IBPS PO - SPLessons

IBPS PO Main Practice Test

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IBPS PO Main Practice Test

shape Introduction

Main Examination is important to qualify the interview round of the recruitment process. IBPS PO Main Practice & Test section allows candidates to practice the learned material to ensure the candidate understands the pattern of the exam and the expected questions that would appear in the actual test.


shape Pattern

S.No. Name of Test
(NOT BY SEQUENCE)
No. of
Questions
Maximum
Marks
Medium of
Exam
Time Allotted for Each
Test (Separately Timed)
1 Reasoning & Computer Aptitude 45 60 English & Hindi 60 minutes
2 General/Economy/Banking Awareness 40 40 English & Hindi 35 minutes
3 English Language 35 40 English 40 minutes
4 Data Analysis and Interpretation 35 60 English & Hindi 45 minutes
TOTAL 155 200 3 hours

shape Syllabus

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shape Test

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shape Samples

Reasoning Ability
Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:

Six exams Maths, science, History, Economics, English and Hindi are to be scheduled starting from 2nd March and ending on 8th march wit Sunday being an off day, not necessarily in the same order. Each of the exam has different time duration: 40 mins, 50 mins, 60 mins, 75 mins, 90 mins and 100 mins, again not necessarily in the same order. 8th march is not sunday and an exam of 40 mins is scheduled on that day. Maths exam is for less than 60 mins and is scheduled immediately before English exam. There are two exams scheduled between Hindi exam which is for 100 mins and History exam which is for 60 mins. English exam is before Sunday and there are two days between sunday and maths exam. Economics exam which is for 75 mins is not scheduled on 2nd march. The exam schedules on saturday is of 100 mins.

1. How many exams are scheduled before Sunday?

    A. Two
    B. One
    C. Five
    D. Three
    E. None of these

Answer: E


2. Which of the following combinations of exam – Day – Time Duration is correct ?

    A. English – Wednesday – 75 mins
    B. Maths – Thursday – 50 mins
    C. History – Thursday – 60 mins
    D. Hindi – Tuesday – 100 mins
    E. None is correct

Answer: B


3. What is the time duration of science exam?

    A. 90 mins
    B. 75 mins
    C. 50 mins
    D. 40 mins
    E. None of these

Answer: D


4. On which day is Economics exam scheduled?

    A. Monday
    B. Saturday
    C. Tuesday
    D. Friday
    E. Cannot be determined

Answer: A


5. Which day is Sunday?

    A. 3rd March
    B. 2nd March
    C. 5th March
    D. 6th March
    E. Cannot be determined

Answer: D

Directions (1 – 5): Each of these questions are based on the information given below:

1. A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line facing to south – while M, N, O, P and Q are five ladies sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing to North.

2. B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q.

3. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other.

4. E is opposite to O who is just next right of M.

5. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D.

6. M is at one end of the line.

1. Who is sitting third to the right of O?

    A. Q
    B. N
    C. M
    D. Data inadequate

Answer: B


2. If B shifts to the place of E, E shifts to the place of Q, and Q shifts to the place of B, then who will be the second to the left of the person opposite to O?

    A. Q
    B. P
    C. E
    D. D

Answer: A


3.Which of the following pair is diagonally opposite to each other?

    A. EQ
    B. BO
    C. AN
    D. AM

Answer: D


4. If O and P, A and E and B and Q interchange their positions, then who will be the second person to the right of the person who is opposite to the person second of the right of P?

    A. D
    B. A
    C. E
    D. O

Answer: B


5. In the original arrangement who is sitting just opposite to N?

    A. B
    B. A
    C. C
    D. D

Answer: B

1. Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z, then in which direction of Y, is P?

    A. North
    B. South
    C. South-East
    D. None of these

Answer: D


2. The length and breadth of a room are 8 m and 6 m respectively. A cat runs along all the four walls and finally along a diagonal order to catch a rat. How much total distance is covered by the cat?

    A. 10
    B. 14
    C. 38
    D. 48

Answer: Option C


3. One morning sujata started to walk towards the Sun. After covering some distance she turned to right then again to the right and after covering some distance she again turns to the right. Now in which direction is she facing?

    A. North
    B. South
    C. North-East
    D. South-West

Answer: Option A

1. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?

    A. Brother
    B. Sister
    C. Nephew
    D. Cannot be determined

Answer: D


2. Introducing a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of the mother of my mother.” How is the woman related to the man?

    A. Mother
    B. Sister
    C. Niece
    D. Maternal aunt

Answer: C


3. Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, “His mother is the only daughter of your father.” How was the woman related to the person?
A. Aunt
B. Mother
C. Wife
D. Daughter
Answer: A

Directions (1 – 5): In each of the following questions two statements are given. Which are followed by four conclusions (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

1. Statements: No door is dog. All the dogs are cats.

Conclusions:

      No door is cat.

      No cat is door.

      Some cats are dogs.

      All the cats are dogs.
    A. Only (2) and (4)
    B. Only (1) and (3)
    C. Only (3) and (4)
    D. Only (3)
    E. All the four

Answer: D


2. Statements: All green are blue. All blue are white.

Conclusions:

      Some blue are green.

      Some white are green.

      Some green are not white.

      All white are blue.
    A. Only (1) and (2)
    B. Only (1) and (3)
    C. Only (1) and (4)
    D. Only (2) and (4)

Answer: A


3. Statements: All men are vertebrates. Some mammals are vertebrates.

Conclusions:

      All men are mammals.

      All mammals are men.

      Some vertebrates are mammals.

      All vertebrates are men.
    A. Only (4)
    B. Only (2)
    C. Only (3)
    D. Only (1)
    E. Only (1) and (3)

Answer: C


4. Statements: All the phones are scales. All the scales are calculators.

Conclusions:

      All the calculators are scales.

      All the phones are calculators

      All the scales are phones.

      Some calculators are phones.
    A. Only (1) and (4)
    B. Only (3) and (4)
    C. Only (2) and (4)
    D. Only (1) and (2)
    E. Only (1) and (3)

Answer: C


5. Statements: Some tables are T.V. Some T.V. are radios.

Conclusions:

      Some tables are radios.

      Some radios are tables.

      All the radios are T.V.

      All the T.V. are tables.
    A. Only (2) and (4)
    B. Only (1) and (3)
    C. Only (4)
    D. Only (1) and (4)
    E. None of the four.

Answer: E

Directions (1-3): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Amongst five friends, A, B, C, D, E, each got different marks in the examination. A scored more than B but less than C. C scored 65 marks. D scored less marks than only E. The one who scored the minimum marks scored 60 marks and the one who scored the highest, scored 80 marks.


1. Who scored the second highest marks?

    A. B
    B. E
    C. D
    D. C
    E. A

Answer: C


2. Who is the most likely to have scored 62 marks?

    A. B
    B. A
    C. D
    D. E
    E. Either E or B

Answer: B


3. Who scored the lowest marks?

    A. B
    B. E
    C. D
    D. C
    E. A

Answer: A

1. In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How will MEDICINE be written in that code language?

    A. MFEDJJOE
    B. EOJDEJFM
    C. MFEJDJOE
    D. EOJDJEFM

Answer: D


2. In a certain code ‘ROAR’ is written as ‘URDU’. How is ‘URDU’ written in that code?

    A. V X D Q
    B. XUGX
    C. ROAR
    D. VSOV
    E. V Z C P

Answer: B


3. In certain code ‘HILTON’ is written as ‘I H T L N O’. How is ‘BILLION’ written in that code?

    A. IBLLION
    B. IBOILLN
    C. IBLLOIN
    D. IBLOILN
    5. IBOLLIN

Answer: C

Directions (1 – 5): A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: go now 53 39 18 for again 66

      Step 1: 66 go now 53 39 18 for again

      Step 2: 66 again go now 53 39 18 for

      Step 3: 66 again 53 go now 39 18 for

      Step 4: 66 again 53 for go now 39 18

      Step 5: 66 again 53 for 39 go now 18

      Step 6: 66 again 53 for 39 go now 18

      Step 7: 66 again 53 for 39 go 18 now


1. Input: chanoyu wink 24 44 57 Heinz beech 71.

How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

    A. Three
    B. Four
    C. Five
    D. Six

Answer: D


2. Input: trees 18 27 desk are 91 hour zero 31 16 chairs.

Which of the following will be step 4?

