LIC ADO - SPLessons

LIC ADO Mains Model Paper

SPLessons 5 Steps, 3 Clicks
5 Steps - 3 Clicks

LIC ADO Mains Model Paper

shape Introduction

Aspirants of LIC Apprentice Development Officer (ADO) 2019, who are willing to enhance their career with insurance sector can check all the details in LIC ADO’s 2019 – Official Notification issued by LIC. The online examination Mains exam is scheduled to be conducted on 10\(^{th}\) August, 2019.


Click Here – For Official Website


Candidates planning to take up employment in the Insurance sector must be aware of many of the terms policies and other such important information related to Insurance. The article LIC ADO Mains Model Paper provides pattern Questions, and it helps the candidates to devise effective preparation strategies, by focusing on their strengths and weaknesses in different topics and also useful to the candidates while preparing Various Insurance, Banking & Government Exams like SBI PO, SBI Clerk, UIIC, OICL, LIC HFL, LIC AAO etc.,.


Below mentioned data gives an overview of the LIC ADO 2019 Mains Model Paper. The paper is divided into three sections i.e., Reasoning Ability & Numerical Ability; General Knowledge, Current Affairs, English Language; Insurance and Financial Market Awareness.


shape Pattern

Q1. 20, 23, 51, 160, 651, ?

    A. 3268
    B. 3264
    C. 3246
    D. 3278
    E. None of these


Q2. 45, 89, 265, 1057, 5281, ?

    A. 31689
    B. 31681
    C. 31481
    D. 38241
    E. None of these


Q3. Find the number of rectangles?


    A. 19
    B. 28
    C. 27
    D. 36
    E. 39


Q4. Find the number of square?


    A. 10
    B. 18
    C. 15
    D. 19
    E. 21


Q5. Water : ? :: Space : Radiation

    A. Convection
    B. Evaporation
    C. Oxidation
    D. Condensation
    E. None of these


Q6. Water : Pitcher :: ? : Vase

    A. Rose
    B. Fruits
    C. Vegetables
    D. Ice
    E. None of these


Q7. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (?) as its part.


    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    E. All the above


Q8. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (?) as its part.


    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    E. All the above


Directions (Q9 – Q10): Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight members P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W of a family are sitting around a circular table with all of them facing outwards. Each one of them like a different brand of bikes viz. TVS, Yamaha, Hero, Honda, SUZUKI, KTM, Bajaj, and Royal Enfield. Three married couples are there in the family.


P who is the father of U and uncle of V sits to the left of the person who likes TVS. U is an immediate neighbor of her aunty W who does not sit next to S. R does not like Royal Enfield or Bajaj. W is the only sister-in-law of P whereas Q likes KTM and daughter-in-law of R. The two youngest members sit next to each other. The one likes the Yamaha sits between V and the one who likes SUZUKI. V is third to the left of S. The one who likes KTM sits between the persons who like Bajaj and Royal Enfield Respectively. S’s husband and son sit next to her. Honda is not liked by V’s father. V does not like Hero or Bajaj. S is the mother of P and T, sits second to the left of T.

Q9. Which of the following statements is true regarding the family?

    A. P is the brother of W
    B. R is the father-in-law of P
    C. Q is the aunty of V
    D. U and V are married couple
    E. None of the Above


Q10. What is the position of the person who likes Honda with respect to the one who likes KTM ?

    A. Third to the right
    B. Second to the left
    C. Immediate left
    D. Third to the left
    E. Fourth to the left


Q11. Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X).


    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    E. All the above


Q12. Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X).


    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    E. All the above


Direction (Q13 – Q14): Read the following question which are Direction sense and answer below.

Point A is 5m to the north of point B. Point B is 8m to the west of point C. Point D is 4m to the south of point C. Point E is 4m to the east of point A. Point F is exactly midway between point B and C in such a way that point B, C and F form a straight line.

Q13. Which of the following point is exactly 5m away from point E ?

    A. D
    B. F
    C. B
    D. A
    E. All the above


Q14. In which direction is point D with respect to point A ?

    A. South – west
    B. South-east
    C. North-west
    D. South
    E. None of these


Q15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

    A. Mug
    B. Pitcher
    C. Jar
    D. Saucer
    E. Jug


Q16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

    A. Avoid
    B. Obstruct
    C. Block
    D. Hamper
    E. Impede


Q17. It is 4 hrs. 40 min in a clock. Find the angle between both the needles of a clock.

    A. 100\(^{0}\)
    B. 80\(^{0}\)
    C. 120\(^{0}\)
    D. 200\(^{0}\)
    E. 240\(^{0}\)


Q18. Given that on 10\(^{th}\) November 1981 is Tuesday, what was the day on 10\(^{th}\) November 1581

    A. Monday
    B. Thursday
    C. Sunday
    D. Tuesday
    E. Wednesday


Direction (Q19 – Q20): Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions which follow:

129, 642, 921, 476, 308

Q19. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the second digit of the lowest number is added to the third digit of the highest number after adding four to each number?

    A. 5
    B. 6
    C. 7
    D. 8
    E. None of the Above


Q20. If the digits in each of the five numbers are arranged in descending order, the position of how many numbers will not change?

    A. None
    B. One
    C. Two
    D. Three
    E. Four


Directions (Q21 – Q22): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Following are the conditions for selecting Trainee Officers in an organization.

The candidate must –

  • (i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% marks.
  • (ii) has secured at least 60% marks in class 12.
  • (iii) be at least 22 years and not more than 29 years as on 1.1.2016
  • (iv) have secured at least 40% marks in the selection examination
  • (v) have secured at least 50% marks in personal interview
  • (vi) be ready to sign a bond for 2 years.


