IBPS PO - SPLessons

IBPS PO Prelims Practice Set

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5 Steps - 3 Clicks

IBPS PO Prelims Practice Set

shape Introduction

Career in Banking is one of the most lucrative and most sought after careers. In India, Bank Recruitment Exams are primarily conducted for recruitment of Probationary Officers, Clerks & Specialist Officers. India currently[2019] has 93 commercial and 27 public sector banks out of which 19 are nationalized and 6 are SBI and its associate banks and rest two are IDBI Bank and Bharatiya Mahila Bank, which are categorized as other public sector banks. Recruitment for Bank Probationary Officers, Management Trainees, Clerks and for various other posts generally follow a 3 step recruitment process: Preliminary Exam + Mains Exam + Interview & Group Discussion. The article IBPS PO Prelims Practice Set presents a practice set for the most sought after SBI PO recruitment. Until the year 2013, All Public Sector Banks used to conduct their own entrance test, GDs and Personal Interview for recruiting candidates. However, after 2014, IBPS started conducting recruitment Tests for 12 PSU Banks. SBI holds a separate entrance test for recruitment.

Prelims exams are very important to clear every government sector or bank related recruitment process in India. Prelims are also known as Screening Tests. Only those candidates who are selected in the prelims round are allowed to move further up in the recruitment process. The marks obtained in the preliminary exams are not considered for the final merit list. Preliminary Exams are only meant to be screening tests. Preliminary exams usually consist of 3 sections, with 100 questions with a time duration of 1 hour. Preliminary exams most certainly have negative marking.

shape Model Test

Directions Q (1 – 10): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions.

1. (786 × 64) ÷ 48 = ?

    A. 1050
    B. 1024
    C. 1048
    D. 1036
    E. None of these


2. 3\(\sqrt{13824}\) × \(\sqrt{?}\) = 864?

    A. 1296
    B. 1156
    C. 1600
    D. 1024
    E. None of these


3. 60% of 20% of \(\frac{3}{5}\)th of? = 450

    A. 6200
    B. 6,240
    C. 6150
    D. 6275
    E. None of these


4. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ?

    A. 1156
    B. 1200
    C. 1188
    D. 1176
    E. None of these


5. 3.5 + 11.25 × 4.5 – 32.5 = ?

    A. 18.275
    B. 21.625
    C. 32.375
    D. 25.45
    E. None of these


6. \(\sqrt{4096}\) x 56 / 764 652 = ?

    A. 36
    B. 48
    C. 32
    D. 44
    E. None of these


7. (98360 + 25845 – 36540) ÷ 2500 = ?

    A. 36.585
    B. 30.082
    C. 32.085
    D. 35.066
    E. None of these


8. 7414 + 3698 + 1257 + 1869 = ?

    A. 14328
    B. 14438
    C. 13428
    D. 13248
    E. None of these


9. (\({91}^{2}\)) + (\({41}^{2}\)) – \(\sqrt{?}\) = 9858 ?

    A. 11236
    B. 10816
    C. 10404
    D. 9604
    E. None of these


10. (2640 ÷ 48) × (2240 ÷ 35) = ?

    A. 3520
    B. 3515
    C. 3495
    D. 3490
    E. None of these


Directions Q (11 – 15): What should come in place of question mark (? ) in the following number series.

11. 121 117 108 92 67 ?

    A. 31
    B. 29
    C. 41
    D. 37
    E. None of these


12. 50 26 14 ? 5 3.5

    A. 6
    B. 8
    C. 10
    D. 12
    E. None of these


13. 3 23 43 ? 83 103

    A. 33
    B. 53
    C. 63
    D. 73
    E. None of these


14. 748 737 715 682 638 ?

    A. 594
    B. 572
    C. 581
    D. 563
    E. None of these


15. 1 9 25 49 81 ? 169

    A. 100
    B. 64
    C. 81
    D. 121
    E. None of these


16. The ratio of ducks and frogs in a pond is 37: 39 respectively. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 152. What is the number of frogs in the pond?

    A. 148
    B. 152
    C. 156
    D. 144
    E. None of these


17. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a ratio of 4: 5: 6 respectively. If the number of employees in the Companies is increased by 25%, 30%, and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B, and C respectively?

    A. 13 : 10 : 18
    B. 10 : 13 : 17
    C. 13 : 15 : 18
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


18. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 233.5 and the average of the last two numbers is 271. What is the third number?

    A. 64
    B. 56
    C. 106
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


19. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary on shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonali’s monthly income?

    A. Rs. 42,500
    B. Rs.38,800
    C. Rs. 40,000
    D. Rs. 35,500
    E. None of these


20. What approximate amount of compound interest can be obtained on an amount of Rs. 9, 650 at the rate of 6% p.a at the end of 3 years?