    A. 91 are 31 trees 18 27 desk hour zero 16 chairs
    B. 91 trees 18 27 desk are hour zero 31 16 chairs
    C. 91 are 31 chairs trees 18 27 desk hour zero 16
    D. 91 are 31 chairs 27 desk 18 trees hour zero 16

Answer: C


3. Input: how two 38 23 87 43 room over

Which of the following steps will be the last?

    A. Step 4
    B. Step 5
    C. Step 6
    D. Step 7

Answer: C


4. Step 2 of an input is: 94 car 86 window shut 52 31 house

Which of the following is definitely the input?

    A. 94 car window 86 shut 52 31 house
    B. 86 window 94 car shut 52 31 house
    C. car shut window 86 52 31 house 94
    D. cannot be determined|

Answer: D


5. Input: show 51 37 now for 82 49 goot

Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

    A. Step 7
    B. Step 8
    C. Step 6
    D. Step 5

Answer: C

1. Which of the following is definitely true if P ≤ V < S = G ≥ Q ≥ R > E

    A. Q > P
    B. S > R
    C. V > R
    D. S > E
    E. P < R

Answer: D


2. Statements: R ≥ T = Q Z


Conclusions:
I. Z T
IV. L ≥ Q

    A. Only II, III and IV are true
    B. Only I, III and IV are true
    C. Only I and II are true
    D. Only II and IV are true
    E. None of these

Answer: A


3. Statements: S ≤ L ≤ I = P > E > R; L > Q


Conclusions:
I. P ≥ S
II. I > R

    A. Only Conclusion I is true
    B. Either Conclusion I or II is true
    C. Only Conclusion II is true
    D. Both Conclusion I and II are true
    E. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Answer: D

1. 4 P + S r 9 B # A 3 ? 7 c > Z % 6 d & Q @ 1

Which element is seventh to the left of sixteenth element from the left in the above sequence?

    A. ?
    B. %
    C. A
    D. d

Answer: C


2. F 5 C % S 3 B 7 # G I @ J 3 E 10 © L V $ X 2 N Q 6 * R 9 U

If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the 11th to the left of N ?

    A. I
    B. 3
    C. #
    D. V
    E. G

Answer: A


3. F 5 C % S 3 B 7 # G I @ J 3 E 10 © L V $ X 2 N Q 6 * R 9 U

How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol?

    A. none
    B. one
    C. two
    D. three
    E. more than three

Answer: B

Directions (1 – 5): In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer

      (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
      (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
      (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
      (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
      (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.


1. What is the code for ‘sky’ in the code language?

Statements:

      In the code language, ‘sky is clear’ is written as ‘de ra fa’.
      In the same code language, ‘make it clear’ is written as ‘de ga jo’.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: D


2. How many children are there between P and Q in a row of children?

Statements:

      P is fifteenth from the left in the row.
      Q is exactly in the middle and there are ten children towards his right.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: Option E


3. How is T related to K?

Statements:

      R’s sister J has married Ts brother L, who is the only son of his parents.
      K is the only daughter of L and J.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: E


4. How is J related to P?

Statements:

      M is brother of P and T is sister of P.
      P’s mother is married to J’s husband who has one son and two daughters.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: B


5. How is X related to Y?

Statements:

      Y and Z are children of D who is wife of X.
      R’s sister X is married to Ys father.
    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: C

Passage Inference

Directions: In each question below is given a passage followed by some inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon the degree of truth or falsity of the inference.

Mark answer

    1) if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    2) if you think that the answer is probably true.
    3) if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    4) if the answer is definitely false.
    5) if the answer is probably false.


Passage:

The most recent case of euthanasia in India was that of a Mumbai couple who approached the courts to seek medical termination of a pregnancy after the legally permissible abortion time limit had been crossed. According to the parents, the foetus had been detected to have serious disabilities which would affect the quality of life of the child if born. The court denied them permission, giving its own logic underlining the unborn baby’s right to live despite disabilities. Fortunately or unfortunately, the issue was resolved in a different way when the mother suffered a miscarriage a little later and lost the baby.


Globally, in a landmark case, a British teenage girl won the right to die the way she wants. Terminally ill Hanah Jones, just 13 years old, has spent much of the past eight years in hospital wards undergoing treatment for leukaemia. Euthanasia is complex because the issue is attached to ending life, voluntarily. Surprisingly, today it has been legalised only in a handful of countries. But here too and elsewhere the many forms of euthanasia have been taken into consideration.

    1. The courts in India have the authority to sanction euthanasia.
    2. The courts consider the age of the foetus before granting permission for abortion.
    3. It is fortunate that the Mumbai couple lost the baby.
    4. The author is against legalising euthanasia.
    5. The British courts allow anyone to die the way one want.


1. The Mumbai couple approached the court because the courts have the authority to sanction euthanasia. Hence, the inference is definitely true.

    A. if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    B. if you think that the answer is probably true.
    C. if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    D. if the answer is definitely false.
    E. if the answer is probably false.

Answer: A


2) In the first passage, the couple approached the court as the legally permissible abortion time limit had been crossed. From this we can definitely conclude that there is a legally permissible time limit for abortion. So, the inference is definitely true.

    A. if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    B. if you think that the answer is probably true.
    C. if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    D. if the answer is definitely false.
    E. if the answer is probably false.

Answer: B


3) At the end of the first paragraph “Fortunately or unfortunately the issue…..lost the baby”. The author himself is not sure whether the incident is fortunate or unfortunate. So, the inference is definitely false.

    A. if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    B. if you think that the answer is probably true.
    C. if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    D. if the answer is definitely false.
    E. if the answer is probably false.

Answer: E


4) In the second paragraph it is given that “surprisingly today it has been…. countries”. From this we can conclude that the author is in favour of euthanasia. Hence, the inference is definitely false.

    A. if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    B. if you think that the answer is probably true.
    C. if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    D. if the answer is definitely false.
    E. if the answer is probably false.

Answer: E


5) No where in the world one can die in the way one want, but if the person cannot be soured by any medical treatment, those persons can die that to with the permission of the courts. So, the inference is definitely false.

    A. if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    B. if you think that the answer is probably true.
    C. if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    D. if the answer is definitely false.
    E. if the answer is probably false.

Answer: E


Statement and Assumption

Directions (1 – 5): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give answer

      (A) If only assumption I is implicit
      (B) If only assumption II is implicit
      (C) If either I or II is implicit
      (D) If neither I nor II is implicit
      (E) If both I and II are implicit.


1. Statement: “You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation period of one year and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation.” – A line in an appointment letter.

Assumptions:

The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of appointment offer.

Generally, an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.

    A. Only assumption I is implicit
    B. Only assumption II is implicit
    C. Either I or II is implicit
    D. Neither I nor II is implicit
    E. Both I and II are implicit

Answer: E


2. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.

Assumptions:

At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.

The schools do not admit children after six years of age.

    A. Only assumption I is implicit
    B. Only assumption II is implicit
    C. Either I or II is implicit
    D. Neither I nor II is implicit
    E. Both I and II are implicit

Answer: A


3. Statement: “In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide conveyance allowance to our employees.” – In charge of a company tells Personnel Manager.

Assumptions:

Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality.

Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.

    A. Only assumption I is implicit
    B. Only assumption II is implicit
    C. Either I or II is implicit
    D. Neither I nor II is implicit
    E. Both I and II are implicit

Answer: B


4. Statement: Unemployment allowance should be given to all unemployed Indian youth above 18 years of age.

Assumptions:

There are unemployed youth in India who needs monetary support.

The government has sufficient funds to provide allowance to all unemployed youth.

