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IBPS PO Mains Practice Quiz

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IBPS PO Mains Practice Quiz

shape Introduction

Career in Banking is one of the most lucrative and most sought after careers. In India, Bank Recruitment Exams are primarily conducted for recruitment of Probationary Officers, Clerks & Specialist Officers. India currently[2019] has 93 commercial and 27 public sector banks out of which 19 are nationalized and 6 are SBI and its associate banks and rest two are IDBI Bank and Bharatiya Mahila Bank, which are categorized as other public sector banks. Recruitment for Bank Probationary Officers, Management Trainees, Clerks and for various other posts generally follow a 3 step recruitment process: Preliminary Exam + Mains Exam + Interview & Group Discussion. The article IBPS PO Mains Practice Quiz presents a practice set for the most sought after IBPS PO recruitment. Until the year 2013, All Public Sector Banks used to conduct their own entrance test, GDs and Personal Interview for recruiting candidates. However, after 2014, IBPS started conducting recruitment Tests for 12 PSU Banks. IBPS holds a separate entrance test for recruitment.

Mains exams are very important to clear every government sector or bank related recruitment process in India. Only those candidates who are selected in the Mains round are allowed to move further up in the recruitment process. The marks obtained in the Mains exams are considered for the final merit list. Mains exams usually consist of 4 sections, with 155 questions with a time duration of 3 hours. Mains exams most certainly have negative marking.

shape Quiz

1. Which of the following expressions is correct if the expression ‘Z > Y > W < V’ is definitely correct?

    A. V > Y
    B. W < Z
    C. Z > V
    D. Y > V
    E. None of these


Directions Q (2 – 7): Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons, In row 1, P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

A sits third to the right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbor of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends. Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbor of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbor of R.

2. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?

    A. B, F
    B. S, T
    C. P, R
    D. B, F
    E. None of these


3. Who amongst the following faces A?

    A. R
    B. T
    C. P
    D. Q
    E. S


4. How many persons are seated between T and S?

    A. One
    B. Two
    C. Three
    D. Four
    E. None


5. P is related to V in the same way as C is related to F. Which of the following is E related to, following the same pattern?

    A. B
    B. D
    C. C
    D. A
    E. None of these


6. Which of the following is true regarding F?

    A. F sits second to the right of C.
    B. F is not an immediate neighbor of A.
    C. F sits third to the left of D.
    D. F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
    E. F faces V.


7. Who amongst the following sits exactly between P and Q?

    A. R
    B. V
    C. S
    D. T
    E. Cannot be determined


Directions Q (8 – 12): Each of the questions below consists of a questions and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Read both the statements

Give answer (A) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (B) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (C) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (D) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (E) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

8. In a row of five A, B, C, D and E, who is standing in the middle?

Statements: I. D is to the immediate right of E and B is to the immediate left of E.
II. B is at the extreme left of the row.

9. How is Sushma related to Nandini?

Statements: I. Sushma’s husband is the only son of Nandini’s mother.
II. Sushma’s brother and Nandini’s husband are cousins.

10. Who has secured the maximum marks among six friends A, B, C, D, E, and F?

Statements: I. B secured fewer marks than A and F but not less than C, D, and E.
II. F secured more marks than B but not as much as A.

11. Out of the four teams A, B, C and D which team is not likely to win as per the opinion poll?

Statements: I. As per the opinion poll, chances of team C’s winning are more than that of team A but not as much as that of team B, whose chances of winning are more than that of team A.
II. As per the opinion poll team, C’s chances of winning are less than that of team B but not less than that of team D, whose chances of winning are more than that of team A.

12. How is ‘go’ written in a code language?

Statements: I. ‘you may go’ is written as ‘pit. ja ho’ in that code language.
II. ‘he may come’ is written as, ‘ja da na’ in that language.

Directions Q (13 – 16): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: joy far 35 27 16 96 height star

Step I: 96 joy far 35 27 16 height star

Step II: 96 far joy 35 27 16 height star

Step III: 96 far 35 joy 27 16 height star

Step IV: 96 far 35 height joy 27 16 star

Step V: 96 far 35 height 27 joy 16 star

And Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

13. Input: organize 19 12 stable room 35 72 house.

How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement?

    A. Five
    B. Six
    C. Seven
    D. Four
    E. None of these


14. Input: always go there 39 62 47 time 24.

Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

    A. VI
    B. VII
    C. VIII
    D. IX
    E. None of these


15. Step III of an input is: 86 box 63 18 gear card 51 new.

How many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement?

    A. Three
    B. Two
    C. Four
    D. Five
    E. None of these


16. Step IV of an input is: 59 bend 46 card 14 27 win now.

Which of the following will be stepping VII?

    A. 59 bend 46 cards now 27 wins 14
    B. 59 bend 46 cards 27 now win 14
    C. 59 bend 46 cards 27 now 14 win
    D. 59 bend 46 card 27 14 win now
    E. There will be no such step.


Directions Q (17 – 22):

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends, Meenal, Rumia, Shikha, Ali, Peter, Harleen, Ketan and Bharat, are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the center while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

Bharat sits second to the right of Shikha. Bharat does not sit at any of the corners. Meenal sits third to the right of Peter. Peter is not an immediate neighbor of Shikha. Rumia and Ketan are
immediate neighbors of each other but Rumia does not sit at any of the corners of the table. Harleen is an immediate neighbor of neither Peter nor Shikha.

17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

    A. Peter
    B. Rumia
    C. Harleen
    D. Shikha
    E. Bharat


18. Who sits third to the left of Ali?

    A. Bharat
    B. Rumia
    C. Shikha
    D. Peter
    E. Cannot be determined


19. What is the position of Peter with respect to Meenal?

    A. Immediate to the left
    B. Second to the left
    C. Third to the left
    D. Third to the right
    E. Second to the right


20. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of Ketan?

    A. Shikha
    B. Ali
    C. Bharat
    D. Harleen
    E. Meenal


21. Who amongst the following represent the immediate neighbors of Harleen?

    A. Meenal and Ketan
    B. Bharat, Rumia
    C. Bharat, Meenal
    D. Ali, Rumia
    E. Ali, Ketan


22. Who amongst the following sits exactly between Peter and Ali??

    A. Only Bharat
    B. Ketan and Rumia
    C. Only Harleen
    D. Harleen and Meenal
    E. No one sits between Peter and Ali.


Directions Q (23 – 28): In each question below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer.

