IBPS SO - SPLessons

IBPS SO ITO AFO HRO PO MO Main

Home > > Tutorial
SPLessons 5 Steps, 3 Clicks
5 Steps - 3 Clicks

IBPS SO ITO AFO HRO PO MO Main

shape Introduction

IBPS SO 2019 – Main Examination for the posts of IT Officer (ITO), Agriculture Field Officer (AFO), HR/Personnel Officer (HRO/PO) and Marketing Officer (MO) conducted in Online Mode, has: a duration of 45 minutes, a total of 60 questions, and a maximum score of 60 marks, and, consists of 1 section i.e. Professional Knowledge. There is a Negative marking in IBPS SO Main exam and 0.25 marks are deducted for each wrong answer. Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in the test of Online Main examination and also secure sufficiently high scores to be considered to be shortlisted for interview. The below sections gives the detailed information about IBPS SO IBPS SO ITO AFO HRO PO MO Main Main Examination.

shape Imp Dates

Event Date
IBPS SO Notification 2019 Announcement 05-11-2019
IBPS SO Online Registration Starts From 06-11-2019
Last Date to Apply Online for IBPS SO 26-11-2019
Download of call letters for Online examination – Preliminary 12 - 12 - 2019
Closure of Call letter Download 29-11-2019
IBPS SO Preliminary Exam [latex]{28}^{th}[/latex] and [latex]{29}^{th}[/latex] December 2019
Result of IBPS SO Preliminary Exam January 2020
Download of call letters for Online examination – Mains January 2020
IBPS SO Mains Exam Date [latex]{25}^{th}[/latex] January 2020
Conduct of Interview February 2020
IBPS SO 2019-20 Final Result April 2020

shape Pattern

The structure of the Examinations for the post of IT Officer, Agriculture Field Officer, HR/Personnel Officer and Marketing Officer which will be conducted online are as follows:
S.No Name of Test No. of Questions Maximum Marks Medium of Exam Duration
1 Professional Knowledge 60 60 English & Hindi 45 minutes