    A. Only assumption I is implicit
    B. Only assumption II is implicit
    C. Either I or II is implicit
    D. Neither I nor II is implicit
    E. Both I and II are implicit

Answer: A


5. Statement: “If you trouble me, I will slap you.” – A mother warns her child.

Assumptions:

With the warning, the child may stop troubling her.

All children are basically naughty.

    A. Only assumption I is implicit
    B. Only assumption II is implicit
    C. Either I or II is implicit
    D. Neither I nor II is implicit
    E. Both I and II are implicit

Answer: A


Statement and Conclusion

Directions (1 – 5): In each of the following questions, a statement/group of statements is given followed by some conclusions. Without resolving anything yourself choose the conclusion which logically follows from the given statements).

1. Soldiers serve their country.

    A. Men generally serve their country.
    B. Those who serve their country are soldiers.
    C. Some men who are soldiers serve their country.
    D. Women do not serve their country because they are not soldiers.

Answer: C


2. A factory worker has five children. No one else in the factory has five children.

    A. All workers in the factory have five children each.
    B. Everybody in the factory has children.
    C. Some of the factory workers have more than five children.
    D. Only one worker in the factory has exactly five children.

Answer: D


3. Television convinces viewers that the likelihood of their becoming the victim of a violent crime is extremely high; at the same time by its very nature, TV persuades viewers to passively accept whatever happens to them.

    A. TV viewing promotes criminal behaviour.
    B. TV viewers are most likely to be victimized than others.
    C. People should not watch TV.
    D. TV promotes a feeling of helpless vulnerability in viewers.

Answer: D


4. A forest has as many sandal trees as it has Ashoka trees. Three-fourth of the trees are old ones and half of the trees are at the flowering stage.

    A. All Ashoka trees are at the flowering stage.
    B. All sandal trees are at the flowering stage.
    C. At least one-half of the Ashoka trees are old.
    D. One-half of the sandal trees are at the flowering stage.
    E. None of these

Answer: E


5. The government is soon going to introduce a bill which would permit the instituting of private universities under very strict directions.

    A. We have some private universities in our country even now.
    B. The demand for more universities is being stepped up.
    C. Such directions can also be issued without informing the Parliament.
    D. The government gives directions to establish anything in private sector.
    E. Unless and until the directions are given, the private universities can charge exorbitant fees.

Answer: B


Statement and Argument

Directions (1 – 5): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Give answer:

    (A) If only argument I is strong
    (B) If only argument II is strong
    (C) If either I or II is strong
    (D) If neither I nor II is strong and
    (E) If both I and II are strong.


1. Statement: Should India encourage exports, when most things are insufficient for internal use itself?

Arguments:

Yes. We have to earn foreign exchange to pay for our imports.

No. Even selective encouragement would lead to shortages.

    A. Only argument I is strong
    B. Only argument II is strong
    C. Either I or II is strong
    D. Neither I nor II is strong
    E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: A


2. Statement: Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western countries be first tried out on sample basis before giving licence for sale to general public in India?

Arguments:

Yes. Many such drugs require different doses and duration for Indian population and hence it is necessary.

No. This is just not feasible and hence cannot be implemented.

    A. Only argument I is strong
    B. Only argument II is strong
    C. Either I or II is strong
    D. Neither I nor II is strong
    E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: A


3. Statement: Should India make efforts to harness solar energy to fulfil its energy requirements?

Arguments:

Yes, Most of the energy sources used at present is exhaustible.

No. Harnessing solar energy requires a lot of capital, which India lacks in.

    A. Only argument I is strong
    B. Only argument II is strong
    C. Either I or II is strong
    D. Neither I nor II is strong
    E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: A


4. Statement: Should there be students union in college/university?

Arguments:

No. This will create a political atmosphere in the campus.

Yes, it is very necessary Students are future political leaders.

    A. Only argument I is strong
    B. Only argument II is strong
    C. Either I or II is strong
    D. Neither I nor II is strong
    E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: E


5. Statement: Should India give away Kashmir to Pakistan?

Arguments:

No. Kashmir is a beautiful state. It earns a lot of foreign exchange for India.

Yes. This would help settle conflicts.

    A. Only argument I is strong
    B. Only argument II is strong
    C. Either I or II is strong
    D. Neither I nor II is strong
    E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: A


Computer Aptitude

1. What did first generation computers use for curcuitry?

    A. Transistors
    B. Vacuum tubes
    C. Integrated circuits
    D. Microprocessors

Answer: B


2. What did second generation computers use for curcuitry?

    A. Transistors
    B. Vacuum tubes
    C. Integrated circuits
    D. Microprocessors

Answer: A


3. What was the main technology used in third generation computers?

    A. Vacuum tubes
    B. Integrated circuits
    C. Microprocessors
    D. Artificial intelligence

Answer: C


4. What was the main technology used in fourth generation computers?

    A. Vacuum tubes
    B. Integrated circuits
    C. Microprocessors
    D. Artificial intelligence

Answer: C


5. Fifth generation computers are based on which of the following?

    A. Vacuum tubes
    B. Integrated circuits
    C. Microprocessors
    D. Artificial intelligence

Answer: D


6. What were some disadvantages of first generation computers? You may choose more than one answer.
Discuss

    A. They were enormous.
    B. They were expensive.
    C. They used a great deal of electricity.
    D. They generated a lot of heat.
    E. All the Above

Answer: E


7. The of the generation of computers started using keyboards and monitors?

    A. First
    B. Second
    C. Third
    D. Fourth
    E. Fifth

Answer: C


8.


This is called a __________.
Answer: integrated circuit, microchip

1. Which registers can interact with the secondary storage?

    A. MAR
    B. PC
    C. IR
    D. R0

Answer: A


2. Which of the register/s of the processor is/are connected to Memory Bus?

    A. PC
    B. MAR
    C. IR
    D. Both a and b

Answer: B


3. The internal Components of the processor are connected by _______.

    A. Processor intra-connectivity circuitry
    B. Processor bus
    C. Memory bus
    D. Rambus

Answer: B


4. The registers, ALU and the interconnection between them are collectively called as _____.

    A. Process route
    B. Information trail
    C. information path
    D. data path

Answer: D


5. _______ is used to store data in registers.

    a) D flip flop
    b) JK flip flop
    c) RS flip flop
    d) none of these

Answer: A

1. The duration between the read and the mfc signal is ______.

    A. Access time
    B. Latency
    C. Delay
    D. Cycle time

Answer: A


2. The Reason for the disregarding of the SRAM’s is

    A. Low Efficiency.
    B. High power consumption.
    C. High Cost.
    D All of the above.

Answer: C


3. To organise large memory chips we make use of ______.

    A. Integrated chips
    B. Upgraded hardware
    C. Memory modules
    D. None of the above

Answer: C


4. The spatial aspect of the locality of reference means

    A. That the recently executed instruction is executed again next
    B. That the recently executed wont be executed again
    C. That the instruction executed will be executed at a later time
    D. That the instruction in close proximity of the instruction executed will be executed in future

Answer: D


5. The correspondence between the main memory blocks and those in the cache is given by _________.

    A. Hash function
    B. Mapping function
    C. Locale function
    D. Assign function

Answer:B

1. In memory-mapped I/O…

    A. The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space
    B. The I/O devices have a seperate address space
    C. The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space
    D. A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Answer: A


2. The return address from the interrupt-service routine is stored on the

    A. System heap
    B. Processor register
    C. Processor stack
    D. Memory

Answer: C


3. The program used to find out errors is called

    A. Debugger
    B. Compiler
    C. Assembler
    D. Scanner

Answer: A


4. The conversion from parallel to serial data transmission and vice versa takes place inside the interface circuits.

    A. True
    B. False

Answer: A


5. The Centralised BUS arbitration is similar to ______ interrupt circuit

    A. Priority
    B. Parallel
    C. Single
    D. Daisy chain

Answer: D

1. When referring to instruction words, a mnemonic is:

    A. a short abbreviation for the operand address
    B. a short abbreviation for the operation to be performed
    C. a short abbreviation for the data word stored at the operand address
    D. shorthand for machine language

Answer: B


2. What is the difference between mnemonic codes and machine codes?

    A. There is no difference.
    B. Machine codes are in binary, mnemonic codes are in shorthand English.
    C. Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are in binary.
    D. Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are a high-level language.