    A. Rs. 1,737
    B. Rs. 1,920
    C. Rs. 1,720
    D. Rs. 1, 860
    E. Rs. 1,843


21. A milkman sells 120 liters of milk for Rs. 3,360 and he sells 240 litres of milk for Rs. 6,120. How much concession does the trader give per liter of milk when he sells 240 liters of milk?

    A. Rs. 2
    B. Rs. 3.5
    C. Rs. 2.5
    D. Rs. 1.5
    E. None of these


22. When 3,626 is divided by the square of a number and the answer so obtained is multiplied by 32, the final answer obtained is 2,368. What is the number ?

    A. 7
    B. 36
    C. 49
    D. 6
    E. None of these


23. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 14. The difference between the first digit and the second digit of the two digit number is 2. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number?

    A. 56
    B. 48
    C. 45
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


24. A car runs at the speed of 50 kmph when not serviced and runs at 60 kmph when serviced. After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 6 hours. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced?

    A. 8.2 hours
    B. 6.5 hours
    C. 8 hours
    D. 7.2 hours
    E. None of these


25. Venkat has some ducks and some sheep. If the total number of animal heads is 81 and the total number of animal feet are 268, how many sheep does Venkat have?

    A. 28
    B. 53
    C. 44
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


26. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 13. The difference between the two digits of the number is 3. What is the two digit number?

    A. 85
    B. 49
    C. 57
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


27. 25 shirt pieces of 125 cms. each can be cut from a reel of cloth. After cutting these pieces 90 cms. of cloth remains. What is the length of the reel of cloth in metres?

    A. 3215 metres
    B. 35.15 metres
    C. 32.15 metres
    D. 3515 metres
    E. None of these


28. The sum of the squares of two consecutive positive odd numbers is 650. Which is the larger number?

    A. 17
    B. 21
    C. 23
    D. 15
    E. None of these


29. The profit earned after selling a pair of shoes for Rs. 2,033 is the same as a loss incurred after selling the same pair of shoes for Rs. 1,063. What is the cost of the shoes?

    A. Rs. 1,650
    B. Rs. 1,548
    C. Rs. 1,532
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


30. When an amount of Rs. 1,58,965 is divided equally amongst 120 people, how much approximate amount would each person get?

    A. Rs. 1,330
    B. Rs. 1,315
    C. Rs. 1,335
    D. Rs. 1,320
    E. Rs. 1,325


Directions Q (31 – 35):

The graph given below represents the number of users of two broadband services A and B across 5 cities P, Q, R, S and T.


31. What is the total number of users of brand B across all five cities together ?

    A. 2700
    B. 3000
    C. 3100
    D. 2900
    E. 3200


32. The number of users of brand A in city T is what percent of the number of users of brand B in City Q ?

    A. 150
    B. 110
    C. 140
    D. 160
    E. 120


33. What is the average number of users of brand A across all five cities together?

    A. 560
    B. 570
    C. 580
    D. 590
    E. 550


34. What is the difference between the total number of users of Brand A and B together in city R and the total number of users of brand A and B together in city P?

    A. 170
    B. 140
    C. 130
    D. 150
    E. 160


35. What is the respective ratio of the number of users of the brand A in city P to the number of users of brand B in city S?

    A. 5 : 7
    B. 4 : 7
    C. 2 : 5
    D. 3 : 4
    E. 5 : 6


Solutions: Q(1-35)

Q1.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

(786 × 64) ÷ 48 = 1048

Q2.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

3\(\sqrt{13824}\) × \(\sqrt{?}\) = 864

3\(\sqrt{24 × 24 × 24 }\) × \(\sqrt{?}\) = 864

24 × \(\sqrt{?}\) = 864

\(\sqrt{?}\) = \(\frac{864}{24}\)

∴ ? = 36 × 36 = 1296

Q3.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

\(\frac{60}{100}\) × \(\frac{20}{100}\) × \(\frac{3}{5}\) × ? = 450

⇒\(\frac{9}{125}\) × ? = 450

⇒? = \(\frac{450 × 125}{9}\) = 6250

Q4.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

? = 196 × 948 ÷ 158 =

\(\frac{196 × 948}{158}\) = 1176

Q5.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

? = 3.5 + 11.25 × 4.5 – 32.5

= 3.5 + 50.625 – 32.5 = 54.125 – 32.5 = 21.625

Q6.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

\(\sqrt{4096}\) x 56 / 764 652

\(\frac{64 × 56}{112}\)

= 32

Q7.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

? = (98360 + 25845 – 36540) ÷ 2500

= 87665 ÷ 2500 = 35.066

Q8.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

? = 7414 + 3698 + 1257+ 1869 = 14238

Q9.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

(\({91}^{2}\)) + (\({41}^{2}\)) – \(\sqrt{?}\) = 958

⇒8281 + 1681 – \(\sqrt{?}\) = 9858

\(\sqrt{?}\) = 9962 – 9858 = 104

Q10.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

? = (2640 ÷ 48) × (2240 ÷ 35)

= 55 × 64 = 3520

Q11.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:


Q12.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:


Q13.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:


Q14.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:


Q15.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:


Q16.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Let the number of ducks and frogs in the pond be 37x and 39x respectively.