In the case of candidate who fulfills all conditions except –

    (a) At (i) above, but is a qualified CA, the case is to be referred to ED.
    (b) at (v) above, but has secured at least 60% marks in the selection examination, the case is to be referred to Chairman.


In each question below, details of a candidate are provided followed by a question and 5 courses of action. Select the course of action that applies to the person’s candidature.

Q21. Anuj was born on December 2, 1986. He has secured 56% marks in BTech and 63% marks in class 12. He has also secured 55% marks in both the selection examination and personal interview. He is ready to sign a bond for 2 years.

    A. if the candidate is to be selected
    B. if the candidate is not to be selected
    C. if the case is to be referred as ED.
    D. if the case is to be referred as Chairman.
    E. if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.


Q22. Lata was born on March 14, 1991. She has secured 62% marks in class 12 and 65% marks in selection examination. She has also secured 58% marks in graduation and 48% marks in personal interview. She is ready to sign a bond for 2 years.

    A. if the candidate is to be selected
    B. if the candidate is not to be selected
    C. if the case is to be referred as ED.
    D. if the case is to be referred as Chairman.
    E. if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.


Directions (Q23 – Q24): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

P @ Q means P is sister of Q
P % B means P is son of Q
P $ Q means P is mother of Q
P # Q means P is father of Q


Which of the following should come in place of ? to make the expression M is grandfather of S ?

Q23. U % M # R ? T # S

    A. $
    B. %
    C. @
    D. #
    E. None of these


Q24. How is P related to O in the given expression ?
V $ O # Y @ Z % P

    A. Grandmother
    B. Sister
    C. Wife
    D. Mother
    E. None of these


Q25. Choose the word which is least like the others word in a group?

    A. Carrot
    B. Ginger
    C. Potato
    D. Tomato
    E. Turmeric


Q26. Choose the word which is least like the others word in a group?

    A. Calendar
    B. Date
    C. Day
    D. Month
    E. Year


Q27. A is sister of B, B is married to C, C is son of D. A is mother of E. F is father of G. F has only one son and only one daughter. G is daughter of A. H is son of B.

How is H related to D ?


    A. Brother
    B. Grandson
    C. Cousin
    D. Uncle
    E. All the above


Q28. A is sister of B, B is married to C, C is son of D. A is mother of E. F is father of G. F has only one son and only one daughter. G is daughter of A. H is son of B.

How is E related to B ?


    A. Nephew
    B. Daughter
    C. Niece
    D. Son-in-law
    E. All the above


Directions (Q29 – Q30): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

‘Prepare and success soon’ is written as ‘tn dj ly xs’
‘Prepare now for results’ is written as ‘jt mr dj ps’
‘Soon results are awaited’ is written as ‘bk rt mr ly’
‘Results for success important’ is written as ‘ps tn mr zn’

Q29. What is the code for ‘soon’ in the given language ?

    A. None
    B. ly
    C. ps
    D. dj
    E. All the above


Q30. ’Success now’ is coded in the given coded language ?

    A. jt dj
    B. zn tn
    C. jt tn
    D. ps tn
    E. All the above


Directions (Q31 – Q32): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

R # T U 3 D $ J @ B E 9 © W 1 A F % P 2 4 Q I N 6 M * Z 5

Q31. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the ninth from the right end?

    A. A
    B. F
    C. W
    D. R
    E. T


Q32. Which of the following will be the sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?

    A. R
    B. T
    C. U
    D. J
    E. None of these


Q33. 1650, ?, 50, 9.5, 1.17, -0.415

    A. 1050
    B. 270
    C. 560
    D. 750
    E. 980


Q34. 290, 360, ?, 528, 626

    A. 442
    B. 424
    C. 222
    D. 444
    E. 440


Q35. 18, 10, 8, 9, 11.5, ?

    A. 14.75
    B. 10.75
    C. 18.75
    D. 19.75
    E. 20.75


Q36. 6, 4, 6, 12, 22, ?

    A. 26
    B. 36
    C. 86
    D. 66
    E. 46


Q37. In the series 2, 6, 18, 54, …… what will be the 8\(^{th}\) term ?

    A. 4370
    B. 4374
    C. 7443
    D. 7434
    E. 7454


Q38. 589654237, 89654237, 8965423, 965423, ?

    A. 58965
    B. 65423
    C. 89654
    D. 96542
    E. 9654


Q39. From the salary, Akilesh spent 15% for house rent, 5% for children’s education and 15% for Entertainment. Now he left with Rs.13,000. His salary is

    A. 19,000
    B. 20,000
    C. 18,000
    D. 15,000
    E. 21,000


Q40. The population of a village is decreased by 12% and 10% in 2 successive years. What % population is decreased after 2 years ?

    A. 18.4%
    B. 30.6%
    C. 20.8%
    D. 23.5%
    E. 24.8%


Q41. A company declared 20 percent discount on its garments. Rakesh bought garments worth rupees 30000 after getting discount. Now he fixed the selling price of the garments in such a way that he got a profit of 15 percent on the marked price. Find the selling price of the garments.

    A. 34000
    B. 34225
    C. 35625
    D. 36000
    E. None of these


Q42. An article is sold for rupees 400 in which the seller fetches 25% profit. If 6 such articles are sold for rupees 2400, then the percent profit/loss incurred by the seller

    A. 25% profit
    B. 20% profit
    C. 25% loss
    D. 20% loss
    E. None of these


Q43. A truck covers a distance of 376 km at a certain speed in 8 hours. How much time would a car take at an average speed which is 18 kmph more than that of the speed of the truck to cover a distance which is 14 km more than that travelled by the truck ?