Answer: B


3. Which bus is bidirectional?

    A. data bus
    B. control bus
    C. address bus
    D. multiplexed bus

Answer: Option A


4. The software used to drive microprocessor-based systems is called:

    A. assembly language programs
    B. firmware
    C. BASIC interpreter instructions
    D. flowchart instructions

Answer: A


5. A microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit form a:

    A. CPU
    B. compiler
    C. microcomputer
    D. ALU

Answer: C

1. Which one of the following statement is true for Assembly language?

    A. This language need not be translated into machine language.
    B. It is the easiest language to write programs
    C. It uses alphabetic codes.
    D. All of the above

Answer: C


2. The statement which is not the characteristic of COBOL is

    A. It is readable
    B. It is very efficient in coding and execution
    3. It is standardized language
    4. It has limited facilities for mathematical calculations

Answer: B


3. The high level language program before ready to be executed must go through various process except

    A. Linking
    B. Loading
    C. Controlling
    D. Translation

Answer: D


4. Which one of the following language reflects the way people think mathematically?

    A. Functional
    B. Event driven programming language
    C. Cross platform programming language
    D. All of the above

Answer: A


5. Which language can be directly understood by the CPU?

    A. Assembly language
    B. Java
    C. C
    D. All of the above

Answer: A

1. The part of machine level instruction, which tells the central processor what has to be done, is

    A. Operation code
    B. Address
    C. Locator
    D. Flip-Flop
    E. None of the above

Answer: A


2. Which of the following refers to the associative memory?

    A. the address of the data is generated by the CPU
    B. the address of the data is supplied by the users
    C. there is no need for an address i.e. the data is used as an address
    D. the data are accessed sequentially
    E. None of the above

Answer: C


3. To avoid the race condition, the number of processes that may be simultaneously inside their critical section is

    A. 8
    B. 1
    C. 16
    D. 0
    E. None of the above

Answer: B


4. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a form suitable for execution

    A. assembler
    B. linking loader
    C. cross compiler
    D. load and go
    E. None of the above

Answer: B


5. Process is

    A. program in High level language kept on disk
    B. contents of main memory
    C. a program in execution
    D. a job in secondary memory
    E. None of the above

Answer: C

How many digits of the DNIC (Data Network Identification Code) identify the country?

    A. first three
    B. first four
    C. first five
    D. first six
    E. None of the above

Answer: A

_______________ is not a web browser.

    A. FOXPRO
    B. Mozilla
    C. Netscape navigator
    D. Internet explorer

Answer: A

What happens if you press Ctrl + Shift + F8?

    A. It activates extended selection
    B. It activates the rectangular selection
    C. It selects the paragraph on which the insertion line is.
    D. None of These

Answer: B

1. What is database?
A database is a collection of information that is organized. So that it can easily be accessed, managed, and updated.


2. What is DBMS?
DBMS stands for Database Management System. It is a collection of programs that enables user to create and maintain a database.


3. What is a Database system?
The database and DBMS software together is called as Database system.


4. What are the advantages of DBMS?

      I. Redundancy is controlled.
      II. Providing multiple user interfaces.
      III. Providing backup and recovery
      IV. Unauthorized access is restricted.
      V. Enforcing integrity constraints.


5. What is normalization?
It is a process of analysing the given relation schemas based on their Functional Dependencies (FDs) and primary key to achieve the properties

(1).Minimizing redundancy, (2). Minimizing insertion, deletion and update anomalies.

Base 10 refers to which number system?

    A. binary coded decimal
    B. decimal
    C. octal
    D. hexadecimal

Answer: B

1. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the

    A. transport layer
    B. network layer
    C. application layer
    D. session layer

Answer: B


2. WPA2 is used for security in

    A. ethernet
    B. Bluetooth
    C. wi-fi
    D. none of the mentioned

Answer: C


General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

1. Limit of FDI in Insurance sector :

    a) 47%
    b) 50%
    c) 49%
    d) 51%
    e) None of These

Answer: 49%


2. Largest Life Insurance Company in India is:

    a) The New India Assurance Company Limited
    b) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
    c) United India Insurance Company Limited
    d) National Insurance Company Limited
    e) None of These

Answer: Life Insurance Corporation of India


3. Which was oldest insurance company, found in 1906:

    a) LIC
    b) National Insurance Company
    c) Agriculture Insurance Company of India
    d) United India Insurance Comp
    e) None of These

Answer: National Insurance Company


4. Life Insurance Corporation was found on:

    a) 1 April, 1955
    b) 6 Decemberr, 1960
    c) 4 September, 1956
    d) 1 September, 1956
    e) None of These

Answer: 1 September, 1956


5. Headquarter of LIC is situated at:

    a) Kolkata
    b) Delhi
    c) Mumbai
    d) Hyderabad
    e) None of These

Answer: Mumbai


6. Oldest (1818) life insurance company is:

    a) Postal Life Insurance Company
    b) Max Life Insurance Company
    c) Oriental Life Insurance Company
    d) Bharat Life Insurance Company
    e) None of These

Answer: Oriental Life Insurance Company


7. Insurance is listed in the constitution of India in ______scheduled as Union List subject:

    a) Eighth
    b) Ninth
    c) Seventh
    d) Tenth
    e) None of These

Answer: Seventh


8. Insurance is legislated by:

    a) Insurance Company
    b) State Government
    c) Central Government
    d) Government of India
    e) None of These

Answer: Central Government


9. Chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India is:

    a) Arundhati Bhattacharya
    b) U K Sinha
    c) S K Roy
    d) Vimal Khanna
    e) None of These

Answer: S K Roy


10. Which of the following is not the principle of insurance:

    a) Utmost Good Faith
    b) Principle of Contribution
    c) Maximization of Profit
    d) Causa Proxima
    e) None of These

Answer: Maximization of Profit

1. SBI has launched its first paperless banking outside India in-

    A. Myanmar
    B. Bhutan
    C. Nepal
    D. Indonesia

Answer: C


2. New scheme for enhancing E-access of tax payer-

    A. ayyakar setu
    B. aykar sahyog
    C. aykar prayog
    D. ayakar protsahan

Answer: A


3. “Save Public Sector Bank Day “ is observed on

    A. 17 June
    B. 19 July
    C. 21 June
    D. 15 July

Answer: B


4. AIIB has approved how much amount of loan to build the road in Gujarat?

    A. $329m
    B. $350m
    C. $400m
    D. $300

Answer: A


5. Government decrease interest rate by what percent on small saving schemes?

    A. 0.2
    B. 0.3
    C. 0.5
    D. 0.1

Answer: D


6. Which payment bank has recently starts its operations?

    A. Fino paytech
    B. M paisa
    C. airtel
    D. ujjivan

Answer: A


7. Which bank has raised RS 3000 crore via Basel 3 bonds

    A. SBI
    B. PNB
    C. Bank of Baroda
    D. corporation bank

Answer: C


8. “HIRE” app is launch by which IT firm

    A. Facebook
    B. Google
    C. Twitter
    D. TCS

Answer: B


9. According to ADB India will grow at what rate?

    A. 7.5%
    B. 7.1%
    C. 7.3%
    D. 7.4%

Answer: D


10. Which bank has offers upto 15 lakh loan via ATMs?

    A. ICICI
    B. HDFC
    C. YES BANK
    D. INDUSIND BANK

Answer: A

1. The maxium age at entry for Gram Santosh Rural postal life insurance scheme is ____?

    a) 35 years
    b) 40 years
    c) 45 years
    d) 50 years

Answer: c


2. Rajiv Gandhi Equity Savings scheme is designed for _____?

    a) high net worth individuals
    b) Individual retail investors
    c) Corporates
    d) Post offices

Answer: b


3. How many states have initiated Janani Suraksha Yojana?

    a)20
    b)19
    c)10
    d)All states and Union territories

Answer: d


4. Early childhood education for 3-6 years age group children scheme functions under?

    a)sarva sikhsha abhyan
    b)Rajiv gandhi education programme
    c)Universalisation of Elementary Education
    d)Sishu Vidya yojana

Answer: c


5. Sabla scheme covers which age group of women?

    a)18-25
    b)45-60
    c)3-10
    d)11-18

Answer: c

1. Which state government has recently launched its own food security scheme to cover the poor people who left out of the National Food Security Act ((NFSA)?

