rs. 14,700 B. Rs. 15,700 C. Rs. 15,200 D. Rs. 14,800 E. None of these

74. What is the difference in the amount earned by Store A through the sale of P type products and that earned by Store B through the sale of Q type products?

A. Rs. 38.4 lakhs B. Rs. 0.384 lakh C. Rs. 3.84 lakhs D. Rs. 384 lakhs E. None of these

75. What is the total amount earned by Store C through the sale of M and O type products together?

A. Rs. 2719.2 lakhs B. Rs. 271.92 lakhs C. Rs. 2.7192 lakhs D. Rs. 27.192 lakhs E. None of these

Directions Q(76-80): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow: Monthly Expenditure (in thousands) by five people on Rent, Food, Children’s Education, Clothes and Travelling
76. What is the total monthly expenditure made by D on rent, B on clothes and E on travelling together?

A. Rs. 18,720 B. Rs. 1,78,200 C. Rs. 17,800 D. Rs. 1,84,720 E. None of these

77. What is the average monthly expenditure on food by all the people together?

A. Rs. 1,08,500 B. Rs. 10,850 C. Rs. 54,250 D. Rs. 52,450 E. None of these

78. Whose monthly expenditure on all the heads together is the lowest among them?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. F

79. If the monthly expenditure of C on children’s education is increased by 5%, then what will be his yearly expenditure on children’s education?

A. Rs. 1,58,760 B. Rs. 15,87,600 C. Rs. 13,230 D. Rs. 1,32,300 E. None of these

80. What is the ratio of the monthly expenditure made by A on travelling to the monthly expenditure made by D on clothes?

A. 57 : 105 B. 105 : 59 C. 37 : 103 D. 59 : 105 E. None of these

Solutions: For Q(46-80)
Q46:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The given series is × 1.5 + 1.5, × 2.5 + 2.5, × 3.5 + 3.5, ×4.5 + 4.5, × 5.5 + 5.5.
Q47:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The series is (15 – 6) × 1 = 9, (9 – 5) × 2 = 8, (8 – 4) × 3 = 12, (12 – 3) × 4 = 36, (36 – 2) × 5 = 170. Similarly, for the question row, a = (19 – 6) × 1 = 13, b = (13 – 5) × 2 = 16
Q48:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The series is × 1 – 1, × 2 – 2, × 3 – 3, × 4 – 4, × 5 – 5.
Q49:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
The series is × 2 + [latex]{2}^{2}[/latex], × 3 + [latex]{3}^{2}[/latex], × 4 + [latex]{4}^{2}[/latex], × 5 + [latex]{5}^{2}[/latex], × 6 + [latex]{6}^{2}[/latex]
Q50:
Answer: Option c
Explanation:
The series is × 1 + 1, × 2 + 2, × 3 + 3, × 4 + 4, × 5 + 5.
Q51:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Amount = [latex]\frac{14800}{0.18 + 0.19}[/latex] = 40,000
Q52:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Required difference = 1.2 {[1 + [latex]\frac{9}{100}]^2 - 1 [/latex]}
Q53:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Required sum = (25000 + 2375 × 2) (1.09) (1.09) = Rs. 35345.97
Q54:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Required difference = SI – CI = Rs. 9450 – Rs. 7488 = 1962
Q55:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Required Interest = 30 x [latex]\frac{19}{2}[/latex] x 2 x [latex]\frac{{10}^{3}}{{10}^{2}} [/latex] + 48 + [latex]{10}^{3}[/latex]{([latex]{1.09}^{2})[/latex] - 1}
Q56:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Total export = 110 + 150 + 150 + 200 + 175 + 200 + 275 + 200 + 260 + 250 = 1970 Total import = 275 + 250 + 225 + 225 + 270 + 200 + 175 + 175 + 200 + 175 = 2,170 % decrease in export = [latex]\frac{(2170 - 1970)}{2170}[/latex] = 9.2% ⋍ 9% Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q57:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