23. Statements: All buildings are houses.
No house is an apartment.
All apartments are flats.

Conclusions: Step I: No flat is a house.
Step II: No buildings is an apartment.

    A. If only conclusion I follows.
    B. If only conclusion II follows.
    C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
    D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
    E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.


24. Statements: All buildings are houses.
No house is an apartment.
All apartments are flats.

Conclusions: Step I: All buildings being flats is an possibility.
Step II: All apartments being building is a possibility.

    A. If only conclusion I follows.
    B. If only conclusion II follows.
    C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
    D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
    E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.


25. Statements: Some oceans are seas.
All oceans are rivers.
No river is a canal.

Conclusions: Step I: All rivers can never be oceans.
Step II: All canals being oceans is a possibility.

    A. If only conclusion I follows.
    B. If only conclusion II follows.
    C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
    D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
    E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.


26. Statements: Some oceans are seas.
All oceans are rivers.
No river is a canal.

Conclusions: Step I: No ocean is a canal.
Step II: At least some seas are rivers.

    A. If only conclusion I follows.
    B. If only conclusion II follows.
    C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
    D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
    E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.


27. Statements: No day is night.
All nights are noon.
No noon is an evening.

Conclusions: Step I: No day is noon.
Step II: No day is an evening.

    A. If only conclusion I follows.
    B. If only conclusion II follows.
    C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
    D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
    E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.


28. Statements: No day is night.
All nights are noon.
No noon is an evening.

Conclusions: Step I: No evenings are nights.
Step II: All days being noon is a possibility.

    A. If only conclusion I follows.
    B. If only conclusion II follows.
    C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
    D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
    E. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.


Directions Q (29 – 30): In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions (A), (B) and (C). An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

29. Statement: The apex body controlling universities in the country has decided to revise the syllabus of all the technical courses to make them focused towards he present needs of the industry, thereby making the technical graduates more employable than they are at present.

Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the above statement?
A. Technical colleges affiliated to different universities may not welcome the apex body’s decision and may continue with the same syllabus as at present.
B. The industry may welcome the decision of the apex body and scale up their hiring from these colleges.
C. The Govt. may not allow the apex body to implement its decision in all the colleges as it may lead to chaos.

    A. None is implicit
    B. Only (A) is implicit
    C. Only (B) is implicit
    D. Only (C) is implicit
    E. Only (A) and (B) are implicit


30. Statement: Govt. has urged all the citizens to use electronic media for carrying out their daily activities, whenever possible, instead of using paper as the manufacture of paper requires the cutting down of a large number of trees causing severe damage to the ecosystem.

Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the above statement??
A. Most people may be capable of using electronic media to carry out various routines.
B. Most people may have access to electronic media for carrying out their daily routine activities.
C. People at large may reject the govt’s appeal and continue using paper as before.

    A. None is implicit
    B. Only (B) is implicit
    C. Only (A) and (B) are implicit
    D. Only (C) is implicit
    E. None of these


Directions Q (31 – 35): In each of the questions, there are two sets of figures. The figures on upper side are problem figures marked by letters (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5), and on the bottom side are answer figures marked by numbers (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). A series is established, if one of the five answer figures is placed in place of the (?) sign in the problem figures. That figure is your answer.

31.


32.


33.


34.



35.


36. A software that allows a personal computer to pretend as a computer terminal is

    A. Terminal adapter
    B. Bulletin board
    C. Modem
    D. Terminal emulation
    E. None of these


37. ‘.mpg’ extension refers usually to what kind of file

    A. Word Perfect Document file
    B. MS Office Document
    C. Animation/movie file
    D. Image file
    E. None of these


38. Which of the following best describes a computer-based information system

    A. Data input for processing
    B. Output in produced in the form of Hard copy
    C. Processing data
    D. A system where the computer is used to turn data into information
    E. None of these


39. Which of the following enables you to make multiple changes in a document at once

    A. Find command
    B. Replace command
    C. Drag and Drop
    D. Copy command
    E. None of these


40. What is FTP program used for

    A. Transfer files to and from an Internet Server
    B. Designing a website
    C. Connecting to the internet
    D. All of the the above
    E. None of these


41. By an intranet we mean

    A. a LAN of an organization
    B. a Wide Area Network connecting all branches of an organization
    C. a corporate computer network
    D. a network connecting all computers of an organization and using the internet.
    E. None of these


42. The code for a web page is written using __________ .

    A. machine language
    B. Win Zip
    C. Perl
    D. HTML
    E. None of these


43. The __________ directory is mandatory for every disk.

    A. Base
    B. Sub
    C. Folder
    D. Root
    E. None of these


44. A compiler is a translating program which

    A. Translate instruction of a high level language into machine language
    B. Translate entire source program into machine language program
    C. It is not involved in program’s execution
    D. All of above
    E. None of these


45. A computer programmer

    A. Does all the thinking for a computer
    B. Can enter input data quickly
    C. Can operate all types of computer equipment
    D. Can draw only flowchart
    E. None of these


Solutions: Q(1-45)

Q1.

Answer: Option A

Q_2-7):


Q2.

Answer: Option C

Q3.

Answer: Option E

Q4.

Answer: Option B

Q5.

Answer: Option A

Q6.

Answer: Option E

Q7.

Answer: Option D

Q8.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

From I, we get BED as a sequence. Now, II tells us that B is at the extreme left. Clearly then, D is third from left, i.e. in the middle of the five.

Q9.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

From I: Sushma’s husband is Nandini’s brother (only son of mother) Sushma is Nandini’s sister-in-law.

From II: Sushma’s brother = cousin of Nandini’s husband

⇒ Sushma = cousin of Nandini’s husband

= Nandini’s cousin-in-law

Q10.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

From I: A, F > B > C, D, E

Either A or F has secured maximum marks.

From II: Sushma’s brother = cousin of Nandini’s husband

A > F > B

From I and II, A secured the maximum marks.

Q11.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

From (I), B > C > A

D is not fro sent here, so no conclusion. isom (II)

B > C > D > A

So, A is not likely to win.

Q12.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

We do not know whether the codes of the given words are in the same order as the order of the words. Therefore, a statement I alone is not sufficient. Again, statement II does not consist of the word ‘go’. Hence, statement 11 alone is not sufficient. Even statements I and II together give the code for ‘may’ only.

Q(13-16):

In the first step, the largest number goes to the leftmost position, pushing the rest of the line rightward. In the next step, the word that comes first in the alphabetical order occupies the second position from the left, pushing the rest of the line rightward. Thus the numbers and words get arranged alternately till all the numbers are placed in the descending order and the words in the alphabetical order.