    A. 6 hours
    B. 5 hours
    C. 7 hours
    D. 8 hours
    E. 9 hours


Q44. 7 Indian and 4 American finish a job in 6 days. 7 African and 3 American finish the same job in 8 days. The efficiency of each person of a particular nationality is same but different from others. One Indian One American and One African will complete the work in:

    A. 10 days
    B. 12 days
    C. 24 days
    D. 36 days
    E. None of these


Q45. Divide Rs.2340 into three parts, such that first part be double that of second part and second part be 1/3 of the third part.Find the Third part amount?

    A. Rs.780
    B. Rs.1170
    C. Rs.750
    D. Rs.390
    E. None of these


Q46. In a group of 8 boys, 2 men aged at 21 and 23 were replaced two new boys. Due to this the average cost of the group increased by 2 years. What is the average age of the 2 new boys?

    A. 17
    B. 30
    C. 28
    D. 23
    E. 18


Q47. The least number, which when divided by 48, 60, 72, 108 and 140 leaves 38, 50, 62, 98 and 130 as remainders respectively, is:

    A. 11115
    B. 15110
    C. 15130
    D. 15310
    E. None of these


Q48. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 11 and their L.C.M. is 7700. If one of the numbers is 275, then the other is:

    A. 269
    B. 275
    C. 308
    D. 310
    E. None of these


Q49. Perimeter of a square and an equilateral triangle is equal. If the diagonal of the square is 10√2 cm, then find the area of equilateral triangle?

    A. (400√3)/9
    B. (400√3/7)
    C. (200√3/7)
    D. (200√3)/9
    E. None of these


Q50. Arya borrows rupees 6000 from a bank at SI. After 4 years she paid Rs 2500 to the bank and at the end of 5 years from the date of borrowing he paid Rs 4560 to settle the account. Find the rate of interest (approx)

    A. 3.25%
    B. 3.50%
    C. 3.85%
    D. 4%
    E. None of these


Answers and Explanations


1. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

(20 × 1) + 3 = 23

(23 × 2) + 5 = 51

(51 × 3) + 7 = 160

(160 × 4) + 11 = 651

(651 × 5) + 13 = 3268


2. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

(45 × 2) – 1 = 89

(89 × 3) – 2 = 265

(265 × 4) – 3 = 1057

(1057 × 5) – 4 = 5281

(5281 × 6) – 5 = 31681


3. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

36


4. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

10


5. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Convection is heat transfer from water

Radiation is energy transfer from space


6. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Roses are arranged in Vase


7. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Hence, option A is correct.


8. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Hence, option C is correct.


9. Answer – Option C


10. Answer – Option A

Explanation (9 – 10)-



11. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

1


12. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

3


13. Answer – Option B

Explanation –


14. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

South-east


15. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Shape of the saucer different from others


16. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Remaining words give the same meaning


17. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

1 Division = 300

So, 4 Division = 30 × 4 = 120\(^{0}\)

But, the hours needle has already covered the distance of 40 min. from its side, so the angle covered in these 40 min. = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 40 = 20\(^{0}\)

Now, the angle covered between both needles = 120\(^{0}\) – 20\(^{0}\) = 100\(^{0}\)


18. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

After every 400 years, the same day comes.

Thus if 10\(^{th}\) November 1981 was Tuesday, before 400 years i.e on 10\(^{th}\) November 1581, it has to be Tuesday.


19. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Lowest Number = 129 + 4 = 133

Highest Number = 921 + 4 = 925

3 + 5 = 8


20. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

642 921


21. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Anuj was born on December 2, 1986, so on 1.1.2016 she is greater than 29 years.


22. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

For Chairman, instead of at least 50% marks in personal interview, if secures at least 60% marks in selection exam, the case is to be referred as Chairman.

This case is satisfied here.


23. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

U son :M father: R sister: T father S


24. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

V mother O father Y sister Z son P
Hence OP => Husband & wife => YZ => Children of OP


25. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

All except Tomato grow underground.


26. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

All others are parts of a calendar.


27. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Grandson


28. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Nephew


29. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

ly


30. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

jt tn


31. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

R # T U 3 D $ J @ B E 9 © W 1 A F % P 2 4 Q I N 6 M * Z 5
Ninth from the right end – F


32. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

6\(^{th}\) to the left of the 14\(^{th}\) from the left end –> 8\(^{th}\) from the left end

R # T U 3 D $ J @ B E 9 © W 1 A F % P 2 4 Q I N 6 M * Z 5


33. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

\(\frac{1650}{6}\) – 5 = 275 – 5 = 270

\(\frac{270}{5}\) – 4 = 54 – 4 = 50

\(\frac{50}{4}\) – 3 = 12.5 – 3 = 9.5

\(\frac{9.5}{3}\) – 2 = 3.17 – 2 = 1.17

\(\frac{1.72}{2}\) – 1 = 0.585 – 1 = -0.415


34. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

17 × 2 = 289 + 1 = 290

19 × 2 =361 – 1 = 360

21 × 2 = 441 + 1 = 442

23 × 2 = 529 – 1 = 528

25 × 2 = 625 + 1 = 626


35. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

\(\frac{18}{2}\) + 1 = 10

\(\frac{10}{2}\) + 3 = 8

\(\frac{8}{2}\) + 5 = 9


36. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

\(\frac{6}{2}\) + 1\(^{2}\) = 4

\(\frac{4}{2}\) + 2\(^{2}\) = 6

\(\frac{6}{2}\) + 3\(^{2}\) = 12….


37. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Clearly, 2 x 3 = 6, 6 x 3 = 18, 18 x 3 = 54,…..

So, the series is a G.P. in which a = 2, r = 3.

Therefore 8\(^{th}\) term = ar\(^{8-1}\) = ar\(^{7}\) = 2 x 3\(^{7}\) = (2 x 2187) = 4374.


38. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

The digits are removed one by one from the beginning and the end in order alternately

so as to obtain the subsequent terms of the series.


39. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

10 + 15 + 10 = 35%

100 – 35 = 65% = 13,000

100% = 100 x \(\frac{13000}{65}\) = 20,000


40. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

% = -12 -10 + \(\frac{(-12 x -10)}{100}\)

= \(\frac{(-2200 + 120)}{100}\)

= \(\frac{– 2080}{100}\) = -20.8%


41. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

(\(\frac{80}{100}\)) × MP = 30000

MP = 37500, CP = 30000

Profit = (\(\frac{15}{100}\)) × 37500 =5625

SP = 30000 + 5625 = 35625 rupee


42. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

400 = (\(\frac{125}{100}\)) × CP

CP = 320.

Selling price = \(\frac{2400}{60}\) = 400.

% profit = \([\frac{(400 – 320)}{320}]\) × 100 = 25


43. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Speed of the truck = Distance/time = \(\frac{376}{8}\) = 47 kmph

Now, speed of car = (speed of truck + 18) kmph = (47 + 18) = 65 kmph

Distance travelled by car = 376 + 14 = 390 km

Time taken by car = \(\frac{Distance}{Speed}\) = \(\frac{390}{65}\) = 6 hours.


44. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

7I + 4Am = \(\frac{1}{6}\)

7Af + 4Am = \(\frac{1}{8}\)

7I + 7Af + 7Am = \(\frac{7}{24}\)

1I + 1Af + 1Am = \(\frac{1}{24}\)

One Indian One American and One African will complete the work in – 24 days.


45. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

First: Second: Third = 2:1:3

Third part = 3 × \(\frac{2340}{6}\) = 1170


46. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Average of 8 boys increased by 2, this means the total age of boys increased by 8 × 2 = 16 yrs

So sum of ages of two new boys = 21 + 23 + 16 = 60

Average of these = \(\frac{60}{2}\)


47. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Here (48 – 38) = 10, (60 – 50) = 10, (72 – 62) = 10, (108 – 98) = 10 & (140 – 130) = 10.

Required number = (L.C.M. of 48, 60, 72, 108, 140) – 10

= 15120 – 10 = 15110


48. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Other number = \(\frac{[11 x 7700]}{275}\) = 308


49. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Diagonal of a square = a√2 = 10√2

so a = 10, perimeter of square = 4 x 10 = 40 = 3x (x is the length of each side of triangle)

x = \(\frac{40}{3}\),

so are of equilateral triangle = \(\frac{√3}{4}\) x \(\frac{40}{3}\) x \(\frac{40}{3}\) = \(\frac{(400√3)}{9}\) cm\(^{2}\)


50. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Total interest she paid = [6000 x (\(\frac{r}{100}\)) x 4] + [3500 x (\(\frac{r}{100}\)) x 1] = 275r

total interest = 2500 + 4560 – 6000 = 1060

so 1060 = 275r, r = 3.85% approx

Q1. Which country was recently declared measles free by World Health Organization?

    A. Sri Lanka
    B. Nepal
    C. Bangladesh
    D. Pakistan
    E. None of these


Q2. According to the United Nations, which country has enriched uranium more than limit set in an international treaty of 2015?

    A. Iran
    B. Iraq
    C. Jordan
    D. Pakistan
    E. None of these


Q3. Which country was terminated by U.S. from availing benefits of Generalized System of Preferences(GSP) scheme recently ?

    A. China
    B. India
    C. Srilanka
    D. Pakistan
    E. None of these


Q4. Which Indian city topped the “Traffic Index 2018” and becomes congested city among 403 cities in 56 countries ?

    A. Chennai
    B. New Delhi
    C. Mumbai
    D. Bengaluru
    E. None of these


Q5. Who is set to receive the 2019 Global Leadership award along with NASDAQ ‘s (National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations) President Adena Friedman ?

    A. Sundar Pichai
    B. Vijay K. Thadani
    C. Dikesh Malhotra
    D. C Vijayakumar
    E. None of these


Q6. MoS (Finance) and Health launched which initiative for labour room quality improvement?

    A. Lakshya
    B. LaQshya
    C. LaQI
    D. All the above
    E. None of these


Q7. SEBI has allowed institutional participation in which segment by MF and portfolio managers?

    A. Commodity Futures
    B. Commodity Derivatives
    C. Both a and b
    D. Neither a nor b
    E. None of these


Q8. Centre on 5\(^{th}\) Dec 2017 released a FTP mid term review with what focus?

    A. Policy based measures to boost export of goods and services
    B. Increase employment generation and value addition to the country
    C. Mid course correction
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above


Q9. What is the Yale Model in finance also known as?

    A. Finance model
    B. Endowment model
    C. Harvard model
    D. Both a and b
    E. Both b and c


Q10. Infosys on 17\(^{th}\) Nov said share buyback would begin on November 30\(^{th}\) and close on December 14\(^{th}\). What is the size of the buyback?

    A. 15000 crores
    B. 12500 crores
    C. 13000 crores
    D. 14000 crores
    E. None of the above


Q11. What was the unemployment rate in India for the year 2017-2018 as per the survey conducted by National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)?

