IBPS RRB OFFICER (Scale I, II, III) - SPLessons

IBPS RRB Officers Scale Prelims Exam

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IBPS RRB Officers Scale Prelims Exam

shape Introduction

IBPS RRB Officer (Scale I) 2020 - Preliminary Examination, conducted in Online Mode, has: a duration of 45 minutes, a total of 80 questions, a maximum score of 80 marks, and, consists of 2 sections, namely - Reasoning Ability and Quantitative Aptitude. The 2 sections are not timed and the questions can be attempted in any order. There is a Negative marking in IBPS RRB Officers Scale Prelims Exam and 0.25 marks are deducted for each wrong answer. Candidates must clear the cut-off in all 2 sections to qualify for the IBPS RRB Officer (Scale I) Main exam.

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S.NO Name of test Medium of Exam Number of questions Marks Duration
1 Reasoning Hindi/English 40 40 Composite time of 45 minutes
2 Quantitative Aptitude Hindi/English 40 40
Total 80 80

shape Reasoning

The Reasoning Ability section, in the IBPS RRB Officers Scale Prelims Exam, has a total of 40 questions with a maximum of 40 marks. Every correct answer earns 1 mark and every wrong answer has a penalty of 0.25 i.e 0.25 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. If a question is left unanswered, there will be no penalty for that question. Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions in the Reasoning Ability Section of IBPS RRB Officers Scale Prelims Exam.
Topic Number of Questions
Syllogism 0 - 5
Input Output 0 – 5
Alphanumeric Series 0 – 5
Ranking/Direction/Alphabet Test 0 – 5
Seating Arrangement 0 - 10
Logical Reasoning 5 - 10
Puzzle 5 - 7
Coding Decoding 0 - 5
Blood Relations 0 - 5
Data Sufficiency 0 - 5
Inequalities 0 - 5

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Directions (1 - 5): In each of the questions below are given two or more statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be an at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
1. Statements: No giraffe is a leopard. All leopards are kangaroos. All kangaroos are wolfs. Conclusions: I. All kangaroos can never be giraffes II. All giraffes are definitely wolfs.
    A. If only conclusion I follow. B. If only conclusion II follows. C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: Option A
2. Statements: Some fruits are mangos. All mangos are guavas. No guava is a banana. Conclusions: I. All guavas are fruits. II. Some guavas are fruits.
    A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If both conclusions I and II follows. C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. If only conclusion II follows.

Answer: Option D
3. Statements: Some fruits are mangos. All mangos are guavas. No guava is a banana. Conclusions: I. All fruits are bananas. II. No mango is a banana.
    A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If only conclusion II follows. C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. D. If both conclusions I and II follows.

Answer: Option B
4. Statements: All locks are keys. Some keys are pockets. Conclusions: I. No pocket is lock. II. At least some pockets are keys.
    A. If only conclusion I follows. B. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. C. If only conclusion II follows. D. If both conclusions I and II follows.

Answer: Option C
5. Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens. Conclusions: 1. Some pens are pencils. 2. Some pens are papers.
    A. Only (1) conclusion follows B. Only (2) conclusion follows C. Either (1) or (2) follows D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows E. Both (1) and (2) follow

Answer: Option E
Directions (6 - 10): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A number arrangement machine when given an input of words/numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement. Input: 56 dice 46 right point 23 hide 12 Step 1: dice 56 46 right point 23 hide 12 Step 2: dice 46 right point 23 hide 12 58 Step 3: right dice 46 point 23 hide 12 58 Step 4: right dice 46 point 23 hide 58 14 Step 5: hide right dice 46 point 23 58 14 Step 6: hide right dice point 23 58 14 48 Step 7: point hide right dice 23 58 14 48 Step 8: point hide right dice 58 14 48 25 This is the final arrangement and step 8 is the last step for this input. Input: eleven 17 Tuesday Sunday 47 25 march 61
6. Which number/word is 3rd to right of 7th from right end in step 5?
    A. Other than given in options B. eleven C. sunday D. 25 E. 63