As observed from table 2010 gets 4th rank. Hence, option (A) is correct.
Q58:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Increase in export in 2003 = [latex]\frac{(150 - 110)}{110}[/latex] x 100
[latex]\frac{40 }{110}[/latex] x 100 = 36.36%
Increase in export in 2004 = [latex]\frac{(150 - 150)}{150}[/latex] x 100 = 0%
Increase in export in 2005 = [latex]\frac{(200 - 150)}{150}[/latex] x 100 = 33.3%
Increase in export in 2006 = [latex]\frac{(200 - 175)}{200}[/latex] x 100 = 12.5%
Increase in export in 2007 = [latex]\frac{(200 - 175)}{175}[/latex] x 100 = 14.28%
Increase in export in 2008 = [latex]\frac{(275 - 200)}{200}[/latex] x 100 = 37.5%
In 2009 there is decrease.
Increase in export in 2010 = [latex]\frac{(260 - 200)}{200}[/latex] x 100 = 30%
In 2011 there is decrease. From above it is clear that the fifth largest annual percentage in export was recorded in 2007 i.e., 14.28%.
Hence, option (A) is correct.
Q59:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
In the year 2003, 2004, 2005, 2007, 2008, 2009, 2011 there is no increase in import.
Increase in export in 2006 = [latex]\frac{(270 - 225)}{225}[/latex] x 100 = 20%
Increase in export in 2010 = [latex]\frac{(200 - 175)}{175}[/latex] x 100 = 14.28%
In 2010 there is second largest percentage increase in import. Hence, option (A) is correct.
Q60:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The maximum percentage increase in exports is in 2008 i.e., 37%.
The minimum percentage decrease in imports is in 2003
i.e. = [latex]\frac{(275 - 250)}{250}[/latex] x 100 = 9.09%
Hence, required % = 37.5 – 9.09 = 28%
Q61:
Answer: Option B
Q62:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Required percentage = [latex]\frac{24}{16}[/latex] x 10 = 150
Q63:
Answer: Option E
Q64:
Answer: Option C
Q65:
Answer: Option A
Q66:
Answer: Option E
Q67:
Answer: Option A
Q68:
Answer: Option C
Q69:
Answer: Option B
Q70:
Answer: Option C
Q71:
Answer: Option E
Q72:
Answer: Option E
Q73:
Answer: Option B
Q74:
Answer: Option A
Q75:
Answer: Option D
Q76:
Answer: Option E
Q77:
Answer: Option B
Q78:
Answer: Option A
Q79:
Answer: Option A
Q80:
Answer: Option D

Directions Q (81 - 85): ead the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The writer believes that the work experience should focus more on the development in students of the ability to work with the materials of their environment and solve problems as close to reality as is practicable.
Work experience is included as a separate subject in the school system, should not be treated in the same manner as other school subjects, i.e., accumulation of certain technical facts with a superficial blessing of the practical aspect of this new subject in our school curriculum.
Work experience when included as a separate subject in our school curriculum will no doubt entail huge investment. But if the concept of work experience is implemented with sincere and competent guidance, this above investment will be a great asset to our nation.
Let us suppose, that work experience is designed in such a manner to be productive and self-sufficient, it may have some negative reaction from local small scale producers of those consumer goods.
However, an assumption is made in the above conviction that the quality of consumer articles produced by a school would be good enough to compete in the market. Ignoring all the inherent dangers discussed earlier of incorporating work experience as a separate subject in our school curriculum, it may still be worthwhile to include work experience level in science teaching even with work experience as a separate subject.
This concept of work experience in science teaching would help to provide a proper training (or development of scientific attitude) in work experience as a separate subject and in useful occupations or vocations to our students. The above training may encourage students to set up small scale industries after their completion of grade ten. This above approach may give some satisfaction to our taxpayers that the investment in the educational endeavor is not a total wastage of their money
The writer’s experience (in various countries) suggests that to make work experience a worthwhile experience, it should also be incorporated as an integral part into the high school subjects, especially science subjects. To accomplish this, any school subject especially science must be taught on four levels; the facts level, the concepts level, the values level, and the work experience level.
81. What is the subject which should not be treated in the same manner as other school subjects .

A. Technical subject B. Practical aspects of all the subjects C. Work experience D. School system and procedures E. None of these

82. According to the writer, the work experience should focus more .... A. on the development in students of extracurricular activities. B. on the development in students of the ability to work with the materials of their surroundings. C. on the ability to solve problems as close to reality as is practicable.