    A. 6.1%
    B. 6.2%
    C. 6.3%
    D. 6.4%
    E. None of these


Q12. Government has met the fiscal deficit target of ___________for the Financial Year 2018-19.

    A. 3.1%
    B. 3.2%
    C. 3.3%
    D. 3.4%
    E. None of these


Q13. Name the Cyclone Man, who was appointed as the chief of India Meteorological Department (IMD) for a period of five years .

    A. Madhavan Nair Rajeevan
    B. Laxman Singh Rathore
    C. K.J. Ramesh
    D. Mrutyunjay Mohapatra
    E. None of these


Q14. What is GDP growth of India forecasted by RBI’s monetary policy committee (MPC)?

    A. 7.5%
    B. 7%
    C. 7.2%
    D. 7.1%
    E. None of these


Q15. How much fine will be imposed on the people for blocking ambulances as a part of Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill?

    A. Rs 20,000
    B. Rs 30,000
    C. Rs 10,000
    D. Rs 50,000
    E. None of these


Q16. Expand ATC.

    A. Army Traffic Control
    B. Air Traffic Control
    C. Automated Traffic Control
    D. Air Traffic Cable
    E. None of these


Q17. Expand GPO.

    A. General Provident Office
    B. General Press Office
    C. General Post Office
    D. Government Post Office
    E. None of these


Q18. Expand NSA.

    A. Net Security Act
    B. National Security Act
    C. National Service Act
    D. Nuclear Security Act
    E. None of these


Q19. Expand ISBN.

    A. International Standard Business Number
    B. International Standard Book Number
    C. International Standard Bond Number
    D. International Service Book Number
    E. None of these


Q20. Expand HEL.

    A. Hindustan Electricals Limited
    B. Human Electricals Limited
    C. Housing Electricals Limited
    D. Heavy Electricals Limited
    E. None of these


Q21. Which among the following personalities got the India’s highest civilian awards?

    A. Madan Mohan Malaviya
    B. Manmohan Singh
    C. Deendayal Upadhyaya
    D. L. K Advani
    E. None of these


Q22. Manoj Kumar Panday who was the recipient of Param Vir Chakra belongs to which of the following military regiment or rifles?

    A. Rajputana Rifles
    B. 1/11 Gorkha Rifles
    C. 18 Grenadiers
    D. 13 JAK Rifles
    E. None of these


Q23. Who among the following personality awarded the Dronacharya award 2017?

    A. P. Gopichand
    B. Jitu Rai
    C. G.S.S.V. Prasad
    D. Ravi Shastri
    E. None of these


Q24. Shri Devendra Jhajharia who was Arjun award recipient of 2017 belongs to which game?

    A. Football
    B. Cricket
    C. Athletics
    D. Javelin
    E. None of these


Q25. Who among the following sports person from Para-Athletics given Arjuna award 2017?

    A. Ms. Vinesh
    B. Shri Amit Kumar
    C. Shri Sandeep Singh Mann
    D. Varun Singh Bhati
    E. None of these


Q26. Former Australian captain Mark Taylor has had several nicknames over his playing career. Which of the following was NOT one of them?

    A. Tubby
    B. Stodge
    C. Helium Bat
    D. Stumpy
    E. None of these


Q27. Which was the 1st non Test playing country to beat India in an international match?

    A. Canada
    B. Sri Lanka
    C. Zimbabwe
    D. East Africa
    E. None of these


Q28. Which county did Ravi Shastri play for?

    A. Glamorgan
    B. Leicestershire
    C. Gloucestershire
    D. Lancashire
    E. None of these


Q29. Who was the first Indian to win the World Amateur Billiards title?

    A. Geet Sethi
    B. Wilson Jones
    C. Michael Ferreira
    D. Manoj Kothari
    E. None of these


Q30. Who is the first Indian woman to win an Asian Games gold in 400m run?

    A. M.L.Valsamma
    B. P.T.Usha
    C. Kamaljit Sandhu
    D. K.Malleshwari
    E. None of these


Q31. World Milk Day is celebrated on:

    A. 1\(^{st}\) June
    B. 3\(^{rd}\) June
    C. 5\(^{th}\) June
    D. 6\(^{th}\) June
    E. None of the above


Q32. What is the theme of World Environment Day 2019?

    A. Go wild for Life.
    B. Connecting People to Nature
    C. Beat Plastic Pollution
    D. Air Pollution
    E. None of the above


Q33. Global Parent’s day falls on which date of June?

    A. 1\(^{st}\) June
    B. 2\(^{nd}\) June
    C. 3\(^{rd}\) June
    D. 4\(^{th}\) June
    E. None of the above


Q34. Telangana is the 29\(^{th}\) state in India and its formation Day is celebrated on:

    A. 2\(^{nd}\) June
    B. 4\(^{th}\) June
    C. 6\(^{th}\) June
    D. 8\(^{th}\) June
    E. None of the above


Q35. World Brain Tumour Day is observed on:

    A. 7\(^{th}\) June
    B. 8\(^{th}\) June
    C. 9\(^{th}\) June
    D. 10\(^{th}\) June
    E. None of the above


Q36. Name the scientist who had discovered that some molecules have mirror images?

    A. Lord Kelvin
    B. Louis Pasteur
    C. Robert Hooke
    D. Henry Moseley
    E. None of the above


Q37. Who is known as the father of plastic surgery?

    A. Charaka
    B. G.D. Naid
    C. Sushruta
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above


Q38. Who invented the safety break, which stop the elevator from cashing?