shape Syllabus

Click Here - For Different Categories in IBPS SO Main Exam Syllabus

shape Samples

1. The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class database system?
    A. Database application and the database B. Data and the database C. The user and the database application D. Database application and SQL
Answer: A
2. Which of the following products was an early implementation of the relational model developed by E.F. Codd of IBM?
    A. IDMS B. DB2 C. dBase-II D. R:base
Answer: B
3. How many digits of the DNIC (Data Network Identification Code) identify the country?
    A. first three B. first four C. first five D. first six E. None of the above
Answer: A
4. A station in a network forwards incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output queue. What routing algorithm is being used?
    A. hot potato routing B. flooding C. static routing D. delta routing E. None of the above
Answer: A
5. The probability that a single bit will be in error on a typical public telephone line using 4800 bps modem is 10 to the power -3. If no error detection mechanism is used, the residual error rate for a communication line using 9-bit frames is approximately equal to
    A. 0.003 B. 0.009 C. 0.991 D. 0.999 E. None of the above
Answer: B
6. The part of machine level instruction, which tells the central processor what has to be done, is
    A. Operation code B. Address C. Locator D. Flip-Flop E. None of the above
Answer: A
7. Which of the following refers to the associative memory?
    A. the address of the data is generated by the CPU B. the address of the data is supplied by the users C. there is no need for an address i.e. the data is used as an address D. the data are accessed sequentially E. None of the above
Answer: C
8. To avoid the race condition, the number of processes that may be simultaneously inside their critical section is
    A. 8 B. 1 C. 16 D. 0 E. None of the above
Answer: B
9. A default catch block catches
    A. all thrown objects B.no thrown objects C. any thrown object that has not been caught by an earlier catch block D. all thrown objects that have been caught by an earlier catch block
Answer: C
10. Format flags may be combined using
    A. the bitwise OR operator (|) B. the logical OR operator (||) C. the bitwise AND operator (&) D. the logical AND operator (&&)
Answer: A
1. The Punjab government has banned this chemical compound which is consider as a Group 2A cancer-causing material.
    A. Dicamba B. Glyphosate C. Atrazine D. Chlorpyrifos
Answer: B
2. World's oldest intact shipwreck found in __________.
    A. Red Sea B. Black Sea C. Arabian Sea D. Mediterranean Sea
Answer: B
3. With which country India collaborate to strengthen sectors of agriculture, health & environment?
    A. Singapore B.Russia C. Israel D. Germany
Answer: C
4. Which programme was launched to prevent child trafficking and rescue children from persons who try to engage them in begging, sexual trade and antisocial activities?
    A. Kilkaari B. Muskaan C. Rahat D. Khusz E. Savitri
Answer: B
5. Which of the following mentioned portals & sub- programmes were created under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA?
    A. Shagun Portal B. Padhe Bharat Badhu Bharat C. Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan (RAA) D. Vidyanjali E. All of the above
Answer: E
6. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayats: 1. Each such panchayat brings together about a hundred women LPG customers on an interactive platform to discuss about safe and sustainable usage of LPG. 2. One lakh such panchayats will be conducted across India before 31st March 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
7. The ‘Startup India Yatra’ is an initiative that is related to
    A. Development of startup ecosystems in villages. B. The search for entrepreneurial talent in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities. C. Awareness workshops on the Startup India Initiative being held at technical universities across the country. D. Startup India Hub’s international bilateral cooperation with countries having strong startup ecosystems. E. None of the above
Answer: B
8. Acid rains are produced by
    A. excess NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil fuels B. excess production of NH3 by industry and coal gas C. excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion D. excess formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration.
Answer: A
9. Which one is not a pollutant normally?
    A. Hydrocarbon B. carbon dioxide C. carbon monoxide D. sulphur dioxide.
Answer: B
10. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains
    A. plankton B. nekton C. plankton and nekton D. benthos
Answer: A
1. First step of Human Resource development in any organization is
    A. determining development approaches B. assessing the needs for development C. identifying capabilities D. formulate HR plans
Answer: D
2. Second step of HR development process in any organization is
    A. identifying capabilities B. formulate HR plans C. determining development approaches D. assessing the needs for development
Answer: A
3. Fourth step in development process in organization is
    A. determining development approaches B. assessing the needs for development C. identifying capabilities D. formulate HR plans
Answer: B
4. Process of improving ability of employees regarding handling of assignments is classified as
    A. workforce staffing B. career identification C. development D. career planning
Answer: C
5. Promotion are made available from within and competitive advantages based on human resources are focuses of
    A. regression planning B. aggressive planning C. development D. training
Answer: C
6. A debit represents:
    A. An increase in equity B. An increase in liability C. An increase in asset D.A decrease in asset
Answer: C
7. A credit represents:
    A. A decrease in equity B. A decrease in liability C. An increase in asset D. decrease in asset
Answer: D
8. Mr Sam invests $75,000 into business. It will be:
    A. Credited to cash B. Debited to cash C. Debited to capital D. Debited to equity
Answer: B
9. Purchases account is used for merchandise purchased for:
    A. Resale B. Use in business C. Use in manufacturing process D. Retaining in the business
Answer: A
10. Salary paid to John will be:
    A. Debited to John B. Credited to John C. Debited to salary D. Debited to cash
Answer: C
1. Process of selecting segments to serve by offering product is referred as
    A. Market segmentation B. Targeting C. Marketing D. Both a and b
Answer: B
2. Firm's performance can be better measured by
    A. Current sales B. Customer equity C. Market share D. Both a and b
Answer: B
3. Particular communication that must be achieve within definite target audience within specific time is classified as
    A. message decision B. media decision C. advertising objective D. advertising evaluation
Answer: C
4. A personal computer with features relating processor’s specifications, the size of the hard disk and capacity of RAM is an example of:
    A. Explicit promise B. Implicit promise C. Positive promise D. Negative promise
Answer: A
5. All of the following statements would be considered to be TRUE regarding company vision statements EXCEPT:
    A. Vision statements are never presented with an organization's mission statement B. Vision statements are often combined with the mission statement C. Vision statements are often designed to be memorable, one-line statements D. Vision statements reflect an organization's strategic intent
Answer: A
6. Market is divided into groups on the basis of age, family size, gender, income, occupation, education, religion, race, generation, nationality, or social class is the best description of which of the following?
    A. Demographics B. Psychographics C. Behavioral D. Geographic
Answer: A
7. Building the brand vision is very serious matter and cannot be decided by just one manager because of the issue of:
    A. Marketing B. Finance C. Production D. Promotion
Answer: B
8. According to marketing four Ps, credit terms can be classified as
    A. Place B. Product C. Price D. Promotion
Answer: C
9. From buyer's point of view, product is considered as
    A. Customers cost B. Customer solution C. Convenient availability D. Communication
Answer: A
10. Evaluation of profitability of each segment is called
    A. Targeting B. Market segmentation C. Positioning D. Differentiation
Answer: A