Q13.
Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Input: organize 19 12 stable room 35 72 house

Step I: 72 organize 19 12 stable room 35 houses

Step II: 72 house 35 organize 19 12 stable room 35

Step III: 72 house 35 organize 19 12 stable room

Step IV: 72 house organize 19 room 12 stable

Q14.
Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Input: always go there 39 62 47 time 24

Step I: 62 always go there 39 47 time 24

Step II: 62 always 47 go there 39 time 24

Step III: 62 always 47 go 39 there time 24

Step IV: 62 always 47 go 39 there 24 time

Hence step III will be the last but one.

Q15.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Step III: 86 box 63 18 gear card 51 new

Step IV: 86 box 63 card 18 gear 51 new

Step V: 86 box 63 card 51 18 gear new

Step VI: 86 box 63 card 51 gear 81 new

Hence 6 – 3 = 3 more steps will be required.

Q16.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Step IV: 59 bend 46 card 14 27 win now

Step V: 59 bend 46 card 27 14 win now

Step VI: 59 bend 46 card 27 now 14 win

Since the line is already arranged, there will be no step VII.

Q(17-22):


Q17.

Answer: Option C

Q18.

Answer: Option A

Q19.

Answer: Option D

Q20.

Answer: Option D

Q21.

Answer: Option B

Q22.

Answer: Option E

Q(23-24):

All buildings are houses + No house is an apartment = A + E = E = No building is an apartment (i). Again, No house is an apartment + All apartments are flats = E + A = O* = Some flats are not house (ii). Again, No building is an apartment + All apartments are flats = E + A = O* = Some flats are not buildings (iii).

Q23.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Conclusion (I) above is the conclusion II.

Q24.

Answer: Option D

Q(25-26):

Some oceans are seas (I) → conversion → Some seas are oceans (I) + All oceans are rivers = I + A = I = Some seas are rivers (i). Again, All ocean are rivers + No river is a canal = A +
E = E = No oceans is a canal (ii). Again, Some seas are rivers + No river is a canal = I + E = O* = Some canals are not seas (iii).

Q25.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

All rivers can never be oceans → implication → Some rivers are oceans. This conclusion is the converse of the given premise “All oceans are rivers.”

Q26.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Conclusion II is the above conclusion (ii). Conclusion I is the above conclusion (i).

Q(27-28):

No day is night + All nights are non = E + A = O* = Some noon are not days (i). Again, All nights are noon + No noon is an evening = A + E = E = No night is an evening (ii).

Q27.

Answer: Option D

Q28.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Conclusion I is converse of the above conclusion (ii).

Q29.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Whenever such a decision is taken, the assumptions are that it would be welcome and allowed to implement.

Q30.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

The urging of the govt makes sense only when (A) and (B) are implicit.

Q31.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

From problem figure (4) to (5) the lower design is reversed laterally while the other design moves to the opposite side. Similar changes would occur from problem figure (2) to (3).

Q32.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Symbol changes positions as shown in both the diagrams alternately and symbols in place of the sign ‘·’ remain unchanged in each of the successive figures.


Q33.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Each symbol of the figure rotates in Anticlockwise and a new symbol replaces the symbol at the top which is inverted alternatively in each of the successive figures.

Q34.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

From problem figure (1) to (2), first and second figure interchange their position and are reversed at the new positions and at the same time, third figure remains unchanged. From problem figure (2) to (3), second and third figures interchange their positions and are reversed at the new position and the figure (1) remain unchanged. The same problem is repeated alternatively.

Q35.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

In each step, both the line segments close to the sides of the hexagon, move to the adjacent sides in a Clockwise. Also the line segments at the corner move to the adjacent corner Clockwise and their number increases by one, in the first, third, fifth steps.

Q36.

Answer: Option D

Q37.

Answer: Option C

Q38.

Answer: Option D

Q39.

Answer: Option B

Q40.

Answer: Option A

Q41.

Answer: Option D

Q42.

Answer: Option D

Q43.

Answer: Option D

Q44.

Answer: Option D

Q45.

Answer: Option A
Directions Q(46 – 50): In each of the following questions a number series is given. Only one number is wrong in each series. Find out that wrong number, and taking this wrong number as the first term of the second series formed following the same logic, find out the third term of the second series.

46. 1 2 8 21 88 445

    A. 24.5
    B. 25
    C. 25.5
    D. 25
    E. None of these


47. 6 7 18 63 265 1365

    A. 530
    B. 534
    C. 526
    D. 562
    E. None of these


48. 7 23 58 127 269 555

    A. 263
    B. 261
    C. 299
    D. 286
    E. None of these


49. 5 4 9 18 66 195

    A. 12
    B. 25
    C. 20
    D. 18
    E. None of these


50. 2 7 28 146 877 6140

    A. 242
    B. 246
    C. 252
    D. 341
    E. None of these


Directions Q(51 – 55): These questions are based on the graph given below

Per cent profit earned by six companies during 2014 and 2015

Profit = Income – Expenditure

% Profit = \(\frac{Income – Expenditure}{Expenditure}\) x 100


51. If the income of company C in the year 2014 was ` 35 lakhs, what was its expenditure in that year?

    A. Rs. 24 lakhs
    B. Rs. 21 lakhs
    C. Rs. 25 lakhs
    D. Can’t be determined
    E. None of these


52. If, in the year 2015, total expenditure of companies B and C was ` 48 lakhs, then what was their total income in the same year?

    A. Rs. 32 lakhs
    B. Rs. 28.6 lakhs
    C. Rs. 34.2 lakhs
    D. Can’t be determined
    E. None of these


53. If, in the year 2014, expenditure of Company C was ` 32 lakhs, what was the income of the company in the same year?

    A. Rs. 44.2 lakhs
    B. Rs. 48.4 lakhs
    C. Rs. 46.4 lakhs
    D. Rs. 38 lakhs
    E. None of these


54. If the expenditures of Company E in the years 2014 and 2015 were the same, what was the ratio of the incomes of the company in the same years respectively?

    A. 19 : 21
    B. 11 : 12
    C. 29 : 31
    D. 9 : 11
    E. None of these


55. The income of Company D in the year 2014 was Rs. 31 lakhs. What was the earned profit?

    A. Rs. 11 lakhs
    B. Rs. 20 lakhs
    C. Rs. 17 lakhs
    D. Rs. 12 lakhs
    E. None of these


Directions Q(56 – 60): Study the following graph carefully to answer the question given below it.