A. Only A B. Only B C. Only C D. Only B and C E. All A, B and C

83. The concept of work experience in science teaching would help. A. to provide proper training in work experience. B. students to set up small scale industries after the completion of grade ten. C. to give some satisfaction to our tax payers that they could reap a little more profit from this endeavour.

A. Only A B. Only B C. Only C D. Only A and B E. All, A, B, and C

84. What will happen if the work experience is designed to be productive and self-sufficient?

A. It may lead to huge investment B. It may help the nation in asset building C. It may have some negative reaction from the local small scale producers D. It may lead to accumulation of certain technical facts E. It may lead to better quality goods production

85. Why the writer suggests that science must be taught on four levels?

A. To make the students interested in the subjects B. To make them matured citizens of the country C. To make work experience a worthwhile experience D. To make the science subjects popular among the students E. None of these

86. The idea that to make experience a worthwhile experience, it should also be incorporated as an integral part into the high school subjects comes from?

A. his interaction with other writers B. his experience in science teaching C. his patriotism and love for higher education D. his experience in several countries E. None of these

Directions Q (87 - 88): Choose the word/group of words. which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/group of words given in bold as used in the passage.
87. Self sufficient?

A. Adequate B. Dependent C. Overflowing D. Self-advocating E. Self reliant

88. Superficial.

A. Artificial B. Shallow C. Complete D. Profound E. Imperfect

Directions Q (89 - 90): hoose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.
89. Ability.

A. Competency B. Aptitude C. Inefficiency D. Importance E. Lethargy

90. Reality.

A. Authentic B. Superfluous C. Imagination D. Lackadaisical E. Feeble

Directions Q (91 - 92): In each of the following sentences there are certain blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five options denoted by the numbers (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). Find out which option can be used to fill up the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
91. The modernization drive of the country has in fact not been ________________ by an improvement in the quality of many of its manufactured ________________..

A. associated, sectors B. accompanied, products C. prevailed, area D. acquired, fields E. conquered, items

92. The Govt. _____________ that Indian IT industry will be able to generate _____________of over $ 100 billion by the later part of the coming decade. .

A. reveal, volume B. states, service C. predict, future D. estimated, capital E. forecasts, revenue

Directions Q (93 - 97): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C) , (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (A) A serious conceptual problem often raised about universal disarmament is that even if you succeed in eliminating all nuclear weapons on earth, you cannot eliminate man's knowledge of the science behind it. (B) The goal of nuclear disarmament provides another motivation for ridding the world of fissile materials. (C) What is to prevent some groups from starting to produce these weapons all over again. (D) That genie is out of the bottle for good. (E) Is nuclear weapon-free world a robust and stable concept?
93. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement.

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

94. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? .

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

95. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?.

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

96. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

97. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement.

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

Directions Q (98 - 107): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words. The exhibition will be remembered for accuracy and (98) documentation as well as sensitive response. It is one thing to record (99) what one sees and quite another, to record it with (100) and imagination—pictorial (101) to which one can relate. He, following in the (102) of some of the all-time greats of photography, is happy with the (103) statements he makes. What (104) his work to us is its elegant (105), and smooth and unassertive (106) free from any effort for effect. He is one of those convinced "moderns" to whom photography is more visual poetry than technical (107).?
98.

A. artistic B. artesian C. artistry D. beautification E. statistically

99.

A. visually B. perfection C. cryptically D. awfully E. seemingly

100.

A. foresight B. insight C. sight D. foregone E. candid

101.

A. idiom B. caricature C. sketch D. outline E. portrait

102.

A. wake B. footsteps C. imprint D. footprints E. line

103.

A. audio B. vascular C. visual D. sensory E. classic

104.

A. brings B. disarrays C. lugs D. endears E. endeavour

105

A.. grace B. casualness C. treatise D. complexity E. Utopia

106

A. treaty B. memoirs C. mementos D. technique E. clique

107

A. jargon B. jugglery C. gibberish D. wizard E. complexion

Directions Q (108 - 110): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error,if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is ‘(e)’. (ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
108.