\(\frac{37x + 39x}{2}\)

= 152

⇒38x = 152 ⇒ x = \(\frac{152}{38}\) = 4

∴ Number of frogs = 39x

= 39 × 4 = 156

Q17.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

The number of employees in companies A, B and C be 4x, 5x and 6x respectively After increase in the number of employees, required ratio will be

= 4x x \(\frac{125}{100}\): 5x x \(\frac{130}{100}\):6x x \(\frac{150}{100}\)

= 4 × 25 : 5 × 26 : 6 × 30

= 10 : 13 : 18

Q18.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

The number of employees in companies A, B and C be 4x, 5x and 6x respectively After increase in the number of employees, required ratio will be

According to the questions, third number will be

= 5 × 213 – 2 × 233.5 – 2 × 271

= 1065 – 467 – 542 = 56

Q19.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Let Sonali’s monthly income = Rs. x

Sonali’s percentage monthly spendings = (55 + 15)% = 70%

Percentage savings = 100 – 70 = 30%

30% of x = 12750

⇒x = \(\frac{12750 x 100}{30}\) = Rs 42500

Q20.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

C.I. = P[[1 + \(\frac{r}{100}]^{t}\) – 1]

C.I. = 9650[[1 + \(\frac{6}{100}]^{3}\) – 1]

= 9650 (1.191016 – 1)

= 9650 × 0.191016 ≈ Rs 1843

Q21.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

The rate of milk when milkman sells 120 litres of milk for Rs. 3360

∴ SP = \(\frac{3360}{120}\) = Rs 28

The rate of milk when milkman sells 240 litres of milk for Rs 6120.

∴ SP = \(\frac{6120}{240}\) = Rs 25.5

Required discount = (28 – 25.5) = Rs 2.5

Q22.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Let the number be x.

∴ SP = \(\frac{3626}{x}^{2}\) x 32 = 2368

⇒\({x}^{2}\) = \(\frac{3626}{2368}\) = 49

∴ x = \(\sqrt{49}\) = 7

Q23.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Let the two digits number be 10n + m and n > m.

As given, n + m = 14

n – m = 2

On solving the equation,

n = 8, m = 6

Product of digits = 8 × 6 = 48

Q24.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

After servicing, speed of car = 60 km/h

Distance covered in 6 hours

= (60 × 6)km = 360 km
Before servicing, time taken to cover 360 km

∴ Time taken = \(\frac{360km}{50km/h}\) = 7.2 hours

Q25.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Let Venkat has x ducks and y sheep.

x + y = 81

x = 81 – y …(i)

and 2x + 4y = 268

⇒ 162 – 2y + 4y = 268

⇒ 2y =268 – 162 = 106

⇒ y = \(\frac{106}{2}\) = 53

⇒ Number of sheep = 53

Q26.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

x + y = 13 …(i)

x – y = 3 …(ii)

On adding,

2x = 16

⇒ x = 8

⇒ y = 5

⇒ Numbers are 85 and 58.

Q27.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Length of the reel

= (25 × 125 + 90) cm

= 3215 cm = 32.15 m

Q28.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

17 × 17 = 289

19 × 19 = 361

Q29.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Le the CP of the shoes be Rs. x.

⇒ 2033 – x = x – 1063

⇒ 2x = 2033 + 1063 = 3096

x = \(\frac{3096}{2}\) = Rs. 1548

Q30.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Amount received by each person

= Rs. \(\frac{158965}{120}\) = Rs. 1325

Q31.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Total number of users of brand B across all Five cities

= 600 + 500 + 650 + 700 + 550 = 3000

Q32.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

700 = x % of 500

700 = \(\frac{x × 500 }{100}\) = Rs. 1325

Q33.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Required average = \(\frac{500 + 550 + 600 + 550 + 700 }{5}\)

= 580

Q34.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Required difference = 1250 – 1100 = 150

Q35.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Required Ratio = \(\frac{500 }{700}\)

= 5.7

Q35.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Required difference = 1250 – 1100 = 150
Directions Q (36 – 40): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the givenconclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

36. Statements: All books are notes.
Some notes are pencils.
No pencil is paper.

Conclusions: I. Some notes are books.
II. Some pencils are books.
III. Some books are papers.
IV. No book is a paper.

    A. Only I and either III or IV follow
    B. Either III or IV follows
    C. Only I and III follow
    D. Neither II nor III follows
    E. None of these


37. Statements: Some tables are chairs.
No cupboard is a table.
Some chairs are cupboards.

Conclusions: I. Some chairs are not tables.
II. All chairs are either tables or cupboards.
III. Some chairs are tables.
IV. All chairs are tables.