Answer: Option D
7. In step 4, if ‘tuesday’ is related to ‘sunday’ and ‘25’ is related to ‘19’ in a certain way, then ‘eleven’ is related to which of the following?
    A. 47 B. march C. 63 D. 25 E. None of these

Answer: Option A
8. What is the sum of numbers which are 3rd from the left end in step 2 and 3rd from the right end in step 5?
    A. 85 B. 80 C. 82 D. 73 E. 77

Answer: Option B
9. How many words/numbers are between ‘tuesday’ and ‘25’ in step 3?
    A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 5 E. 3

Answer: Option E
10. Which of the following is the last but one step of given input?goot
    A. Sunday march Tuesday eleven 63 19 49 27 B. Sunday march Tuesday eleven 27 63 19 49 C. Sunday march Tuesday eleven 25 63 19 49 D. march Tuesday eleven Sunday 25 63 19 49 E. None of these

Answer: Option C
Directions (11 - 15): Answer these questions referring to the symbol – letter-number sequence given below:
H ⍺ K 7 D ¢ M L 3 ● G 7 β Z 6 * δ θ 1 F B @ 9 S γ 2 $ P 4 A ∆ 5
11. How many letters in the sequence either immediately precede a number or immediately follow a symbol?
    A. Eight B. Five C. Four D. Six E. None of these

Answer: Option B
12. What is the total number of ‘the letters immediately preceded by a number belonging to the second half of the sequence’ and ‘the symbol immediately preceded by a letter belonging to the second half of the English alphabet’ in the above sequence?
    A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
13. If the second half of the series is written in the reverse order which of the following will be the twelfth element to the right of the ninth element from your left?
    A. P B. $ C. 4 D. A E. None of these

Answer: Option A
14. Which of the following will be the seventh element to the left of 19thelement from your left in the above series?
    A. Z B. β C. G D. 7 E. None of these

Answer: Option D
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence from a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
    A. H ¢ 7 B. k ● 6 C. D β 1 D. M * 9 E. L @ 4

Answer: Option E
16. If (i) M is the brother of N; (ii) B is the brother of N; (iii) M is the brother of D, then which of the following statements is definitely true?
    A. N is the brother of B B. N is the brother of D C. M is the brother of B D. D is the brother of M

Answer: Option C
17. In a row of trees, one tree is fifth from either end of the row. How many trees are there in the row?
    A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11

Answer: Option B
18. Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ... What number should come next?
    A. 12 B. 14 C. 27 D. 53

Answer: Option B
19. In these series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number pattern. Fill the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series. B2CD, _____, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D
    A. BC3D B. B2C2D C. B2C3D D. BCD7

Answer: Option B
20. Given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument. Statement: Should India encourage exports, when most things are insufficient for internal use itself? Arguments: Yes. We have to earn foreign exchange to pay for our imports. No. Even selective encouragement would lead to shortages.
    A. Only argument I is strong B. Only argument II is strong C. Either I or II is strong D. Neither I nor II is strong E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: Option A

shape Quantitative

The Quantitative Aptitude section, in the IBPS RRB Officers Scale Prelims Exam, has a total of 40 questions with a maximum of 40 marks. Every correct answer earns 1 mark and every wrong answer has a penalty of 0.25 i.e 0.25 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. If a question is left unanswered, there will be no penalty for that question. Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions in the Quantitative Aptitude of IBPS RRB Officers Scale Prelims Exam.
Topic Number of Questions
Data Interpretation 1 - 15
Permutation, Combination & Probability 1 - 5
Simplification 0 - 5
Ratio & Proportion, Percentage & Averages 0 - 3
Number Systems 0 - 3
Profit & Loss 0 - 2
Work & Time 0 - 2
Time & Distance 0 - 2
Simple Interest & Compound Interest & Surds & Indices 1 – 2
Sequence & Series 1 – 2
Mixtures & Alligations 1 – 2
LCM & HCF 1 – 2
Factoring 1 – 2
Missing numbers 1 - 5
Fractions 1 - 2
Age 1 - 2
Average 1 - 5
Volume 2 - 3
Series Completion 1 - 5
Percentages 0 - 2
Prices & Expenditure problems 1 - 5
Mensuration 1 - 5