A. The Government has asked individuals B. with income of over 110 lakhs to C. electronic file tax returns for the year 2011 -12, D. something which was optional till last year. E. No error

109.

A. The power tariff had already B. been increased twice in C. the last 15 months and the Electricity Board had also D. levied additional monthly charges to consumers. E. No error

110.

A. Despite of curfew B. in some areas, minor C. communal incidents were reported D. from different areas of the walled city. E. No error

Directions Q (111 - 115): In each of the following questions four words are given, of which two are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination.
111. A. Disciple B. Student C. Academy D. Martyr

A. A-C B. C-D C. B-C D. B-D E. A-B

112.
A. Magnetic B. Cherished C. Valued D. Forlorn

A. C-D B. A-B C. B-D D. B-C E. A-D

113.
(A) Ordinary (B) Vague (C) Custom (D) Exceptional

A. A-B B. B-C C. C-D D. A-D E. B-D

114.
(A) Damaged (B) Hurried (C) Condemned (D) Measured

A. A-B B. C-D C. B-D D. B-C E. A-D

115.
A. Remote B. Troubled C. Secluded D. Apparent

A. B-C B. A-D C. B-D D. C-D E. A-C

Directions Q (115): In each of the given sentences, select the sentence which would either follow or precede the given sentence in grammatically and conceptually appropriate manner. The instruction is given at the end of every statement.
115. Unfortunately, however, these slum dwellers are looked upon by the society as an appendix causing ills in the urban society. Which of the following sentences would immediately precede the above sentence?

A. Health officials have been warning the government against the transmission of contagious diseases from the slum areas to other parts of the city. B. Slum dwellers not only play a significant role in urban economy but also provide cheap labor for everyday work of the cities. C. A recent report suggested that 34 per cent of government land is illegally occupied by the slum dwellers. D. The slum dwellers live in sub-human, unhygienic conditions in their tiny shanties and are very often hubs for criminal activities. E. None of these

Solution: For Q(81-115)
Q81:
Answer: Option D
Q82:
Answer: Option D
Q83:
Answer: Option C
Q84:
Answer: Option C
Q85:
Answer: Option D
Q86:
Answer: Option D
Q87:
Answer: Option E
Q88:
Answer: Option B
Q89:
Answer: Option E
Q90:
Answer: Option C
Q91:
Answer: Option B
Q92:
Answer: Option E
Q93:
Answer: Option B
Q94:
Answer: Option E
Q95:
Answer: Option A
Q96:
Answer: Option D
Q97:
Answer: Option C
Q98:
Answer: Option A
Q99:
Answer: Option A
Q100:
Answer: Option B
Q101:
Answer: Option C
Q102:
Answer: Option B
Q103:
Answer: Option C
Q104:
Answer: Option D
Q105:
Answer: Option A
Q106:
Answer: Option D
Q107:
Answer: Option B
Q108:
Answer: Option E
Q109:
Answer: Option D
Q110:
Answer: Option A
Q111:
Answer: Option E
Q112:
Answer: Option D
Q113:
Answer: Option D
Q114:
Answer: Option C
Q115:
Answer: Option E

116. The “Four Eyes” principle (mentioned by the Reserve Bank of India) refers to:

A. Lenders B. Borrowers C. Wealth Managers D. Micro-Fananciers E. None of these

117. The disinvestments proceeds are used for which purpose?

A. To help co-operative sector B. To strengthen the private sector banks C. To provide additional capital to public sector banks D. For funding the capital expenditure under the social security schemes of the govt. E. None of these

118. ‘Take-Out’ Financing is an option primarily propounded for what in India?

A. Small Scale Enterprises B. Infrastructure funding C. Restaurants D. Educational institutions E. None of these

119. Consider the following banks
1. ABN Amro Bank 2. Barclays Bank 3. Kookmin Bank
Which of the following correctly represents their countries of origin?