    A. Only I and IV follow
    B. Only either II or III follows
    C. Only I and III follows
    D. Either II or III and I follow
    E. None of these


38. Statements: Notable is fruit.
No fruit is a window.
All windows are chairs.

Conclusions: I. No window is table.
II. No chair is fruit.
III. No chair is a table.
IV. All chairs are windows.

    A. Either I or III follows
    B. All follow
    C. Only I and II follow
    D. Only III and IV follow
    E. None of these


39. Statements: No man is the sky.
No sky is a road.
Some men are roads.

Conclusions: I. No road is a man.
II. No road is the sky.
III. Some skies are men.
IV. All roads are men.

    A. Either I or IV follows
    B. Only I follows
    C. Only I and III follow
    D. Only II follows
    E. None of these


40. Statements: All papers are books.
All bags are books.
Some purses are bags.

Conclusions: I. Some papers are bags.
II. Some books are papers.
III. Some books are purses.

    A. Only I follows
    B. Only II and III follow
    C. Only I and III follow
    D. Only I and II follow
    E. None of these


Directions Q (41 – 45): In the following questions, the symbols %, *, @, $ and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:


‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.

41. Statements: T$K, K#R, R*M

Conclusions: I. M*K
II. M % T
III. M$K

    A. All follows
    B. Only either I or III follows
    C. Only either I or II follows
    D. Only either II or III follows
    E. None of these


42. Statements: M%R, R#T, T*N

Conclusions: I. N*R
II. N$R
III. N$M

    A. All follows
    B. Either I or II follows
    C. Either I or II and III follow
    D. Either I or III and II follows
    E. None of these


43. Statements: V@M, A$M, R#V

Conclusions: I. R#A
II . V@A
III. R$M

    A. Only I follows
    B. Only II follows
    C. Only III follows
    D. None follows
    E. All follow


44. Statements: B*D, D@H, H%F

Conclusions: I. B*F
II. B$F
III. D$F

    A. None follows
    B. Only either I or II follows
    C. Only either I or II and III follow
    D. Only III follows
    E. All follow


45. Statements: J#N, K@N, T$K

Conclusions: I. J%T
II. T$N
III .N@J

    A. None follows
    B. Only I or II follow
    C. Only I and III follow
    D. Only II and III follow
    E. All follow


Directions Q (46 – 50): Study the information given below to answer the questions that follow.

(i) There is a family of 5 persons A, B, C, D and E.
(ii) They are working as a doctor, a teacher, a trader, a lawyer and a farmer.
(iii) B, an unmarried teacher, is the daughter of A.
(iv) E, a lawyer, is the brother of C.
(v) C is the husband of the only married couple in the family.
(vi) Daughter-in-law of A is a doctor.

46. Which of the following is a group of female members in the family?

    A. A and D
    B. D and E
    C. A, C and E
    D. B and D
    E. None of these


47. Which of the following is the married couple?

    A. A and B
    B. C and D
    C. A and D
    D. B and C
    E. None of these


48. Which of the following is a group of male members in the family ?

    A. A, B and C
    B. B and D
    C. C and E
    D. A, C and D
    E. None of these


49. Who is the doctor in the family ?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. None of these


50. Who is the trader in the family?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. None of these


Directions Q (51 – 55): Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below:

E G 4 B H 7 5 @ K 8 D N £ Q Z $ W 3 C 1 9 * l B 2 S 6

51. How many such consonants are threre in the above sequence which are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a digit?

    A. One
    B. Two
    C. None
    D. Three
    E. More than three


52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following sequence 4H@, KDQ, ?, ILS

    A. ZW1
    B. NQ$
    C. @8N
    D. $W9
    E. None of these


53. Which of the following is exactly in the midway between the ninth from the left end and the seventh from right end?

    A. Q
    B. Z
    C. $
    D. W
    E. None of these


54. If the first fifteen elements are written in the reverse order then which of the following will be seventh to the left of twelfth element from right end?

    A. 7
    B. @
    C. 5
    D. K
    E. None of these


55. How many such digits are there in the above sequence which are immediately preceded as well as followed by dig- its?

    A. None
    B. One
    C. Two
    D. Three
    E. None of these


56. In the following sequence of instructions, 1 stand for Run, 2 stands for Stop, 3 stands for Go, 4 stands for Sit and 5 stands for Wait. If the sequence is continued, which instruction will come next?

4 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3 1 4 5 3 1 2 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3

    A. Wait
    B. Sit
    C. Stop
    D. Run
    E. None of these


57. In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 2568 is written as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?

    A. QLPNMJ
    B. QLPNMF
    C. QLPMNF
    D. QLPNDF
    E. None of these


58. In a certain code OVER is written as $#%*. and VIST is written as #+×–. How is SORE written in that code?

    A. ×$*%
    B. %×$*
    C. ×*$%
    D. × %*
    E. None of these


59. A boy goes to see a film and finds a man who is his relative. The man is the husband of the sister of his mother. How is the man related to the boy?