56. What is the difference between the production of company C in 2010 and the production of Company A in 2015?

    A. 50,000 tonnes
    B. 5,00,00,000 tonnes
    C. 50,00,000 tonnes
    D. 5,00,000 tonnes
    E. None of these


57. What is the percentage increase in production of Company A from 2011 to 2012?

    A. 37.5
    B. 38.25
    C. 35
    D. 36
    E. None of these


58. For which of the following years the percentage of rise/fall in production from the previous year the maximum for Company B?

    A. 2011
    B. 2012
    C. 2013
    D. 2014
    E. 2015


59. The total production of Company C in 2012 and 2013 is what percentage of the total production of Company A in 2010 and 2011?

    A. 95
    B. 90
    C. 110
    D. 115
    E. 2015


60. What is the difference between the average production per year of the company with the highest average production and that of the company with the lowest average production in lakh tonnes?

    A. 3.17
    B. 4.33
    C. 4.17
    D. 3.33
    E. None of these


Directions Q(61 – 65): These questions are based on the following pie-chart which shows the viewership of different sports channels in the month of February 2015 in India. There are no overlaps in viewership of channels.


61. If 60000 people watched Star Sports on an average per day in February 2015, then how many more people watched Set Max than Ten Sports on an average per day for the same period?

    A. 27000
    B. 270000
    C. 36000
    D. 360000
    E. None of these


62. During the given period for how many sports channels the viewership is more than 20% of the total viewership?

    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


63. If the viewership of DD Sports of the first half of February is half that of the second half of February, then what is the ratio of viewership of DD sports for the second half to that of ESPN for the whole month?

    A. 2 : 3
    B. 5 : 6
    C. 8 : 9
    D. 9 : 10
    E. None of these


64. By mistake viewership of DD Sports has been under quoted by 20%. If this mistake is corrected, then what is the correct share of viewership of Set Max?

    A. 41\({3}{3}\)%
    B. 35%
    C. 40%
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


65. If the viewership of ESPN on an average was 90000 per day, than what was the viewership for all the sports channels on an average per day?

    A. 540000
    B. 600000
    C. 630000
    D. 720000
    E. None of these


Directions Q(66 – 70): These questions are based on the following information.

A total of 250 students of a class play different games viz football, hockey, chess, badminton, table tennis, and tennis. The ratio of girls to boys in the class of 250 is 13 : 12 respectively. 50% of the girls play table tennis and badminton only. 20% of the boys play football, hockey, and tennis only. 15% of the boys play tennis and chess only. The ratio of a number of girls to boys playing tennis and chess only is 2 : 3 respectively. 30% of the girls plays hockey and chess only. 10% of the girls play chess, badminton and table tennis only. The remaining girls play only football. Boys playing table-tennis and badminton only is 20% of the girls playing the same. 40% of the boys play only football, The remaining boys play only chess.

66. What is the total number of students playing football?

    A. 72
    B. 64
    C. 68
    D. 73
    E. None of these


67. How many students play tennis?

    A. 35
    B. 48
    C. 50
    D. 59
    E. None of these


68. How many girls do not play chess?

    A. 66
    B. 62
    C. 58
    D. 55
    E. None of these


69. What is the ratio of number of girls playing hockey to the number of boys playing hockey respectively?

    A. 5 : 16
    B. 13 : 8
    C. 8 : 13
    D. 16 : 5
    E. None of these


70. What is the total number of students playing badminton?

    A. 84
    B. 88
    C. 91
    D. 78
    E. None of these


Directions Q(71 – 75): Study the tables carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Number of candidates (in lakhs) appearing in an entrance examination from six different cities and the ratio of candidates passing and failing the same.

City Number of Candidates
A 12.5
B 3.14
C 1.08
D 2.27
E 1.85
F 2.73


Ratio of candidates passing and failing within the city.

City Passing Failing
A 7 3
B 5 3
C 4 3
D 1 3
E 3 2
F 7 5


71. What is the ratio of the number of candidates failing the exam from City D to that of those failing the exam from City A?

    A. 289 : 42
    B. 42 : 289
    C. 227 : 50
    D. 50 : 227
    E. None of these


72. The number of candidates appearing for the exam from City C is what percent of the number of candidates appearing for the exam from City B? (rounded off to the nearest integer)?

    A. 27
    B. 34
    C. 42
    D. 21
    E 38


73. The number of candidates passing in the exam from City F is what percent of the total number of candidates appearing from all the cities together? (rounded off to two digits after the decimal).?

    A. 12.93
    B. 14.46
    C. 10.84
    D. 11.37
    E. None of these


74. Which city has the highest number of students failing the entrance exam?

    A. F
    B. C
    C. B
    D. D
    E. None of these


75. What is the number of candidates passing the exam from City E?

    A. 13,000
    B. 11,10,000
    C. 1,13,000
    D. 11,000
    E. None of these


76. Pradip spends 40 per cent of his monthly income on food items, and 50 per cent of the remaining on clothes and conveyance. He saves one-third of the remaining amount after spending on food, clothes and conveyance. If he saves Rs. 19,200 every year, what is his monthly income?

    A. Rs. 24,000
    B. Rs. 12,000
    C. Rs. 16,000
    D. Rs. 20,000
    E. None of these


77. A man bought a horse and a carriage for Rs. 3000. He sold the horse at a gain of 20% and the carriage at a loss 10%, thereby gaining 2% on the whole. Find the cost of the horse.?

    A. Rs. 1000
    B. Rs. 1200
    C. Rs. 1500
    D. Rs. 1700
    E. None of these


78. Two workers A and B working together completed a job in 5 days. If A worked twice as efficiently as he actually did and B worked\(\frac{1}{3}\) as efficiently as he actually did, the work would have completed in 3 days. Find the time for A to complete the job alone.
?

    A. 6\(\frac{1}{4}\) days
    B. 5\(\frac{3}{4}\) days
    C. 5 days
    D. 3 days
    E. None of these


79. A man walks half of the journey at 4 km/h by cycle does one third of journey at 12 km/h and rides the remainder journey in a horse cart at 9 km/h, thus completing the whole journey in 6 hours and 12 minutes. The length of the journey is

    A. 36 km
    B. \(\frac{1332}{67}\) km
    C. 40 km
    D. 28 km
    E. None of these


80. A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. 2 balls are to be drawn randomly. What is the probability that the balls drawn contain no blue ball?