A. Dutch, USA, Japan B. Japan, USA, China C. Dutch, UK, South Korea D. Dutch, USA, China E. None of these

120. Who is the chairperson of State Bank Of India

A. Arundhati Bhattacharya B. Naina Lal Kidwai C. Chanda Kochar D. Shikha Sharma E. None of these

121. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extended the timeline for full implementation of the Basel III capital regulations by a year. Now the banks are required to comply with the Basel III norms by 31 March 2019 instead of

A. 31 March 2016 B. 31 March 2018 C. 31 March 2017 D. 31 March 2015 E. None of these

122. Factors responsible for the widespread popularity of consumer finance in recent years: Providing access to purchasing power to the middle class consumer has been the most significant achievement of this product class. A complainant not satisfied with the decision of the Banking Ombudsman, has the right to appeal to the_______.

A. Governor SBP B. AVP of the concerned bank C. High Court D. Supreme Court E. None of these

123. Which of the following committee is associated with the review of Insider Trading Regulations?

A. Sodhi Committee B. Sinha Committee C. Tarapore Committee D. Chandrashekhar Committee E. None of these

124. Which of the following statements is/are correct in regard to ‘micro-finance’?
(1) Micro-credit extended by banks to individual is reckoned as a part of their priority sector lending. (2) RBI has prescribed a particular model the banks to provide micro-finance. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 E. None of these

125. Who is the author of the book ‘Beyond the lines : An Autobiography’ ?

A. Sharad Pawar B. Kushwant Singh C. Kuldip Nayar D. General J. J. Singh E. None of these

126. Choose the correct statements in the context of Cooperative Banks in India. 1. Cooperative Banks operate on no profit no loss basis. 2. Cooperative Banks are allowed to operate only in the agriculture sector. 3. NABARD is a Cooperative Bank.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. Either 1 or 2 E. None of these

127. NRE deposit is

A. Non Resident External deposit B. Non Resident Extra deposit C. Non Resident Exchange deposit D. Non Refundable External deposit E. Non Resident Extended deposit

128. MINT is a acronym for group of countries which are promising investment destination. Which of the following correctly represents MINT countries

A. Myanmar, India, Nepal and Thailand B. Mexico, Indonesia, Nigeria and Turkey C. Malaysia, Indonesia, Nigeria and Thailand D. Mexico, India, Nepal and Turkey E. None of these

129. National Girl Child Day was observed across India by the Union Government on

A. 24 January B. 25 January C. 27 January D. 21 January E. None of these

130. We know that the industrial sector plays an important role in the development of India. Which of the following sectors does not come under industrial sector?

A. Mining B. Manufacturing C. Banking D. Utilities E. Construction

131. Which of the following is NOT a banking-related term

A. SME Finance B. Overdraft C. Drawing power D. Sanctioning Authority E. Equinox

132. Traditional marketing style involves

A. Telemarketing B. Digital Marketing C. Indirect Marketing D. Direct Marketing E. None of these

133. Niche Market means a _____.

A. free market B. social market C. equity market D. capital market E. specified market for a target group

134. Qualities essential in good marketing are ____.

A. aggressiveness B. pushy C. perseverance D. politeness E. Only (C) and (D)

135. The ‘Mahajan Commission’ was constituted to look into the border dispute between which two states

A. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh B. Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra C. Maharashtra and Karnataka D. Karnataka and Kerala E. None of these

136. Which one of the following is not included in Article 19 of the constitution of India, pertaining to the Right to Freedom

A. Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India B. Right to form associations or unions C. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions D. Right to assemble peaceably and without arms E. None of these

137. The share of deposits that banks must maintain in safe and liquid assets such as government securities is known as _______

A. Repo B. Reverse Repo C. SLR D. CRR E. None of these

138. The quantum of loan under Home loan is decided on the basis of

A. income of the borrower B. cost of the property/cost of construction C. repaying capacity of the person D. All of the above E. None of these

139. Which of the following statements about mutual funds is correct

A. Distribution of any income in advance on a monthly basis or otherwise is not permitted B. Mutual funds are listed in stock exchanges C. Lock in period for repurchase of units should not be more than 36 months D. All of the above E. None of these

140. Stock exchange is a place where

A. traders buy their stocks. B. stocks are exchanged by traders and businessmen through barter system C. securities are traded D. shares are traded E. SEBI