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Directions (1 - 5): Study the following table and answer the given questions
Time of expenditure/Year Salary Fuel and transport Bonus Interest on loans Taxes
1998 288 98 3.00 23.4 83
1999 342 112 2.52 32.5 108
2000 324 101 3.84 41.6 74
2001 336 133 3.38 36.4 88
2002 420 142 3.96 49.4 98

1. The total amount of bonus paid by the Company during the given period is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?
    A. 0.1% B. 0.5% C. 1% D. 1.25%

Answer: Option C
2. Find the ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively?
    A. 4:7 B. 10:13 C. 15:18 D. 5:8

Answer: Option B
3. What is the average amount of interest per year which the Company had to pay during this period?
    A. Rs. 32.43 lakhs B. Rs. 33.72 lakhs C. Rs. 34.18 lakhs D. Rs. 36.66 lakhs

Answer: Option D
4. What is the total expenditure of the Company over these items during the year 2000?
    A. Rs. 544.44 lakhs B. Rs. 501.11 lakhs C. Rs. 446.46 lakhs D. Rs. 478.87 lakhs

Answer: Option A
5. Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2002?
    A. 62% B. 66% C. 69% D. 71%

Answer: Option C
6. In how many ways can a group of 5 men and 2 women be made out of a total of 7 men and 3 women?
    A. 63 B. 90 C. 126 D. Rs. 45 E. Rs.135

Answer: Option A
7. A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is white?
    A. 3/4 B. 4/7 C. 1/8 D. 3/7

Answer: Option B
8. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes that he has?
    A. 45 B. 60 C. 75 D. 90

Answer: Option D
9. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:
    A. 2: 5 B. 3 : 5 C. 4 : 5 D. 6 : 7

Answer: Option C
10. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples. Originally, he had:
    A. 588 apples B. 600 apples C. 672 apples D. 700 apples

Answer: Option D
11. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
    A. 15 B. 16 C. 18 D. 25

Answer: Option B
12. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?
    A. 3.6 B. 7.2 C. 8.4 D. 10

Answer: Option B
13. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be the compound interest of Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?
    A. Rs. 2160 B. Rs. 3120 C. Rs. 3972 D. Rs. 6240 E. None of these

Answer: Option C
14. Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ... What number should come next?
    A. 12 B. 14 C. 27 D. 53

Answer: Option B
15. Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be:
    A. Rs. 169.50 B. Rs. 170 C. Rs. 175.50 D. Rs. 180

Answer: Option C
16. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?
    A. 4 years B. 8 years C. 10 years D. None of these

Answer: Option A
17. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?
    A. 4 years B. 8 years C. 10 years D. None of these

Answer: Option A
18. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of the ground is:
    A. 75 cu. m B. 750 cu. m C. 7500 cu. m D. 75000 cu. m

Answer: Option B
19. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:
    A. 39, 30 B. 41, 32 C. 42, 33 D. 43, 34

A: Option C
20. If the sides of a triangle are 26 cm, 24 cm and 10 cm, what is its area?
    A. 120 [latex]cm^2[/latex] B. 130 [latex]cm^2[/latex] C. 312 [latex]cm^2[/latex] D. 315 [latex]cm^2[/latex] E. None of these

Answer: Option A

IBPS RRB Officers Scale – Related Information
IBPS RRB Officer (Scale I) – Reasoning Ability - Study Guide
IBPS RRB Officer (Scale I) – Quantitative Aptitude - Study Guide