    A. \(\frac{5}{7}\)
    B. \(\frac{10}{21}\)
    C. \(\frac{2}{7}\)
    D. \(\frac{11}{21}\)
    E. None of these


Solutions: Q(46-80)

Q46.

Answer: Option E

Explanation: The series is × l + 1, × 2 + 2, × 3 + 3, … So 8 is wrong.

Q47.

Answer: Option E

Explanation: The series is × l + \({1}^{2}\), x \({2}^{2}\), x \({3}^{2}\)

Q48.

Answer: Option B

Explanation: The series is × 2 + 9, × 2 + 11, × 2 + 13 ….

Q49.

Answer: Option D

Explanation: The series is × 1 – 1, × 2 + 2, × 2 – 2, × 3 + 3, ….

Q50.

Answer: Option D

Explanation: The series is × 3 + 1, × 4 + 1, × 5 + 1, ….

Q51.

Answer: Option C

Explanation: Expenditure of Company C in 2014

35 X \(\frac{100}{140}\) = Rs. 25 lakhs

Q52.

Answer: Option D

Explanation: Here, the percentage profits of Companies B and C in 2001 were not the same. Therefore, can’t be determined is the correct choice.

Q53.

Answer: Option E

Explanation: Income of Company C in 2014

32 X \(\frac{100}{140}\) = Rs. 44.80 lakhs

Q54.

Answer: Option C

Q55.

Answer: Option A

Explanation: Expenditure of Company D in 2014

31 X \(\frac{100}{155}\) = Rs. 20 lakhs

Profit = Income – Expenditure

= 31 – 20 = Rs. 11 lakhs

Q56.

Answer: Option D

Explanation: Difference of production of C in 2010 and A in 2015 = 5,00,000 tonnes

Q57.

Answer: Option A

Explanation: Percentage increase of A from 2011 to 2012

31 X \(\frac{55 – 40}{40}\) X 100 = 37.5%

Q58.

Answer: Option B

Explanation: Percentage rise/fall in production for B

Year Percentage
2011 9%
2012 –16.6%
2013 – 9%
2014 10%


Here, the maximum difference is from 2011 to 2012, which is 10. And the second nearest to it is fall or rise of 5. So, undoubtedly the answer is 2012.

Q59.

Answer: Option E

Explanation: Percentage production = \(\frac{120}{90}\) X 100 = 133.3%

Q60.

Answer: Option C

Explanation: Average production of A = 50

Average production of B = 54.17

Average production of C = 50

Difference of production = 54.17 – 50 = 4.17

Q61.

Answer: Option B

Q62.

Answer: Option A

Explanation: Angle showing 20% viewership = \(\frac{20}{100}\) x 360 = \({72}^{0}\)

From pie-chart, it is clear that only Set Max has shown angle more than \({72}^{0}\)

Q63.

Answer: Option C

Explanation: Required ratio = \(\frac{60}{3}\) X 2:45 = 40:45 = 8:9

Q64.

Answer: Option C

Explanation: It is given 80% of actual value of DD sports = \({60}^{0}\)

Hence, actual value of DD sports = \({75}^{0}\)

Hence, % share of Set Max = \(\frac{150}{360 + 75 – 60 }\) X 100

= \(\frac{150}{375 }\) X 100 = 40%

Q65.

Answer: Option D

Explanation: Required viewership = \(\frac{360}{45}\) X 90000 = 720000

Solutions: Q(66-70)

Total = 250 students

Girls = \(\frac{250 × 13}{13 + 2 }\) = 130

Boys = \(\frac{250 × 12}{13 + 2 }\) = 120

50% girls play only table-tennis and badminton = \(\frac{130 × 50}{100 }\) = 65

30% Girls play hockey and chess only = \(\frac{130 × 30}{100 }\) = 39

10% Girls play chess, badminton and table tennis only = \(\frac{130 × 10}{100 }\) = 13

Girls play tennis and chess only \(\frac{18 }{3 }\) x 2 = 12

Girls play football only = 130 – (65 + 39 + 13 + 12) = 1 20% of boys play football, hockey and tennis only

Girls = \(\frac{120 × 20}{100 }\) = 24

15% of boys play tennis and chess only = \(\frac{120 × 15}{100 }\) = 18

Boys playing table tennis and badminton = \(\frac{65 × 20}{100 }\) = 13

40% of boys play only football = \(\frac{120 × 40}{100 }\) = 48

Boys play only chess = 120 – (24+ 18 + 13 + 48) = 17

Q66.

Answer: Option D

Explanation: Number of students playing football = 48 + 24 + 1 = 73

Q67.

Answer: Option E

Explanation: Number of students playing tennis

= 65 + 13 + 12 + 24 + 18 + 13 = 145

Q68.

Answer: Option A

Explanation: Number of students playing tennis

Number of girls playing chess = 12 + 39 + 13 = 64
Number of girls not playing chess = 130 – 64 = 66

Q69.

Answer: Option B

Explanation: Required ratio = 39 : 24 = 13 : 8

Q70.

Answer: Option C

Explanation: Number of students playing badminton

= 65 + 13 +13 = 91

Q71.

Answer: Option C

Explanation: Required ratio = \(\frac{3}{4 }\) X 2.27 : \(\frac{3}{10 }\) X 1.25

= 1.7025 : 0.375 = 227 : 50

Q72.

Answer: Option B

Explanation: Required percentage = \(\frac{1.08}{3.14 }\) X 100 = 34

Q73.

Answer: Option A

Explanation: Total number of candidates appearing from all the cities together

= (1.25 + 3.14 + 1.08 + 2.27 + 1.85 + 2.73) lakhs

= 12.32 lakhs

Number of candidates passing from City F = \(\frac{7}{12 }\) x 2.73 = 1.5924 lakh

Required percentage = \(\frac{1.5925}{12.32 }\) = 12.93

Q74.

Answer: Option D

Q75.

Answer: Option E

Q76.

Answer: Option C

Q77.

Answer: Option B

Q78.

Answer: Option A

Q79.

Answer: Option A

Q80.

Answer: Option B

Directions Q(81 – 85): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below.

A. Unfortunately, because of modernization, much of nature is now yielding to towns, roads, and industrial areas.
B. In a few places, some natural reserves are now being carved out to avert the danger of destroying nature completely.
C. We should preserve nature to preserve life and beauty.
D. Man will perish without nature, so modern man should continue this struggle to save plants from extinction.
E. A beautiful landscape, full of green vegetation, will not just attract our attention but will fill us with infinite satisfaction.a.

81. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. E


82. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. E


83. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. E


84. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. E


85. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. E


Directions Q(86 – 90): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by the numbers (a), (b),(c), (d) and (e). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

86. To __________ time, please go __________ foot and not by bus.

    A. speed, with
    B. kill, towards
    C. utilise, on
    D. gain, on
    E. None of these


87. There to __________ be an air of peace now __________ in our country.

    A. seems, blowing
    B. looks, flowing
    C. feels, advancing
    D. seem, floating
    E. None of these


88. Satish reminded him __________ his promise but he was quite indifferent to __________ Satish said.

    A. of, what
    B. for, when
    C. on, while
    D. to, which
    E. None of these


89. What is sauce for the __________ is sauce for the __________

    A. cock, hen
    B. fox, vixen
    C. goose, gander
    D. duck, doe
    E. None of these


90. Everyone was __________ by surprise when she __________ her plan to marry that boy.

    A. moved, said
    B. taken, announced
    C. shaken, declare
    D. dead, asked
    E. None of these


Directions Q(91 – 100): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Delinking of jobs 91. degrees is one of the salient 92. of our education 93. There has been a steep 94. in 95. in the academic field in recent years. There are a 96 of degree holders in the country. As a result, university degrees have lost their value and charm while the number of students in colleges and universities of the country has been steadily 97. Consequently, thousands of graduates and postgraduates come out of these institutions and stand in 98 waiting to get some 99 jobs 100 in the country.

91.

    A. to
    B. with
    C. from
    D. by
    E. None of these


92.

    A. factors
    B. features
    C. reasons
    D. methods
    E. None of these


93.

    A. process
    B. system
    C. procedures
    D. policy
    E. None of these


94.

    A. fall
    B. rise
    C. down
    D. decrease
    E. None of these


95.

    A. evaluation
    B. assessment
    C. result
    D. competence
    E. None of these


96.

    A. flood
    B. growth
    C. increase
    D. slope
    E. None of these


97.

    A. falling
    B. diminishing
    C. rising
    D. growing
    E. None of these


98.

    A. lines
    B. long
    C. rows
    D. queues
    E. None of these


99.

    A. managerial
    B. nice
    C. prestigious
    D. available
    E. None of these


100.

    A. vacate
    B. posted
    C. created
    D. available
    E. None of these


Directions Q(91 – 100): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a country where consumers have traditionally had a raw deal, the Consumer Protection Act was one of the most progressive acts of legislation introduced in 1986. Before this, a shop could get away easily with the line “goods once sold will not be taken back or exchanged” or a car parking contractor with “park at your own risk”. It is not that things have changed now but at least a legislation is in place and a forum is available to seek redressal. One of the basic limitations of this act is its mystification and general ignorance. No consumer agency or group has made its provisions general, nor has any redressal commission or forum. Restricted as it is by a lack of infrastructure and personnel and great verdicts to encourage consumers. The legislation is comprehensive. It gives consumers the right to redress against defective goods, deficient services and unfair trade practices.
Consumer courts must deliver their judgments within 40 days, but rarely is this deadline adhered to. This reviewer had a first- hand experience of the chairman of a consumer court in Delhi who adjourned a case against a foreign airline for two years on the grounds that he did not have the staff to type the orders. His replacement found the backlog so shocking that he dismissed several cases without applying his mind, in the process working against the interests of consumers. But what is more important is that the law has it that a consumer can approach the court on his own without having to pay legal fees. In practice, this does not happen. The chairperson of the National Commission, who is a sitting judge, is so attuned to delivering judgments which can stand scrutiny in a civil court of law that it is insisted upon that a consumer must be represented by a lawyer. If not, cases are adjourned with impunity and set for another day. Girimaji’s attempt is credible in that it is the first of its kind and has addressed almost all possible angles. She has discussed redressals in complaints about housing, basic telephony, rail transportation, power supply, life insurance, and medical negligence. There are even tips on how to file a complaint. But it is mired in the case files of the National/ State Commissions of the Consumer Forum. A useful dimension would have been a comparison with the Law of Torts practiced abroad. It is necessary here also, especially in an era of economic liberalization, when the consumer is likely to be swept off his feet by free-market forces.

101. Why is the consumer likely to be swept off his feet?

    A. He is easily taken in by the deceptive publicity.
    B. He is wooed by the charm of foreign brands readily available in the market.
    C. He is not aware of the Law of Torts as practiced abroad.
    D. He is not aware of the benefits of consumer rights.
    E. The Consumer Protection Act has been implemented and he can seek redressal.


102. What does ‘lack of… verdicts’ imply?

    A. A lack of the basis of the system, trained staff and decisions based on fact
    B. A paucity of funds, jury, and judgment
    C. A lack of resources, employees and final decision based on facts
    D. Not having the required manpower, economy and decisive ruling
    E. None of these


103. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Girimaji’s attempt is comprehensive but could have done with an angle or two more.
B. Though the Act allows the consumer to approach the court on his own, yet a lawyer to represent him is insisted upon.
C. Despite the Act, much remains the same.

    A. Only A and C
    B. Only A and B
    C. Only B and C
    D. Only B and C
    E. None of these


104. What does the author mean by ‘mystification of the Act’?

    A. The mysterious Act is yet to be resolved.
    B. The consumer is wary of the Act.
    C. The Act is not easily accessible.
    D. The consumer remains unaware of his rights and privileges.
    E. The plight of the consumer is yet to end.


105. Which of the following best describes the judge’s replacement?

    A. He was partial towards the airline as it was a foreign one.
    B. He never bothered to safeguard the interests of the reviewer.
    C. He dismissed cases without even giving a second thought to what cases came to him.
    D. He was apathetic and uninterested about the direction the case might head in.
    E. He passed irrelevant verdicts indifferently.


106. What does the Act broadly cover?

    A. It protects the right to redress.
    B. It is a forum that protects the redresser.
    C. It shields the consumer from deceptive and unfair trade practices.
    D. It enables the plaintiff to fight his case free of cost.
    E. None of these


107. Which of the following is a limitation of the Act?

    A. It does not cover the international law of torts.
    B. It is not comprehensive with regard to the liberal economy.
    C. No forum or commission has come forward to bring it to light.
    D. Its red-tapism
    E. None of these


Directions Q(108 – 109): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

108. Forum?

    A. Dias
    B. Podium
    C. Platform
    D. Stage
    E. None of these


109. Attuned?

    A. Brought into harmony
    B. Adjusted
    C. Hazardous
    D. Out of tune
    E. Malpractice


Directions Q(110 – 111): Select the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

110. Impunity?

    A. Penalized
    B. Fine
    C. Sentence
    D. Freedom from punishment
    E. None of these


111. Mired?

    A. Buried
    B. Muddy
    C. Steeped
    D. Free
    E. None of these


Directions Q(112 – 113): Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct alternatives from (a), (b), (c), (d) & (e) which represent all those synonyms.