    A. Odisha
    B. Assam
    C. Maharashtra
    D. Goa

Answer: A

2. India has been ranked 5th along with which of the following countries in pictorial warnings on cigarette packets, according to latest Canadian Cancer Society report?

    A. Indonesia and Malaysia
    B. Nepal and Vanuatu
    C. Hong Kong and Thailand
    D. Timor Leste and Brazil

Answer: C

3. India’s tallest National flag from the average city elevation has recently installed in which city?

    A. New Delhi
    B. Guwahati
    C. Gandhi Nagar
    D. Kolkata

Answer: B

4. Thampi Kannanthanam, who passed away recently, was associated to which of the following regional cinemas?

    A. Tamil
    B. Malayalam
    C. Telugu
    D. Odia

Answer: B

5. The joint Multi – National Maritime Exercise “IBSAMAR 2018” has kicked off in which country?

    A. India
    B. Brazil
    C. South Africa
    D. South Korea

Answer: C

1. What is another name of the British Rule in India?
Answer: Crown rule in India


2. Which is the largest stock exchange in the world?
Answer: New York Stock Exchange


3. What is the name of the military control line between the Indian and Pakistan?
Answer: LoC: Line of Control


4. Who has been honoured as the Padma Vibhushan for his defence of the freedom of expression and the protection of human rights?
Answer: Soli Sorabjee


5. Which is India’s first Credit Information Company (CIC)?
Answer: Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited


6. What is the state flower of Tamil Nadu?
Answer: Glory lily


7. What is the full form of ‘SFDA’?
Answer: Small Farmers Development Agency


8. Who was the first woman got the Nobel Prize?
Answer: Mariecurie


9. Who was given by the slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’?
Answer: Iqbal


10. Name of the first pollution control ship?
Answer: ICGS Samudra Prahari


English Language

Directions (1-10): Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Pay careful attention.


People in the present society have turned from the use of the old means of communication to the more advanced and technological ways of communicating. Technology has made it easier for people to communicate in a faster, efficient, and cost-saving means through the introduction of the communication channels. The world has turned out to be the centre for technology with different technologies emerging daily as the people continue to develop from time to time to cope with the growing technology. The benefits of adopting the communication technology are explained in this article which shows why people do not function without technology.

Communication is a critical thing in today’s society because the exchange of information is vital in living. People live both locally and globally through technological connections by maintaining contact and interaction between individuals from all corners of the world. Communication binds people, helps maintaining the society healthy and enables people to interact and make friends from different regions and cultures. According to Adrian in 2006, communication and information technology plays a great role in the individuals’ life. There is a high rate of growth of the communication technology industry and the benefits as more people come up with new means of communication by day. A point has reached where activities cannot function without information technology due to the many benefits which come along with the current day technologies. Moreover, the industry plays a great role in improving the nation’s economy by facilitating fast and easier means of doing things and offering employment to many people across the world.

The presence of computers, phones, internet and wireless devices have broadened the web of connectivity by changing long distances to short ones where everyone is equal distance from the other through the present connections. Living without technology will be totally impossible as this has become every day’s application as more and more people are gaining knowledge on how to make use of the communication tools to improve their ways of living and staying informed on the current technology to avoid being left behind. New technologies are being developed daily which shows that the industry will continue to grow and expand. People will continue using these technologies to improve their standards and to stay informed.

The present technology has found its use in almost every sector making the industries, businesses and institutions to use it for their daily activities since it brings a lot of benefits. In the former days the modes of communication used were slow and sometimes unreliable since the information could take a long time before getting to the recipient. The use of communication and interaction sites such as Facebook, You Tube, Twitter, MySpace, and online email chat services has gained popularity among the young people whereby they can talk, share and interact with people from different parts of the word. The communication channels helps many users since they act as the dating sites for couples, people also make friends and share t with them at different locations. Many people have ended up in marriages from the online dating services; others have made friends and got connections to good jobs and other beneficial activities. These sites are more addictive and therefore the users find themselves visiting them more often and others stay online 24 hours. Apart from benefiting the communication sector, technology has also led to the improvement in areas of business, education, health, and the society in general.

Businesses continue to enjoy the introduction of new technologies which help in improving their activities. Business remains up-to-date with the daily occurrences concerning the market; the business also moves forward and is able to compete with the others in different locations. In the education sector, technology continues to evolve at a faster rate as the learners get to know new ways of learning. The information technology is a requirement for every learner in order to utilize these ideas in the learning process. Students and their teachers communicate using the sites stated above to inform them on the changes in the timetable and send notes in soft copy. In addition technology has helped the health centres improve their services and transforming the medical profession by securing the environment for the patients and make them feel comfortable to discuss their issues.

Moreover, there are online medical services whereby the patients can interact with their doctors without having to go to the health centres. Communication technology helps in the growth of the society through offering convenience modes of attending to the activities through online shopping, banking and travel arrangements. Also, there is speed in doing various operations in presence of technology whereby individuals attend to their tasks in a convenient and reliable way. Alternatively, people in the society keep in touch with one another and can effectively communicate and exchange their views for the growth and development of the community.

Life is incomplete without technology and the world has reached a point that technology is everything. Incorporating technology in our daily activities makes the life easier and worth living. There is a need for the involved parties in the field of communication technology to come up with more advanced technologies so that people can enjoy these services and help in developing the country. People living in the third world countries have the duty to ensure that they have the knowledge of the current technology so that they can improve their countries to develop and compete with the developed nations. Comparing the advanced technology with the old fashion ways of doing things it has become simplified and time-saving. People are able to do many activities at a go, while in the absence of technology things went slow and more energy was utilized. Despite the few problems posed by the use of communication technology people continue to use it since the advantages outweighs the disadvantages.


1. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘cope’ as given in the passage?

    A. Deal
    B. Bear
    C. Endure
    D. Surrender
    E. None of the above

Answer: D
‘To cope with’ means to ‘deal effectively with something difficult’. ‘Deal with’ and ‘bear with’ mean the same. Similarly, to endure is to ‘last through some test’. Hence, it is also a synonym. ‘Surrender’ is to give up; hence, it is the only antonym.


2. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘facilitating’ as given in the passage?

    A. Impeding
    B. Promoting
    C. Assisting
    D. Simplifying
    E. None of the above

Answer: A
To ‘facilitate’ is to make an action easier. Hence, simplifying is a synonym. ‘Promoting’ and ‘assisting’ are also synonyms. ‘Impeding’ is to hinder or obstruct something. Hence, it is an antonym.


3. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word ‘incorporating’ as given in the passage?

    A. Including
    B. Separating
    C. Dividing
    D. Cutting
    E. None of the above

Answer: A
‘To incorporate’ is to ‘take in as part of a whole’ or ‘to include’ or ‘to combine’. Only, the word ‘including’ is a synonym. Rest all the words are antonyms.


4. In today’s society, why is communication critical?

      a. Communication binds people
      b. Communication makes people closer
      c. Exchange of information is vital
    A. Only a
    B. Only c
    C. a and b
    D. a and c
    E. All of the above

Answer: D
This is a fact based question. In the second paragraph of the passage it is said , ‘Communication is a critical thing in today’s society because the exchange of information is vital in living….Communication binds people, helps maintaining the society healthy and enables people to interact and make friends from different regions and cultures’. The points marked in bold are clearly mentioned in the passage. It is given that ‘people make friends’, but nothing is mentioned about ‘people getting closer’.