    A. Brother
    B. Nephew
    C. Uncle
    D. Father
    E. None of these


60. Laxman went 15 km to the west from my house, then turned left and walked 20 km. He then turned East and walked 25 km and finally turning left covered 20 km. How far was he from my house?

    A. 5 km
    B. 10 km
    C. 40 km
    D. 80 km
    E. None of these


61. DH is related to FG in the same way as LV is related to ……

    A. NU
    B. UN
    C. VL
    D. NO
    E. None of these


62. ‘Offhand’ is related to ‘premeditation’ in the same way as ‘above board’ is related to:

    A. Integrity
    B. Honesty
    C. Guide
    D. Competition
    E. None of these


63. Rearrange the first four letters, in any way, of the word DECISION. Find how many words can be formed by using all the four words.

    A. One
    B. Two
    C. Three
    D. More than three
    E. None of these


64. If the last four letters of the word ‘CONCENTRATION’ are written in reverse order followed by the next two in the reverse order and next three in the reverse order and then followed by the first four in the reverse order, counting from the end which letter would be eighth in the new arrangement?

    A. N
    B. T
    C. E
    D. R
    E. None of these


65. Five boys took part in a race. Raj finished before Mohit but behind Gaurav. Ashish finished before Sanchit but behind Mohit. Who won the race?

    A. Raj
    B. Gaurav
    C. Mohit
    D. Ashish
    E. None of these


Directions Q (66 – 70): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answers figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued?

66.


67.


68.


69.


70.


Solutions: Q(36-45)

Q36.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Statements: All books are notes.

Conclusions: Some books are notes.(Implication)

Some notes are books. (conversion)

Hence I follow.

Statements: Some notes are pencils.

No pencil is paper.

Conclusions: Some note are not paper. (I + E = O type)

Statements: Some notes are pencils.

Conclusions: Some pencils are notes.(conversion)

Statements: No pencil is paper.

Conclusions: Some pencils are not papers. (Implication)

No paper is pencil. (Conversion)

Since III and IV form a complementary I-E pair, either of the two must follow.

Q37.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Statements: Some tables are chairs.

Conclusions: Some chairs are tables.(Implication)

Hence, III follows.

Statements: Some cupboards are not table. (Implication)

No table is cupboard.(conversion)

Statements: Some chairs are cupboards.

Conclusions: Some cupboards are chairs.(conversion)

Since, No table is cupboard.

Some cupboards are chairs.

Conclusions: Some chairs are not table.

(E + I = O* type)

Hence, I follows.

Q38.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Statements: No table is fruit.

Conclusions: Some tables are not fruit. (Implication)
No fruit is a table. (conversion)

Statements: No fruit is a window.

Conclusions: Some fruits are not a window.(Implication)

No window is fruit. (Conversion)

Statements: No fruit is a window

All windows are chairs.

Conclusions: Some chairs are not fruit. (E + A = O* type)

Statements: All windows are chairs.

Conclusions: Some windows are chairs.(Implication)

Some chairs are windows. (Conversion)

Hence none follows.

Q39.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Statements: No man is sky.

Conclusions: Some men are not the sky. (Implication)

No sky is a man. (conversion)

Statements: No sky is a road.

Conclusions: Some skies are not the road. (Implication)

No road is the sky. (conversion)

Hence II follows.

Statements: Some men are roads.

Conclusions: Some roads are men. (conversion)

Some men are roads.

Some roads are not sky.

(E + I = O* type)

No sky is road.

Some roads are men.

Some men are not sky.

(E + I = O* type)

Statements: Some men are roads.

No sky is man.

No road is the sky.

Conclusions: Some men are not the sky. (I + E = O type)

Statements: Some roads are a man.

No man is the sky.

Conclusions: Some roads are not the sky. (I + E = O type)

Hence, only II follows

Q40.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Statements:

Statements: All papers are books.

Conclusions: Some papers are books. (Implication)
Some books are papers. (conversion)
Hence II follows.

Statements: All bags are books.

Conclusions: Some bags are books.(Implication)

Some books are bags.(conversion)

Statements: Some purses are bags.

Conclusions: Some bags are purses. (conversion)

Statements: Some purses are bags.

All bags are books.

Conclusions: Some purses are books. (I + A = I-type)

Some books are purses.(conversion)

Hence, III follows.

Q41.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Here, T > K …(i)

K≤ R …(ii)

R = M …(iii)

From (ii) and (iii), we get

R = M ≥ K = 3 …(iv)

Now, from (iv) we get M > K (conclusion III) for M = K (conclusion I). Hence, either conclusion I or conclusion III follows. Again, from (i) and (iv) we can’t get any specific relationship between ‘M’ and ‘T’. Hence, conclusion II does not follow.