112. HAMPER

(1) Prevent
(2) A large basket
(3) A gift
(4) A laundry

    A. 1, 2
    B. 2, 4
    C. 3, 1
    D. 1, 4
    E. 4, 3


113. DENT

(1) Tooth of Gearwheel
(2) Sleaze
(3) Depression
(4) Penetration

    A. 1, 4
    B. 2, 4
    C. 3, 1
    D. 1, 2
    E. 4, 3


114. STRIKE

(1) Military Attack
(2) Discover
(3) Lockout
(4) Snap

    A. 1, 2, 4
    B. 2, 4
    C. 3, 1
    D. 1, 4
    E. 4, 3


115. GLANCE

(1) A quick look
(2) Scan
(3) Review
(4) Reflect

    A. 1, 2, 3
    B. 1, 2
    C. 2, 1, 4
    D. 2, 3, 4
    E. All of (1), (2), (3), (4)


Solutions: Q(81-115)

Q81.

Answer: Option C

Q82.

Answer: Option E

Q83.

Answer: Option A

Q84.

Answer: Option B

Q85.

Answer: Option D

Q86.

Answer: Option E

Q87.

Answer: Option E

Q88.

Answer: Option A

Q89.

Answer: Option C

Q90.

Answer: Option B

Q91.

Answer: Option C

Q92.

Answer: Option B

Q93.

Answer: Option A

Q94.

Answer: Option A

Q95.

Answer: Option D

Q96.

Answer: Option A

Q97.

Answer: Option C

Q98.

Answer: Option D

Q99.

Answer: Option C

Q100.

Answer: Option D

Q101.

Answer: Option B

Q102.

Answer: Option B

Q103.

Answer: Option D

Q104.

Answer: Option D

Q105.

Answer: Option C

Q106.

Answer: Option C

Q107.

Answer: Option E

Q108.

Answer: Option C

Q109.

Answer: Option B

Q110.

Answer: Option A

Q111.

Answer: Option D

Q112.

Answer: Option A

Q113.

Answer: Option A

Q114.

Answer: Option A

Q115.

Answer: Option C

116. Which of the following amendments in the Banking Regulation Act 1949 has the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) asked for finalizing guidelines for new banking licenses?

    A. Any acquisition of 5% or more of the share capital of a bank should be subject to the Central Bank’s approval
    B. RBI should have the authority to supersede the board of directors of a banking company and appoint an administrator during the period of supersession
    C. RBI should have the authority to call for information or inspection of any associate enterprise of a banking company.
    D. All the above
    E. None of the above


117. Which of the following activities can lead to financial inclusion in India?

Issuing of general purpose credit cards.
(2) Strict know your customer’ (KYC) norms
(3) The opening of Bank branches in unbanked rural areas.
(4) The opening of the no-frills account.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
    B. 2, 3 and 4 only
    C. 1, 3 and 4 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    E. None of the above


118. Consider the following statements :

(1) Fiat money is a term used for Gold coins
(2) Currency Deposit Ratio is the proportion of the total deposits commercial banks keep as reserves.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2
    E. None of the above


119. As we know, the Government is paying much attention to “Micro Finance” these days. Which of the following is one of the examples of Micro Finance?

    A. Insurance for life
    B. Investment in Mutual Funds
    C. Self Help Groups
    D. Letter of Credit
    E. All of these


120. Which of the following organisations/agencies frame the Monetary and Credit Policy which is followed by all banks in India?

    A. Indian Bank’s Association
    B. Reserve Bank of India
    C. Securities and Exchange Board of India
    D. Government of India
    E. All of these


121. When the RBI wants to inject liquidity into the economy, it may adopt the following :

(1) Buy the government securities from the banks.
(2) Enter into reverse repo operations
(3) Raise cash Reserve Ratio
(4) Reduce SLR.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    A. 1 only
    B. 1 and 4 only
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    E. None of these


122. Which of the following definitions are correct?

(i) Basis points: increase in interest rates in percentage terms.
(ii) Repo rate: rate at which commercial banks borrow from the RBI by selling their securities or financial assets to the RBI for a long period of time.
(iii) Reverse repo rate: rate of interest at which the central bank borrows funds from other banks for a short duration.
(iv) Cash reserve ratio: minimum percentage of cash deposits that banks must keep with itself to avoid liquidity issues.

    A. (i) & (ii)
    B. (ii), (iii) & (iv)
    C. (ii) & (iv)
    D. (iii) & (iv)
    E. None of these


123. The Bank Case Information System (BCIS) is being developed by which of the following bodies, in the wake of increasing cases of bank frauds? It would contain names of accused persons besides the details of borrowers and the public servants concerned.

    A. Reserve Bank of India
    B. Indian Bank’s Association
    C. Ministry of Finance
    D. Central Statistical Organisation
    E. Central Bureau of Investigation


124. Which of the following terms is NOT a financial term

    A. Investment
    B. El Nino effect
    C. Core banking Solution
    D. RTGS
    E. All are financial terms


125. Which of the following is NOT a public sector bank

    A. Corporation Bank
    B. United Bank of India
    C. Vijaya Bank
    D. Bank of Maharashtra
    E. Axis Bank


126. Core Banking Solution(CBS) provides


1. multiple delivery channels to the customers.
2. better MIS and reporting to external agencies such as the government, RBI, etc.
3. better asset liability management and risk management by banks.

Select the answer from the codes given below: Codes:

    A. 1 and 2
    B. 2 and 3
    C. 1 and 3
    D. All of the above
    E. None of these


127. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges messages between banks and financial institutions is known as _________ _.

    A. CHAPS
    B. SWIFT
    C. NEFT
    D. SFMS
    E. CHIPS

.