5. How were the modes of communication in former days?

      a. Slow
      b. Unreliable
      c. Time consuming
    A. Only a and b
    B. Only b
    C. a and c
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above

Answer: D
‘In the former days the modes of communication used were slow and sometimes unreliable since the information could take a long time before getting to the recipient.’ Hence, all these three points have been mentioned clearly in the passage.


6. What sectors or areas has technology made an impact in?

      a. Communication
      b. Health
      c. Business
    A. Only a
    B. b and c
    C. a and c
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above

Answer: D
It is given in the passage that, ‘Apart from benefiting the communication sector, technology has also led to the improvement in areas of business, education, health, and the society in general’.


7. What is the author’s point of view in the last passage?

    A. That the disadvantages of technology must be ignored since, the advantages outweigh them
    B. Technology has many advantages and if used properly can make everyone’s life easier
    C. Technology is very important for communication
    D. Technology is going to be needed by everyone.
    E. None of the above

Answer: B
The author is trying to emphasize on the fact that technology plays a vital role in our life and that it is going to make life ‘worth living’. He thinks that even the most underdeveloped countries can be improved due to technology. The author talks about ‘disadvantages of communication technology’. Hence, the first option does not talk about technology, but only about communication technology. Options 3 and 4 are stressed in other paragraphs but the last paragraph does not focus on these points.


8. What is the primary purpose of the passage?

      a. To show how technology is a part of everything in life
      b. To point out the disadvantages of technology
      c. To show how technology can further improve our lives
    A. Only c
    B. Only a
    C. a and c
    D. Only b
    E. All of the above

Answer: B
The passage mainly shows us how technology has an impact on life today. The past and present ways of communication have been compared and impact of technology in all parts of today’s world is shown. Nothing about ‘further development’ of technology has been mentioned. Option B stating about disadvantages is also incorrect.


9. What should people living in the third world countries do?

    A. Migrate to developed nations
    B. Start taking loans to develop technology
    C. Make their economy stronger
    D. Try to learn about current technology
    E. None of the above

Answer: D
It is mentioned in the passage that, ‘People living in the third world countries have the duty to ensure that they have the knowledge of the current technology’. Hence, option 4 is the most appropriate option. The author has not mentioned ‘migration’ or ‘loans’ or ‘economy’ in any part of the passage.


10. According to the author, what will people keep using technology for?

      a. Warfare
      b. Improve standards
      c. Stay informed
      d. Efficiency
    A. Only b
    B. a and b
    C. b, c and d
    D. b and c
    E. c and d

Answer: D
The author has mentioned various uses of technology. He has mainly focussed on how technology has helped in making things ‘easier’. Hence, ‘improve standards’ is definitely a correct option. Apart from this, the author has stressed on how technology has made the world a smaller place. Hence, C is also a correct option. The author has stressed on the ‘ease’ of doing things and nothing has been mentioned about the ‘efficiency’. If we strictly stick to the context of the passage, ‘warfare’ is irrelevant.

Directions(1 – 10): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered, these numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words have been suggested, one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.


Given the (1) of black money in the economy is large, even though declining, and that a large part of these transactions take place in cash, it is natural the government would want to find ways to deal with this. The finance secretary, for instance, has said that one of the (2) being considered is that no one paying a bill of more than Rs.5,000 in a restaurant should be allowed to do so in cash—once the amount is paid by credit or debit card, it automatically leaves a trail for the taxman to (3) since bank accounts have PAN card details. At some point, presumably, the same principle needs to be extended to luxury boutiques/shops and showrooms for automobiles, among others. The finance secretary, in fact, has said the government will set up a committee to suggest ways to incentivize credit and debit card transactions. One of them, he said, could be to share the costs of the Point of Sale device; greater spread of the RuPay cards could be another, (4) their charges are lower. Another suggestion made has been to limit the amount of cash that can be (5) while purchasing property. While discouraging the use of cash is a good thing, it is unlikely incentivizing the use of credit/debit cards is going to be of much use. A person buying a house or a luxury car, or paying for an expensive meal in a luxury hotel in cash is not doing so to avoid paying the service charge levied by Visa or MasterCard—the idea is to avoid getting (6) in the tax net.


It is equally important to recognize that (7) mandating some things will not help. There is, for instance, no way of ensuring a limit, of say Rs.50,000, for the cash payment on the purchase of a flat as long as the registration is being done at a lower value than the actual one. The only way to check this is to do other reforms like lowering stamp duties, (8) circle rates with market values and refuse to recognize power of attorneys as proof of sale. The other, and more sensible, way is to make use of the troves of information the government already (9) by way of annual information returns from jewellers, real estate firms, automobile dealers, hotels, property registrars, travel agents and airlines among others. Once a profile is available of large spenders, this needs to be (10) with the income tax returns.


1. 1. Venture 2.functional 3.splits 4.commission 5.share
Answer: share


2. 1. Capacity 2.measures 3.sizes 4.degrees 5.extreme
Answer: measures


3. 1. Remedy 2.conspire 3.follow 4.omit 5.decide
Answer: follow


4. 1. Given 2.considerate 3.suspicious 4.inclined 5.foremost
Answer: Given


5. 1. charged 2.reimburse 3.loan 4.raised 5.paid
Answer: paid


6. 1. consoled 2.caught 3.resolved 4.discover 5.regret
Answer: caught


7. 1. hardly 2.individually 3.merely 4.faintly 5.diagonally
Answer: merely


8. 1. fixed 2.tighten 3.bring 4.regulates 5.align
Answer: align


9. 1. dispense 2.chased 3.secure 4.collects 5.correlate
Answer: collects


10. 1. intended 2. reigned 3.diverted 4.matched 5.concerned
Answer: matched

Direction (1 -5): Fill in the blanks with appropriate word to form a meaningful sentence.

1. Recent ______ suggest that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is on the path to re-establishing its_________ .

    A) crisis, prospect
    B) events, credibility
    C) circumstances, praise
    D) occasion, praise

Answer: B


2. The national food processing policy draft brought out by the government for public comments, though good in parts, needs a _______ of some of its key _______ to ensure inclusive growth of this sector.

    A) survey, doubts
    B) retrospect, disbelief
    C) review, tenets
    D) policy, terms

Answer: C


3. The Securities and Exchange Board of India’s (Sebi’s) plan to open the commodity derivatives market to more participants and add new trading products is well advised, even though extreme ______ is _______ while implementing it.

    A) vigilance, diverted
    B) negligence, avaoided
    C) guidance, performed
    D) caution, imperative

Answer: D


4. The ________ surrounding electronic voting machines (EVMs) refuses to _________ .

    A) discussion, hit
    B) controversy, die
    C) dispute, bear
    D) dynamic, end

Answer: B


5. Vodafone and Idea Cellular have decided to merge in order to __________ in an industry that is seeing its fortunes dip with each ________ quarter.

    A) survive, passing
    B) handle, crossing
    C) endure, appearing
    D) progress, proving

Answer: A

Directions (1 – 5): Read each sentence given below and find out whether there is an error in it. The error if any will be one of the parts of the sentence which are marked as A, B, C and D. If there is no error, the answer will be (E) i.e. No error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)


1. The low learning levels is due to the fact (A)/ that the state spends 87% of its budget (B)/ on salaries of its teachers (C)/ and not on infrastructure development for students (D)/ No error (E)
Answer: (E)


2. Recent incidents of tigers straying have brought to focus (A)/ the lack of proper regulatory mechanism and powers with the forest department (B)/ to take action against the resorts (C)/ mushroom in forest fringes (D)/ No error (E)
Answer: (D) ‘Mushrooming’ should be used- which would serve as an adjective.