Q42.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Here, M < R …(i)

R≤ T …(ii)

T = N …(iii)

From (i), (ii) and (iii), we get

T = N ≥ R =3> …(iv)

Hence, from (iv) we get N = R (conclusion I) or N > R (conclusion II). Hence, either conclusion I or

conclusion II follows. Also, from (iv) we get N > M

(conclusion III). Hence, conclusion III follows.

Q43.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Here, V ≥ M …(i)

A > M …(ii)

R ≤ V …(iii)

From (i) and (ii), we can’t get any specific relationship between ‘V’ and ‘A’. Hence, conclusion II does not follow. Again from (i) and (iii), we can’t get any specific relationship between ‘M’ and ‘R’. Hence, conclusion III does not follow. On the similar basis we can’t get any specific relationship between ‘A’ and ‘R’ using all (i), (ii) and (iii). Hence, conclusion I does not follow.

Q44.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Here, B = D …(i)

D ≥ H …(ii)

H < F …(iii)

From (i) and (ii), we get

B = D ≥ H = 3 …(iv)

Now, from (iii) and (iv), we can’t get any specific relationship between B and F (or D and F). Hence, no conclusion follows. But, conclusion I and II make a complementary pair. Hence, either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

Q45.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Here, J≤ N …(i)

K ≥ N …(ii)

T > K …(iii)

From (i), (ii) and (iii), we get

T> K ≥ N ≥ J >(iv)

From (iv), we get J N (conclusion II). Hence, conclusion I and conclusion II follow. Conclusion III can be obtained from conversion of (i). Hence, conclusion III follows.

Solutions: Q(46-50)


Q46.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Clearly, B and D are the females members in the family.

Q47.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

From the above table C and D the married couple.

Q47.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

C and E are the male members in the family.

Q47.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

D, the wife of the trader C is the doctor in the family.

Q47.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

C is the trader in the family.

Solutions: Q(51-70)

Q51.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

E G 4 B H 7 5 @ K 8 D N £ Q Z $ W 3 C 1 9 * 1 B 2 S 6

Q52.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

The first, second and third element of each group is sixth element to the right of the respective element of previous group as given in all in the sequence.

Q53.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

There are 27 elements in all in the sequence. So, (27 – 9 – 7 = ) 11 elements are between the 9th from left and 7th from right.

Hence, ( 9 + 6 =) 15th element from the left and will be the required answer.

Q54.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

\({7}^{th}\) to the left of \({12}^{th}\) from right

= (12 + 7 =) 19th from right

= (27 – 19 + 1 = ) 9th from left

But the first 15 elements are reversed.

= (15 – 9 + 1 =) \({7}^{th}\) from left in the original sequence = 5.

Q55.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

For the condition to be fulfilled, three digits should be
together but it is not so in the given sequence.

Q56.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

4, 45, 453, 4531, 45312, 45, 453, 4531

The next coded digit will be 1. Hence, the instruction Run will come next.

Q57.

Answer: Option D

Q58.

Answer: Option A

Q59.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

The sister of one’s mother is one’s maternal aunt. Hence the man is the husband of the boy’s maternal aunt.

Q60.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:


From the above diagram required distance = 25 – 15 = 10 km.

Q61.

Answer: Option A

Q62.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

‘Offhand’ means fairness in ‘premeditation.’ ‘above board’ has the same sense as the term competition.

Q63.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

The first four letters are D, E, C, I and only word DICE can be formed so the answer is (A).

Q64.

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

The new letter sequence is NOITARTNECNOC

The eighth letter from the end is R.

Q65.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

The order in which the five boys reach the finishing line is Gaurav, Raj, Mohit, Ashish, Sanchit. Hence Gaurav won the race.

Q66.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

In each successive problem figure design ‘ ’ rotates anticlockwise through 45°, 90°, 45°, 90° respectively and a new design of its left and then right is added respectively. Thus the answer figure (e) is obtained.

Q67.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

From problem figures 1 to 4 two designs of right change their places with each other and from problem figure 2 to 5, two designs of left change their places with each other. In the same way from problem figure, 3 to 6 two designs of the right will change their places with each other. Thus the answer figure (E) is obtained.

Q64.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

From problem figure 1 to 2 and 3 to 4 the design turning over horizontally situates toward the right side and the design rotating through 90° anticlockwise situates in the middle. As per this rule, the answer figure (E) is obtained.

Q69.

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

In each subsequent figure, design change their places as below:


From problem 1 to 2 designs 1 and 2

From problem 2 to 3 designs 3 and 4

From problem 3 to 4 designs 5 sets up at top

From problem 4 to 5 designs 1 and 2 and 5 to 6 design 3 and 4 change their places with each other thus the answer figure (c) is obtained.