141. Capital Market Regulator is -

A. RBI B. IRDA C. NSE D. BSE E. SEBI

142. FDI refers to -

A. Fixed Deposit Interest B. Fixed Deposit Investment C. Foreign Direct Investment D. Future Derivative Investment E. None of these

143. Which among the following decides the oil Prices in India

A. Government of India B. Government of Respective states C. Ministry of Petroleum D. Oil Companies E. None of these

144. In the Rail Budget 2016-2017, Suresh Prabhu announced a new overnight double-decker, air-conditioned train. What is the name of the proposed train

A. UDAY B. Sunrise Express C. UDIT D. All of the above E. None of these

145. As per the Union Budget 2016-17, how much amount was allocated towards Agriculture and Farmers' welfare

A. 34,980 crore rupees B. 40,500 crore rupees C. 35,984 crore rupees D. 36,000 crore rupees E. None of these

146. In the Union Budget 2016-17, Arun Jaitley announced creation of a dedicated Long Term Irrigation Fund in NABARD. What will be the initial corpus of the fund?

A. About 15,000 crore rupees B. About 10,000 crore rupees C. About 16,000 crore rupees D. About 20,000 crore rupees E. None of these

147. The World Autism Awareness Day is observed on which date

A. March 31 B. April 1 C. April 2 D. April 3 E. None of these

148. Which Indian personality was recently bestowed with the Saudi Arabia's highest civilian honour "the King Abdulaziz Sash"

A. Pranab Mukherjee B. Sushma Swaraj C. Dalbir Singh Suhag D. Narendra Modi E. None of these

149. World's first 'White Tiger Safari' has opened in which state of India

A. Rajasthan B. Madhya Pradesh C. Gujarat D. West Bengal E. None of these

150. Who has won the 2016 Miami Open Men's singles title

A. Rafael Nadal B. Novak Djokovic C. David Ferrer D. Kei Nishikori E. None of these

151. Who has won the 2016 Formula 1 Gulf Air Bahrain Grand Prix

A. Kimi Raikkonen B. Lewis Hamilton C. Nico Rosberg D. Daniel Ricciardo E. None of these

152. In which of the following industry CASA ratio is used

A. Merchandise Trade B. Banking & Finance C. Software Industry D. Travel & Tourism E. None of these

153. Which among the following is a opposite activity of hedging in share / currency /future markets

A. arbitrage B. speculation C. spread D. short E. tall

154. Which among the following correctly categorizes collateralized borrowing and lending obligation?

A. A market operation B. A money market instrument C. A clearing system D. A scheme of Reserve Bank of India E. A policy initiative of Government of India

155. Who is the writer of “From Khadi to Khaki – A police man’s story”?

A. P. Chauhan B. Amit Yadav C. B. Rathnakar Rai D. Ramanand E. None of these

Solution: For Q(116-155)
Q116:
Answer: Option C
Q117:
Answer: Option D
Q118:
Answer: Option B
Q119:
Answer: Option C
Q120:
Answer: Option A
Q121:
Answer: Option B
Q122:
Answer: Option A
Q123:
Answer: Option A
Q124:
Answer: Option A
Q125:
Answer: Option C
Q126:
Answer: Option A
Q127:
Answer: Option A
Q128:
Answer: Option B
Q129:
Answer: Option A
Q130:
Answer: Option C
Q131:
Answer: Option E
Q132:
Answer: Option D
Q133:
Answer: Option E
Q134:
Answer: Option E
Q135:
Answer: Option C
Q136:
Answer: Option C
Q137:
Answer: Option C
Q138:
Answer: Option D
Q139:
Answer: Option D
Q140:
Answer: Option C
Q141:
Answer: Option E
Q142:
Answer: Option C
Q143:
Answer: Option D
Q144:
Answer: Option A
Q145:
Answer: Option C
Q146:
Answer: Option D
Q147:
Answer: Option C
Q148:
Answer: Option D
Q149:
Answer: Option B
Q150:
Answer: Option B
Q151:
Answer: Option C
Q152:
Answer: Option B
Q153:
Answer: Option B
Q154:
Answer: Option B
Q155:
Answer: Option C