128. The term ‘Smart Money” refers to __________.

    A. Foreign Currency
    B. Internet Banking
    C. US Dollars
    D. Travelers’ cheques
    E. Credit Cards


129. Which one of the following is a retail banking product?

    A. Home Loans
    B. Working capital finance
    C. Corporate term loans
    D. Infrastructure financing
    E. Export Credit


130. Which of the following books has been written by Bill Gates?

    A. Microsoft Secrets
    B. The Road Ahead
    C. The Elephant Paradigm
    D. How Nations Compete
    E. None of these


131. The expansion for the BIS, in the context of the banking industry is?

    A. Bank for International Settlements
    B. Bank for Industrial Settlements
    C. Bank for Industrial Sectors
    D. Bank for International Services
    E. None of these


132. In 1955, Imperial Bank of India, a leading commercial bank of that time, was nationalised and renamed as?

    A. Central Bank of India
    B. Bank of India
    C. Indian Bank
    D. State Bank of India
    E. None of these


133. What is the full form of ‘FINO’, a term we see frequently in financial newspapers?

    A. Financial Investment Network and Operations
    B. Farmers’ Investment in National Organisation
    C. Farmers’ Inclusion News and Operations
    D. Financial Inclusion Network and Operations
    E. None of these


134. Which of the following terms is NOT a financial term?

    A. Investment
    B. El Nino effect
    C. Core banking Solution
    D. RTGS
    E. All are financial terms


135. Which of the following rates is/are NOT decided by RBI?

    A. Bank Rate
    B. Repo rate
    C. Prime Lending Rate
    D. Cash Reserve Ratio
    E. None of these


136. Which of the following is not a tax/duty levied by the Government of India?

    A. Service Tax
    B. Education Cess
    C. Customs Duty
    D. Toll Tax
    E. None of these


137. Who is the first woman to win a Nobel prize?

    A. Marie Curie
    B. Pearls Buck
    C. Bertha Von Seffner
    D. Mother Teresa
    E. None of these


138. Jnanpith Award is given for excellence in the field of?

    A. Music
    B. Social Service
    C. Literature
    D. Classical Dance
    E. None of these


139. Which of the following is NOT a public sector bank?

    A. Corporation Bank
    B. United Bank of India
    C. Vijaya Bank
    D. Bank of Maharashtra
    E. Axis Bank


140. Who is the author of book Durbar?

    A. Amitav Ghosh
    B. Tavleen Singh
    C. Amit Chaudhuri
    D. Arundhati Roy
    E. None of these


141. RBI was established in 1935 pursuant to the recommendations of?

    A. The Hilton Young Commission
    B. All India Rural Credit Survey Committee
    C. Gorawala Committee
    D. Talwar Committee
    E. None of these


142. Which of the following does not come in the purview of retail banking?

    A. Advances to traders
    B. Advances of small scale units
    C. Financing of weaker sections of the society
    D. Loan syndicate
    E. None of these


143. Insurance Business can be divided into?

    A. Life Insurance
    B. General Insurance
    C. Fire Insurance
    D. Both (1) and (2)
    E. None of these


144. Indian Financial System comprises of?

    A. Scheduled Commercial Banks
    B. Non-Banking Financial Institutions
    C. Urban Co-operative Banks
    D. All of the above
    E. None of these


145. None-Banking Financial Institutions comprise of?

    A. Development Finance Institutions (DFIs)
    B. Insurance Companies
    C. Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), Primary Dealers (PDs) and capital market intermediaries e.g., mutual funds.
    D. All of the above
    E. None of these


146. Which of the following is a Term Lending institution?

    A. EXIM Bank
    B. IDBI Bank Ltd
    C. ICICI Bank Ltd
    D. All of these
    E. None of these


147. Which of the following is an investment institution?

    A. Life Insurance Corporation of India
    B. IDBI Bank Ltd
    C. ICICI Bank Ltd
    D. State Bank of India
    E. None of these


148. The commercial banking system in India consists of?

    A. Nationalized Banks and Private Sector Banks
    B. Scheduled and Non-scheduled Banks
    C. Regional Rural Banks, Co-operative Banks and Land Development Banks
    D. All of the above
    E. None of these


149. Which of the following is known as the Central Bank of the country?

    A. Central Bank of India
    B. Reserve Bank of India
    C. IDBI
    D. IBRD
    E. SBI


150. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of:

    A. both saving and fixed accounts
    B. saving and current accounts.
    C. current and fixed accounts.
    D. all type of accounts available.
    E. None of these


151. What does the letter ‘M’ denote in the name ‘MFI’ as used in the financial sector?

    A. Mega
    B. Micro
    C. Multiple
    D. Monetary
    E. None of these


152. The break-even point is where-?

    A. Average revenue equals average cost
    B. Marginal revenue equals marginal cost
    C. Total Revenue equals total cost
    D. Marginal revenue equals total cost
    E. None of these


153. A short-term government security paper is called?

    A. Treasury Bill
    B. Share
    C. Debenture
    D. Mutual Fund
    E. None of these


154. The Industrial Finance Corporation of India was set up in _____?

    A. March 1948
    B. April 1948
    C. July 1948
    D. October 1948
    E. None of these


155. The Industrial Finance Corporation of India provides loans to _____?

    A. Industries in public sector only
    B. Industries set up for export promotion
    C. Joint-stock companies in the public or private or joint sector or co-operative sector
    D. All of the above
    E. None of these


Solutions: Q(115-155)

Q115.

Answer: Option C

Q116.

Answer: Option D

Q117.

Answer: Option D

Q118.

Answer: Option C

Q119.

Answer: Option C

Q120.

Answer: Option B

Q121.

Answer: Option B

Q122.

Answer: Option C

Q123.

Answer: Option E

Q124.

Answer: Option B

Q125.

Answer: Option E

Q126.

Answer: Option D

Q127.

Answer: Option B

Q128.

Answer: Option E

Q129.

Answer: Option B

Q130.

Answer: Option B

Q131.

Answer: Option A

Q132.

Answer: Option D

Q133.

Answer: Option D

Q134.

Answer: Option C

Q135.

Answer: Option C

Q136.

Answer: Option D

Q137.

Answer: Option A

Q115.

Answer: Option C

Q138.

Answer: Option E

Q139.

Answer: Option C

Q140.

Answer: Option B

Q141.

Answer: Option A

Q142.

Answer: Option D

Q143.

Answer: Option D

Q144.

Answer: Option D

Q145.

Answer: Option D

Q146.

Answer: Option A

Q147.

Answer: Option A

Q148.

Answer: Option B

Q149.

Answer: Option B

Q150.

Answer: Option B

Q151.

Answer: Option B

Q152.

Answer: Option C

Q153.

Answer: Option A

Q154.

Answer: Option C

Q155.

Answer: Option C