    A. Thomas Edison
    B. Eli Whitney
    C. Henry Ford
    D. Elisha Otis
    E. None of the above


Q39. Who built the first working, programmable, electromechanical computer?

    A. Konrad Zuse
    B. Laszlo Jozsef Biro
    C. Brandenburg
    D. Karl Benz
    E. None of the above


Q40. Who discovered the iridium layer and won Nobel Prize also?

    A. Henry Moseley
    B. Pierre Curie
    C. Santiago Ramon
    D. Luis Alvarez
    E. None of the above


Q41. Who was the author of the famous storybook ‘Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland’?

    A. Rudyard Kipling
    B. John Keats
    C. Lewis Carroll
    D. H G Wells
    E. None of these


Q42. Who wrote the famous 1855 poem ‘The Charge of the Light Brigade’?

    A. Lord Alfred Tennyson
    B. Christopher Marlowe
    C. Johannes Gutenberg
    D. René Descartes
    E. None of these


Q43. Who wrote ‘Where ignorance is bliss, it is folly to be wise’?

    A. Browning
    B. Marx
    C. Shakespeare
    D. Kipling
    E. None of these


Q44. Name the book which opens with the line ‘All children, except one grew up’?

    A. The Railway Children
    B. Winnie the Poo
    C. Jungle book
    D. Peter Pan
    E. None of these


Q45. Which is the first Harry Potter book?

    A. HP and the Goblet of Fire
    B. HP and the Philosopher’s Stone
    C. HP and the Chamber of Secrets
    D. HP and the God of small Things
    E. None of these


Q46. Which is the capital of “Afghanistan”?

    A. Kabul
    B. Moroni
    C. Jalabad
    D. Kandahar
    E. None of these


Q47. “Tirana” is the capital of ____.

    A. Gabon
    B. Albania
    C. Rwanda
    D. Costa Rica
    E. None of these


Q48. Which is the capital of “Algeria”?

    A. Tokyo
    B. Algiers
    C. Vientiane
    D. Brazzaville
    E. None of these


Q49. “Andorra la Vella” is the capital of ____.

    A. Sudan
    B. Taiwan
    C. Andorra
    D. Burkina Faso
    E. None of these


Q50. Which is the capital of “Angola”?

    A. Riga
    B. Taipei
    C. Ankara
    D. Luanda
    E. None of these


Answers and Explanations


1. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

The World Health Organization (WHO) announced that Sri Lanka had successfully eliminated measles. WHO praised Sri Lanka’s achievement in a statement at a time when measles cases were increasing globally.


2. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

The United Nations’ atomic energy agency has confirmed Iran has surpassed the uranium enrichment limits spelled out in the 2015 nuclear deal. The International Atomic Energy Agency said its inspectors verified that Iran has surpassed the 3.67% enrichment limit set in the accord, aimed at restraining Tehran’s ability to develop nuclear weapons in return for sanctions relief.


3. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

On May 31\(^{st}\), 2019, US President Donald Trump signed a proclamation to withdraw Generalized System of Preferences(GSP) scheme on $5.6 billion exports from India, effective from June 5\(^{th}\), 2019. GSP allows emerging countries to export goods to the US without paying duties. It offered duty-free market access to more than 3,000 items exported from India. India is the world’s largest beneficiary of GSP from the 1970s. The US had announced the withdrawal of special duty benefits under the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) on March 5\(^{th}\), 2019, effective from the first week of May. But later it was postponed as India would get a new Government. As per a study by the Federation of Indian Export Organizations(FIEO), India’s global merchandise exports for 2018 were $324.7 billion. It included $51.4 billion to the US. But only $6.35 billion of exports from India to the US benefited from the GSP scheme. Such exports were covered under 1921 US tariff lines.


4. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

On June 5\(^{th}\), 2019, The recent study “Traffic Index 2018”, analysis of the current status of traffic mobility was conducted by location technology specialist TomTom. According to the findings, Mumbai is the most traffic-congested city among 403 cities in 56 countries with a congestion level of 65 percent, while New Delhi ranked fourth with congestion of 58 percent. ii. The other top cities in the list of congested cities are Bogota (63 percent), Lima in Peru (58 percent), Moscow in Russia(56 Percent), Brussels (37 Percent), London (37 Percent) and Paris (36 percent). iii. Top five most congested North American are in the list are Mexico City (52 percent), Los Angeles (41 percent), Vancouver (38 percent), New York (36 percent) and San Francisco (34 percent).


5. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

On June 6\(^{th}\), 2019, American multinational technology company ,Google’s India-born CEO Sundar Pichai (46) and NASDAQ ‘s (National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations) President Adena Friedman (50) were chosen for the prestigious Global Leadership Awards 2019. They were chosen by business advocacy group US-India Business Council (USIBC) for “catalyzing growth in the US-India commercial corridor”.


6. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

GoI observed Universal Health Coverage Day, 2017 on Dec 11\(^{th}\).

The Union Health Minister and MoS (Finance) launched “LaQshya – Labour Room Quality Improvement Initiative, a Safe Delivery Mobile Application for health workers who manage normal and complicated deliveries in the peripheral areas, and also released the Operational Guidelines for Obstetric High Dependency Units (HDUs) and Intensive Care Units (ICUs).


7. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

As part of its attempts to increase the institutional participation in the commodity segment, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) plans to allow mutual funds and portfolio managers to invest in commodity derivatives segment.

This closely follows the recent regulatory decision of allowing a category of Alternate Investment Funds (AIFs) to invest in commodity derivatives.


8. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

The Centre on Dec 5\(^{th}\) 2017 released the mid-term review of the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP), with the focus expected to be on policy measures to boost the exports of goods and services and to increase employment generation and value-addition in the country.