3. The beauty of the palace comes alive (A)/ when over a lakh bulbs (B)/ is switched on between 7pm and 7.45pm (C)/ on specific days (D)/ No error (E)
Answer: (C) ‘Are’ should replace ‘is’- verb should agree with ‘bulbs’


4. In view of the rising complaints (A)/ of unscrupulous financial institutes duping people with luring them (B)/ with handsome returns on their investments, the police have appealed (C)/ to the citizens to stay away from such companies(D)/ No error (E)
Answer: (B) ‘By’ should replace ‘with’- which means ‘by the way of’


5. More and more cab drivers are approaching the regional transport office (RTO) (A)/ to obtain identity cards (B)/ after the transport office intensified action against errant drivers (C)/ in the last couple of months (D)/ No error (E)
Answer: (E)

There is no use …….. going there at this time.

    A. at
    B. in
    C. on
    D. off

Answer: D

Directions to Solve: In the question given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option ‘D’ is the answer.


The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.

    A. hell bent on getting
    B. hell bent for getting
    C. hell bent upon getting
    D. No improvement

Answer: C

Directions (1-5): Rearrange the given sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below them

      (A) The sky god welcomed them when they arrived and pointing at the delicious food platters said, “This is for all of you”
      (B) Here was a famine in the forest and tortoise was starving
      (C) The birds stuck feather to his arms and legs so that he could fly
      (D) The next week the birds held a feast on land and invited the tortoise, but when he reached the venue, they announced that no one could eat with dirty claws so the tortoise rushed to the pond and cleaned his limbs, but every time he did so he dirtied them on the way back to which the birds simply said, “Watch as we eat!”
      (E) e heard about the feast being given by the sky god to the birds and convinced the birds to take him with them
      (F) The tortoise immediately said that the food was meant for him and ate it up leaving the birds feeling cheated


1. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
    e. F

Answer: b


2. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
    e. E

Answer: e


3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
    e. F

Answer: c


4. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
    e. E

Answer: a


5. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (Last) sentence after rearrangement?

    a. A
    b. B
    c. C
    d. D
    e. F

Answer: d

Direction: In the following question a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.


It is important for HR and talent management professionals to understand the distinction between happy, satisfied employees and engaged employees. Engaged employees are happy, satisfied employees, but not all happy, satisfied employees are engaged employees (………………………………………………….). Similarly, satisfied employees are happy to show up to work each day and do their work, but will be equally happy to take their satisfaction elsewhere for a salary increase.

    A) The renewed interest in improving employee engagement in organizations has originated from actions executives took during the recession.
    B) Engaged employees speak positively about their organizations to their co-workers, potential employees, and customers.
    C) Happy employees, for example, may gladly show up for work on most days, but that happiness does not necessarily translate into productivity and profitability
    D) Not all satisfied, emotionally invested professionals are engaged at the same level in an organization.
    E) HR and talent management professionals must understand these various engagement levels before embarking on an employee engagement initiative because action steps to improve engagement need to be customized based on where employees fall on the scale.

Answer: C


Data Analysis & Interpretation

Bar Graph

Number of people (in thousand) using three different types of mobile services over the years are given in the graph. Study the given graph and answer the given questions.


1. What is the average number of people using mobile service M for all the years together?

    (a) 16 \(\frac{2}{3}\)
    (b) 14444 \(\frac{1}{6}\)
    (c) 16666\(\frac{2}{3}\)
    (d) All of these.
    (e) None of these.

Answer: c


2. The total number of people using all the three mobile services in the year 2007 is what percent of the total number of people using all the three mobile services in the year 2008?

    (a) 89.72
    (b) 93.46
    (c) 88.18
    (d) 91.67
    (e) None of these.

Answer: d


3. What is the respective ratio of number of people using mobile service L in the year 2005 to those using the same service in the year 2004?

    (a) 8 : 7
    (b) 3 : 2
    (c) 19 : 13
    (d) 15 : 11
    (e) none of these.

Answer: b


Line Chart

Directions (1 – 5): The following line graph gives the ratio of the amounts of imports by a company to the amount of exports from that company over the period from 1995 to 2001.


1. If the imports in 1998 was Rs. 250 crores and the total exports in the years 1998 and 1999 together was Rs. 500 crores, then the imports in 1999 was?

    A. Rs. 250 crores
    B. Rs. 300 crores
    C. Rs. 357 crores
    D. Rs. 420 crores

Answer: D


2. The imports were minimum proportionate to the exports of the company in the year?

    A. 1995
    B. 1996
    C. 1997
    D. 2000

Answer: C


3. What was the percentage increase in imports from 1997 to 1998?

    A. 72
    B. 56
    C. 28
    D. Data inadequate

Answer: D


4. If the imports of the company in 1996 was Rs. 272 crores, the exports from the company in 1996 was?

    A. Rs. 370 crores
    B. Rs. 320 crores
    C. Rs. 280 crores
    D. Rs. 275 crores

Answer: B


5. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports?

    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4

Answer: D


Tabular

Directions (1 – 5): Study the following table and answer the questions.

Number of Candidates Appeared and Qualified in a Competitive Examination from the Different States Over the Years.


1. Total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1997 is approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1998?

    A. 72%
    B. 77%
    C. 80%
    D. 83%

Answer: C


2. What is the average candidates who appeared from State Q during the given years?

    A. 8700
    B. 8760
    C. 8990
    D. 8920

Answer: C


3. In which of the given years the number of candidates appeared from State P has maximum percentage of qualified candidates?

    A. 1997
    B. 1998
    C. 1999
    D. 2001

Answer: D


4. What is the percentage of candidates qualified from State N for all the years together, over the candidates appeared from State N during all the years together?

    A. 12.36%
    B. 12.16%
    C. 11.47%
    D. 11.15%

Answer: D


5. The percentage of total number of qualified candidates to the total number of appeared candidates among all the five states in 1999 is?

    A. 11.49%
    B. 11.84%
    C. 12.21%
    D. 12.57%

Answer: B


Caselet

Directions (1 – 5): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions that follow:

An organization consists of 3500 employees working in different departments, viz HR, Marketing, IT, Production and Accounts. The ratio of male to female employees in the organisation is 3 : 2. 8% of the males work in the HR department. 22% of the female work in the account department. The ratio of males to females working in the HR department is 3 : 5. One-seventh of the females work in the IT department. 46% of the males work in the Production department. The number of females is one-sixth of the males working in the same. The remaining females work in the Marketing department. The total number of employees working in the IT department is 375. 22% of the males work in the Marketing department and remaining work in the Account department.


1. The number of males working in the Account department forms approximately what per cent of the total number of males in the organisation?

    (a) 6
    (b) 8
    (c) 10
    (d) 11
    (e) 12

Answer: a


2. How many females work in Production department?

    (a) 140
    (b) 200
    (c) 180
    (d) 160
    (e) None of these

Answer: e


3. The total number of employees working in the Account department forms approximately what per cent of the total number of female employees in the organisation?

    (a) 28
    (b) 32
    (c) 29
    (d) 31
    (e) 30

Answer: d


4. The ratio of the numbers of females working in IT department to the numbers of males working in the same department is

    (a) 15 : 8
    (b) 1 : 2
    (c) 8 : 15
    (d) 2 : 1
    (e) 7 : 11

Answer: c


5. What is the total number of employees working in the Marketing and Production departments together?

    (a) 1900
    (b) 2040
    (c) 2020
    (d) 2031
    (e) 2042

Answer: b


Radar/Web

Directions (1 – 5): Study the given information carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Number of mobile phones manufactured(in thousand) by 6 different companies in the years 2001 and 2002


1. In 2002, Which company manufactured the maximum number of Mobile Phones?

    (a) Nokia
    (b) Sony
    (c) Apple
    (d) Samsung

Answer: c


2. What is the average number of Mobile phones (in thousand) manufactured by all companies taken together in 2001?

    (a) 17.5
    (b) 18.5
    (c) 20
    (d) 22

Answer: a


3. The respective ratio between the number of Mobile Phones manufactured by Micromax in 2001 and that by Samsung in 2002 is?