Q70.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

In the consecutive figure, the design ‘ . · comes at middle from lower right, at upper left from middle and than at middle. The design ‘★ ’ comes at left middle from upper middle, at right from left middle and at upper middle from right middle. A new design comes lower left from middle.
Directions Q (71 – 80): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Once upon a time, there lived a vicious king, Raja Shankara– short-tempered and temperamental. “God I am,” he said to his image as he stared into the mirror every day, many times a day, He was obsessed with himself. He loved no one but himself. He was blinded towards the injustice in his kingdom because he had little time for his subjects. He wasted most of his time in pouring milk and honey over himself.

An interruption in his possessed life was dealt with stern reprimanding and sometimes on petty issues he would behead his servants. Provoked by his evil advisor Twishar, he went on with his self-indulged life, unaware of the plot his very devoted advisor was planning. A plot to dethrone the king, rule the kingdom with his wicked ways only to harness wealth and the reputation of a king.

One morning the king went on his usual morning horseback rounds but returned with a very sad look on his face. He locked himself inside his platial room only to unlock it at sundown. Just as the doors creaked open and Raja Shankara emerged from it, his wife rushed to embrace him. She feared a damaging incident had occurred.

The king spoke seldom that day and awoke the next day to make a proclamation to his servants and subjects. The whole kingdom feared what was in store for them from their angry king. But to their surprise, he said to all gathered, “From now on I will be a different king. A softer and a patient king.”

True to his words from that day on, the king had truly turned on a new leaf; he cleaned out the corruption and injustice in a tender manner with punishments aimed to renew the person from within.

One fine day his evil advisor gathered the courage to ask the reason for his paradigm shift. And the king answered. When I went on horseback that morning a month ago, I noticed a dog brutally chasing a cat. The cat managed to sneak into a hole only after the dog bit her leg, maiming her for life. soon afterward, the dog barked at a farmer who picked up a sharp stone and hit it straight in the dog’s eye. Bleeding profusely, the dog yelped in pain. As the farmer walked on, he slipped on the edge of the road and broke his head.

All this happened in a matter of minutes before me and then I realized that evil begets evil. I thought about it deeply and was ready to give up my worldly life for the betterment of my subjects. I wanted to give up the evil in me as I did not want evil to encounter me.

Sniggering away the immoral advisor thought what a perfect time it was to dethrone the king because the Raja had grown kind-hearted and patient and would not endeavor combat. Thinking how he would plan his attack, he stumbled over a step that took him hurling down the remaining steps, bringing him to a stop with a crash. He howled in pain only to discover he had broken the bones in both his legs.

71. How can Raja Shankara be described before his transformation?
1. He was unjust
2. He was preoccupied with himself
3. He was cruel

    A. Only (1)
    B. Only (2)
    C. Only (3)
    D. Only (1) and (2)
    E. All the three (1), (2) and (3)


72. Why was the king not happy with the old Valuer?

    A. As the Valuer was not good at his work
    B. As he had dishonored the king
    C. As the Valuer had been dishonest with the king about the prices that he set for goods
    D. As the king believed that he was not earning much because of the Valuer’s honesty
    E. None of these


73. What proclamation did the Raja make to his subjects?

    A. That he was giving up his throne for the betterment of the kingdom
    B. That his advisor would be the king from then on
    C. That he would be a better king to them that he had been all this while
    D. That his subjects were not good enough to deserve better treatment than what was already being meted out to them
    E. None of these


74. What did Raja Shankara’s wife think about the Raja’s peculiar behavior that particular day?

    A. She was afraid that something really bad had happened
    B. She was afraid that the Raja would beat her up because of his unusual mood
    C. She thought that he was in his usual sour mood
    D. She thought that the Raja had received threats to his life from his servants
    E. None of these


75. What was the reason for Raja Shankara’s change in behavior?

    A. His advisor’s words had made him realize his mistake
    B. He had felt bad for a poor family on his tour around his kingdom
    C. His wife had betrayed him and hence he was upset
    D. He had realized that doing good to people would bring good to him
    E. He had realized that evil begets evil.


76. What can possibly be the moral of the story?

    A. Believe in yourself
    B. Money is not everything in life
    C. Don’t trust people
    D. Better late than never
    E. As you sow so shall you reap


77. How did Raja Shankara treat all his servants if they interrupted him before he changed into a good person?

    A. He treated all his servants with respect
    B. He would scold them and sometimes cut their heads off over trivial issues
    C. He would dismiss them from their duties never to be reinstated
    D. He would rob them of all their possessions
    E. None of these


78. What plan did Twishar have with regard to the Raja?

    A. He planned to take over the Raja’s throne through devious means
    B. He was a loyal servant to the Raja and always had his best interests in mind
    C. He had plans to provoking the Raja into ruling the kingdom in more wicked ways
    D. He planned to kill the raja with the help of the Raja’s servants
    E. None of these