    (a) 3 : 4
    (b) 4 : 5
    (c) 1 : 2
    (d) 7 : 8

Answer: c


4. The difference between the number of Mobile Phones manufactured by Nokia, Micromax and Samsung in 2001 and that by Apple , Sony and HTC in 2002 is?

    (a) 20000
    (b) 30000
    (c) 22000
    (d) 25000

Answer: d


5. What is the percentage increase in production of Mobile Phones by Apple in 2001 in comparison to that in 2002?

    (a) 200%
    (b) 100%
    (c) 300%
    (d) 250%

Answer: a


Pie Chart

Directions (1 – 4): Study the following pie-chart and the table and answer the questions based on them.


1. If the population of village R in 1997 is 32000, then what will be the population of village Y below poverty line in that year?

    A. 14100
    B. 15600
    C. 16500
    D. 17000

Answer: B


2. The ratio of population of village T below poverty line to that of village Z below poverty line in 1997 is:

    A. 11 : 23
    B. 13 : 11
    C. 23 : 11
    D. 11 : 13

Answer: C


3. Find the population of village S if the population of village X below poverty line in 1997 is 12160.

    A. 18500
    B. 20500
    C. 22000
    D. 26000

Answer: C


4. If in 1998, the population of villages Y and V increase by 10% each and the percentage of population below poverty line remains unchanged for all the villages, then find the population of village V below poverty line in 1998, given that the population of village Y in 1997 was 30000.

    A. 11250
    B. 12760
    C. 13140
    D. 13780

Answer: B

Directions: Each the question below contains a statement followed by Quantity I and Quantity II. Find both to find the relationship among them. Mark your answer accordingly.


If the quantity of milk in mixture is 10 litre then find the quantity of water if

Quantity I: After selling it at CP, milkman saves 25%

Quantity II: If the ratio of Milk and water is 5:1

    A) Quantity I > Quantity II
    B) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
    C) Quantity II > Quantity I
    D) Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
    E) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

Answer: A

Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, … What number should come next?

    A. 20
    B. 22
    C. 23
    D. 26

Answer: B

9000 + 16\(\frac{2}{3}\)% of ? = 10500

    A. 1500
    B. 1750
    C. 9000
    D. 7500
    E. None of these

Answer: C

Directions (1 – 5): In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer

      (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
      (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
      (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
      (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
      (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.


1. Question: How is ‘No’ coded in the code language?

Statements:

‘Ne Pa Sic Lo’ means ‘But No None And’ and ‘Pa Lo Le Ne’ means ‘If None And But’.

‘Le Se Ne Sic’ means ‘If No None Will’ and ‘Le Pi Se Be’ means ‘Not None If All’.

    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: A


2. Question: Who among P, Q, T, V and M is exactly in the middle when they are arranged in ascending order of their heights?

Statements:

V is taller than Q but shorter than M.

T is taller than Q and M but shorter than P.

    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: E


3. Question: Which code word stands for ‘good’ in the coded sentence ‘sin co bye’ which means ‘He is good’?

Statements:

In the same code language, ‘co mot det’ means ‘They are good’.

In the same code language, ‘sin mic bye’ means ‘He is honest’.

    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: C


4. Question: What is the numerical code for ‘water’ in a certain code?

Statements:

The code for ‘give me water’ is ‘719’.

The code for ‘you can bring water for me’ is written as ‘574186’.

    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: D


5. Question: How many visitors saw the exhibition yesterday?

Statements:

Each entry pass holder can take up to three persons with him/her.

In all, 243 passes were sold yesterday.

    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: D

HCF And LCM

1. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in each case.

    A. 4
    B. 7
    C. 9
    D. 13

Answer: A


2. Find the lowest common multiple of 24, 36 and 40.

    A. 120
    B. 240
    C. 360
    D. 480

Answer: C


Profit and Loss

A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?

    A. 3
    B. 4
    C. 5
    D. 6

Answer: C


Simple Interest

A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs. 15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple interest. What is the rate of interest?

    A. 3%
    B. 4%
    C. 5%
    D. 6%
    E. None of these

Answer: D


Compound Interest

The difference between simple interest and compound on Rs. 1200 for one year at 10% per annum reckoned half-yearly is:

    A. Rs. 2.50
    B. Rs. 3
    C. Rs. 3.75
    D. Rs. 4
    E. None of these

Answer: B


Problem on Ages

A father said to his son, “I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth”. If the father’s age is 38 years now, the son’s age five years back was:

    A. 14 years
    B. 19 years
    C. 33 years
    D. 38 years

Answer: A


Work and Time

A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?

    A. Rs. 375
    B. Rs. 400
    C. Rs. 600
    D. Rs. 800

Answer: B


Speed, Distance and Time

Robert is travelling on his cycle and has calculated to reach point A at 2 P.M. if he travels at 10 kmph, he will reach there at 12 noon if he travels at 15 kmph. At what speed must he travel to reach A at 1 P.M.?

    A. 8 kmph
    B. 11 kmph
    C. 12 kmph
    D. 14 kmph

Answer: C


Probability

One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a face card (Jack, Queen and King only)?

    A. \(\frac{1}{13}\)
    B. \(\frac{3}{13}\)
    C. \(\frac{1}{4}\)
    D. \(\frac{9}{52}\)

Answer: B


Mensuration

If the sides of a triangle are 26 cm, 24 cm and 10 cm, what is its area?

    A. 120 \({cm}^2\)
    B. 130 \({cm}^2\)
    C. 312 \({cm}^2\)
    D. 315 \({cm}^2\)
    E. None of these

Answer: A


Permutation and Combination

In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘LEADING’ be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?

    A. 360
    B. 480
    C. 720
    D. 5040
    E. None of these

Answer: C


Average

A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is:

    A. 250
    B. 276
    C. 280
    D. 285

Answer: D


Ratio and Proportion

Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats?

    A. 2 : 3 : 4
    B. 6 : 7 : 8
    C. 6 : 8 : 9
    D. None of these

Answer: A


Partnership

A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and B Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives:

    A. Rs. 8400
    B. Rs. 11,900
    C. Rs. 13,600
    D. Rs. 14,700

Answer: D


Problems on Boats and stream

The speed of a boat in still water in 15 km/hr and the rate of current is 3 km/hr. The distance travelled downstream in 12 minutes is:

    A. 1.2 km
    B. 1.8 km
    C. 2.4 km
    D. 3.6 km

Answer: D


Problem on Trains

Two trains are running in opposite directions with the same speed. If the length of each train is 120 metres and they cross each other in 12 seconds, then the speed of each train (in km/hr) is:

    A. 10
    B. 18
    C. 36
    D. 72

Answer: C


Mixture and Allegation

A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now contained by the container?

    A. 26.34 litres
    B. 27.36 litres
    C. 28 litres
    D. 29.16 litres

Answer: D


Pipes and Cisterns

Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B would have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A to fill the cistern separately?

    A. 1 hour
    B. 2 hours
    C. 6 hours
    D. 8 hours

Answer: C

shape Tips

To Prepare IBPS PO Mains 2017, there are 5 sections in the exam paper and the candidate needs to be excellent at are – Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude, English, Computer Knowledge and General Awareness.


✦ Tip – 1: Refer to previous years papers of IBPS PO & SBI PO Prelims and Mains exam. This will help you understand the level that can be expected in the upcoming IBPS PO Exams.


✦ Tip – 2: Understand the basic concepts of old as well as new topics introduced in the current year. If your basics are clear, attempting questions will be comparatively easy, no matter in what way they are asked in the exam.


✦ Tip – 3: Work on your Time management, Speed and Accuracy.


✦ Tip – 4: Prepare yourself for the high level quality of the exam to avoid any last minute surprises. Prepare with a mindset of a difficult level of exam, and then attempting questions in the exam will be comparatively easy for you.


✦ Tip – 5: Attempt as many mock tests as you can. Online full-length tests will help you overcome your exam paranoia and you’ll be able to prepare more efficiently. Mock tests will also help you work on the 3 parameters i.e. Time management, Speed and Accuracy.