79. Why did Twishar think that this was the best time to dethrone the Raja?

    A. As the Raja was sick, ailing and was on his deathbed
    B. As he knew that the Raja had finally lost his mind
    C. As he knew that the Raja had become a soft natured person and would not attempt to fight.
    D. As he was sure that he would be able to convince that people of the kingdom that the Raja had become weak
    E. None of these


80. What did the dog do to the cat?

    A. The dog chased the cat and sent it in the misdirection
    B. The dog bit the cat’s leg and crippled her for life
    C. The dog killed the cat
    D. Not mentioned in the passage
    E. None of these


Directions Q (81 – 85): Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

81. Her entry to the office party was restricted as an official inquiry had been constituted against her.

    A. was restricting
    B. is restricted
    C. was restricted
    D. is restricting
    E. No correction required


82. Rima was at her wit’s end trying to figure out what to buy for her friend’s birthday.

    A. at her witting end
    B. at her wit ends
    C. to her wit’s end
    D. so wit’s end
    E. No correction required


83. Pritesh while away his time in playing games on the computer instead of studying.

    A. whiled away his time
    B. whiled against his time
    C. whiling away his time
    D. while away his time
    E. No correction required


84. Mohan had made up his mind about going on the world tour all alone.

    A. made minds
    B. make his mind
    C. make up his minding
    D. made up his mind
    E. No correction required


85. She rushed to the station but could find any trace of her daughter there.

    A. not found trace
    B. find no trace
    C. found not trace
    D. finding no trace
    E. No correction required


Directions Q (86 – 90): In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelled or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelled or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelled and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

86.

    A. Discussion
    B. is an exchange of knowledge
    C. whereas argument
    D. is a depiction of ignorance.
    E. All correct


87.

    A. He was arrested
    B. for the crime
    C. and was charged
    D. with attempt to murder.
    E. All correct


88.

    A. commit
    B. yourself to lifelong learning
    C. as the most valuable
    D. aset you will have is your mind.
    E. All correct


89.

    A. Belive
    B. that life is worth
    C. living and your belief will create (c)/
    D. the fact.
    E. All correct


90.

    A. The best educated
    B. human bing
    C. is the one who understands
    D. most about the life in which he is placed.
    E. All correct


Directions Q (91 – 100): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of-of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time, two friends were (91) through the desert. During some point of the (92), they had an argument, and one friend slapped the other one in the face. The one who got slapped was (93), but without saying anything, he wrote in the sand, “Today my best friend slapped me in the face.” They kept on walking (94) they found an oasis, where they (95) to take both. The one, who had been slapped, got (96) in the quicksand and started drowing, but the friend saved him. After the friend (97) from the near drowning, he wrote on a stone, “The friend who had slapped and saved his best friend asked him, “After I hurt you, you wrote in the sand and (98) you write on a stone, why?” The other friend (99), “When someone hurts us, we should write it down in the sand where winds of forgiveness can erase it away. But, when someone does something good for us, we must (100) it in stone where no wind can ever erase it.”

91.

    A. crawling
    B. speaking
    C. swimming
    D. walking
    E. dancing


92.

    A. journey
    B. sand
    C. running
    D. border
    E. hunt


93.

    A. dead
    B. captured
    C. presentable
    D. missing
    E. hurt


94.

    A. as
    B. until
    C. from
    D. with
    E. through


95.

    A. decided
    B. fell
    C. made
    D. want
    E. left


96.

    A. home
    B. stuck
    C. blended
    D. mixed
    E. sitting


97.

    A. separated
    B. leaked
    C. died
    D. recovered
    E. saved


98.

    A. so
    B. how
    C. when
    D. tomorrow
    E. now


99.

    A. called
    B. tell
    C. replied
    D. questioned
    E. asked


100.

    A. talk
    B. push
    C. engrave
    D. add
    E. bury


Solutions: Q(46-50)

Q71.

Answer: Option E

Q72.

Answer: Option D

Q73.

Answer: Option C

Q74.

Answer: Option A

Q75.

Answer: Option E

Q76.

Answer: Option E

Q77.

Answer: Option C

Q78.

Answer: Option A

Q79.

Answer: Option C

Q80.

Answer: Option B

Q81.

Answer: Option C

Q82.

Answer: Option E

Q83.

Answer: Option A

Q84.

Answer: Option D

Q85.

Answer: Option B

Q86.

Answer: Option C

Q87.

Answer: Option E

Q88.

Answer: Option D

Q89.

Answer: Option A

Q90.

Answer: Option B

Q91.

Answer: Option A

Q92.

Answer: Option A

Q93.

Answer: Option E

Q94.

Answer: Option B

Q95.

Answer: Option A

Q96.

Answer: Option B

Q97.

Answer: Option D

Q98.

Answer: Option A

Q99.

Answer: Option E

Q100.

Answer: Option C