The mid-term review of FTP is aimed at mid-course correction. It was to be announced on July 1\(^{st}\), together with the implementation of the GST regime.


But the announcement was postponed to take into account feedback from the export sector regarding GST-related issues.


9. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

Also known as the endowment model or the Harvard model, this refers to the investment strategy followed by many popular endowment funds created by institutions like universities, hospitals and other non-profit organisations.


It emphasizes the importance of diversifying an investment portfolio equally across multiple asset classes to control risk, but with a special focus on investing in alternative assets that can offer higher returns to its investors.


The Yale model was proposed and popularized by David F. Swensen, the chief investment officer of Yale University, who elaborated on it in his 2000 book Pioneering Portfolio Management.


10. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Infosys on Nov 17\(^{th}\) said share buyback would begin on November 30\(^{th}\) and close on December 14\(^{th}\).


The IT services major has issued an offer letter for the buyback of shares.


It said that the necessary forms along with the letter would be dispatched to the eligible shareholders whose names appeared on the record date of November 1\(^{st}\).


11. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

According to a survey conducted by National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) between July 2017 and June 2018 covering 4.3 lakh people revealed that the unemployment rate was about 6.1% in 2017-18, highest in 45 year since 1972-73.


12. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Government has met the fiscal deficit target of 3.4% for the Financial Year 2018-19. The fiscal deficit stood at 3.39% against the estimated rate of 3.4%. The data was released by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA). It was met through a reduction in government spending, which also contributed to GDP growth slowing to 5.8% in the fourth quarter of FY19.


13. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Cyclone man Mrutyunjay Mohapatra is appointed as the chief or Director General (DG) of India Meteorological Department (IMD) for a period of five years. He earned his praises after accurate prediction during Fani cyclone. He is from Bhadrak district of Odisha. He succeeds KJ Ramesh. Prior to this, the 54 years old, named as “Scientist G” was serving as the Additional Director General in the IMD.


14. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

The RBI’s MPC (monetary policy committee) lowered its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth forecast to 7% from 7.2% for FY 20 due to a slowdown in domestic activities and escalation in global trade war. In the April monetary policy, the growth of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for 2019-20 was projected at 7.2% – in the range of 6.8-7.1% for the first half of the fiscal and 7.3-7.4% for the second part – with risks evenly balanced.


15. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

On June 24\(^{th}\), 2019, The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved the bill to fine people with Rs 10,000 for blocking ambulances. The rule is the part of Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill. The newly approved bill will update the Motor Vehicles Act 1988.


16. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Air Traffic Control.


17. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

General Post Office.


18. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

National Security Act.


19. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

International Standard Book Number.


20. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Heavy Electricals Limited.


21. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Mahamana Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya was an Indian educationist and politician notable for his role in the Indian independence movement and as the twice president of Indian National Congress. He was respectfully addressed as Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya and also addressed as ‘Mahamana’. He was posthumously conferred with Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award, on 24\(^{th}\) December 2014, a day before his 153\(^{rd}\) Birth Anniversary.


22. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Captain Manoj Kumar Pandey, was an Indian Army officer of \(\frac{1}{11}\) Gorkha Rifles, posthumously awarded India’s highest military honor, Param Vir Chakra for his audacious courage and leadership during adverse times. He died during the attack on Jubar Top, Khalubar Hills in Batalik Sector, Kargil. His actions have led to him being referred to as the “Hero of Batalik”.


23. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Dronacharya Award is sports coaching honour of the Republic of India given for producing medal winners at prestigious international sports events. Dr. R. Gandhi (Athletics), Heera Nand Kataria (Kabaddi), G.S.S.V. Prasad (Badminton), Brij Bhushan Mohanty (Boxing), P.A. Raphel (Hockey), Sanjoy Chakraverthy (Shooting) and Roshan Lal (Wrestling) are the recipient of the awards.


24. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Shri Devendra Jhajharia, Paralympics double gold medallist in javelin is the recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2017.


25. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

The Arjuna Awards are given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, government of India to recognize outstanding achievement in National sports. Instituted in 1961, the award carries a cash prize of ₹ 500,000, a bronze statue of Arjuna and a scroll. Varun Singh Bhati (Para-Athletics) is the recipient of Arjun Award 2017.


26. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

He was christened ‘Helium Bat’ very early in his career by team mates, due to his habit of lifting his bat over his shoulder and letting anything bowled outside the off-stump go by.


27. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Sri Lanka got the status of Test playing country in 1981, and beat India in the 1979 World Cup. Before this they were champion of ICC non-test playing countries.


28. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Ravi Shastri once hit spinner Tilak Raj for 6 sixes in an over in a First Class match.


29. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Wilson Jones


30. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Kamaljit Sandhu


31. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

World Milk Day is celebrated on 1\(^{st}\) June every year in the whole world to mark the contributions of the dairy sector to sustainability, economic development, livelihoods and nutrition.


32. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

The theme of World Environment Day 2019 is “Air Pollution”. Connecting People to Nature is 2017 theme, Beat Plastic Pollution is 2018 theme and Go wild for Life is 2016 theme.


33. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

The Day of Global Parents is celebrated on 1\(^{st}\) June every year.


34. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Telangana is the youngest state in India. Every year, Telangana formation Day is observed on 2\(^{nd}\) June with various cultural activities, events etc.


35. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

World Brain Tumour Day is observed on 8\(^{th}\) June every year.


36. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Louis Pasteur discovered that some molecules have mirror images and explained them as left-handed and right-handed versions of a chemical compound.


37. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Sushruta is the founding father of surgery and plastic surgery. He had also written Sushruta Samhita an outstanding treatise in Indian medical literature and describes the ancient tradition of surgery in India.


38. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Otis invented the safety break, which would stop the elevator from crashing if it was activated by sudden falling when a rope broke.


39. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Konrad Zuse built the world’s first program-controlled computer.


40. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Luis Alvarez discovered the iridium layer and also he had given a theory that dinosaurs were driven to extinction by the aftermath of a large meteorite impact on Earth. In 1968, he won Nobel Prize in Physics.


41. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland is an 1865 novel written by English author Charles Lutwidge Dodgson over the pseudonym Lewis Carroll. Hence, C is the correct option.


42. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

The Charge of the Light Brigade was a charge of British light cavalry led by Lord Cardigan against Russian forces during the Battle of Balaclava on 25\(^{th}\) October 1854 in the Crimean War. The events were the subject of Alfred, Lord Tennyson’s narrative poem “The Charge of the Light Brigade” (1854), published just six weeks after the event. Hence, A is the correct option.


43. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

The ‘Where ignorance is bliss, it is folly to be wise’ was written by Shakespeare. Hence, C is the correct option.


44. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Peter Pan is the book with the nation’s favourite opening line is ‘All children, except one grew up’. Hence, D is the correct option.


45. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Harry Potter is a series of fantasy novels written by British author J. K. Rowling. The novels chronicle the life of a young wizard, Harry Potter, and his friends Hermione Granger and Ron Weasley, all of whom are students at Hogwarts School of Witchcraft and Wizardry. HP and the Philosopher’s Stone was the first Harry Potter book. Hence, B is the correct option.


46. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Kabul


47. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Albania


48. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Algiers


49. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Andorra


50. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Luanda

Q1. Insurance is listed in which schedule of the Indian constitution ?

    A. Eighth Schedule
    B. Sixth Schedule
    C. Seventh Schedule
    D. Fifth Schedule
    E. None of these


Q2. In which year, the Actuaries Act was passed by Indian government ?

    A. 2000
    B. 2006
    C. 1999
    D. 1985
    E. None of these


Q3. The Indian insurance industry is governed by which of the following act ?

    A. IRDA Act 1999
    B. Life Insurance Corporation Act, 1956
    C. General Insurance Business(Nationalisation) Act, 1972
    D. Insurance Act, 1978
    E. All of these


Q4. Anne Hathaway has been selected as the Goodwill ambassador for UN for which campaign?

    A. Gender Equality
    B. Empowerment of Women
    C. Both a and b
    D. Neither a nor b
    E. None of these


Q5. International Solar Alliance at the UN HQ saw the formation of an alliance between ISA cell and which UN body?

    A. UNICEF
    B. UNESCO
    C. UNDP
    D. FAO
    E. None of these


Q6. Which UN agencies launched the Global Programme to Accelerate Action to End Child Marriage?

    A. UNFPA
    B. UNICEF
    C. UNDP
    D. Both a and b
    E. None of these


Q7. A Safe Deposit Locker can be canvassed among

    A. All Existing account holders
    B. Persons below poverty line
    C. Students
    D. Jewelers
    E. ATM Cardholders


Q8. “Value Added Services” implies

    A. Additional Knowledge of marketing staff
    B. Service beyond normal Hours
    C. Service with extra facilities
    D. Marketing Agencies
    E. Overtime work


Q9. Financial Planning is required when

    A. One has no income
    B. One is flushed with funds
    C. One has no expenses to incur
    D. One is illiterate
    E. Income level is insufficient to meet the expenses


Q10. India’s first golf-centric credit card has launched by-_______

    A. SBI
    B. UBI
    C. PNB
    D. RBL
    E. None of these


Q11. India’s first contact less mobile payment solution has launched by – _____

    A. ICICI
    B. Kotak Mahindra Bank
    C. Indusind Bank
    D. South Indian Bank
    E. None of these


Q12. A bank has launched India’s first digital branch in Gurgaon is ______.

    A. ICICI
    B. Axis Bank
    C. Indusind Bank
    D. South Indian Bank
    E. None of these


Q13. Which of the following is capital of Mozambique ?

    A. Rabat
    B. Abuja
    C. Maputo
    D. Dakar
    E. None of these


Q14. Which of the following is currency of Kenya ?

    A. Shilling
    B. CFA franc
    C. Rupee
    D. Euro
    E. None of these


Q15. Rand is the currency of which of the following country ?

    A. South Africa
    B. Uganda
    C. South Sudan
    D. Somalia
    E. None of these


Q16. Recently which currency is added to IMF’s SDR basket ?

    A. Renminbi
    B. Yen
    C. Euro
    D. Dollar
    E. None of these


Q17. SDR is an international reserve asset created by

    A. ILO
    B. IMF
    C. World Bank
    D. New Development Bank
    E. None of these


Q18. The New Development Bank is associated with which international organization ?

    A. WTO
    B. World Bank
    C. UN
    D. BRICS
    E. None of these


Q19. Aapka Bank Aapke Dwar is a tagline of __________.

    A. Airtel Payments Bank Limited
    B. India Post Payments Bank Limited
    C. Paytm Payments Bank Limited
    D. Fino Payments Bank Limited
    E. Vodafone M-Pesa


Q20. The RBI will consider grant full licenses for payment banks under which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?

    A. Section 19
    B. Section 20
    C. Section 21
    D. Section 22
    E. Section 23


Q21. Which of the below entity has surrendered its “in-principle” license which is given by RBI to launch its Payment Bank?

    A. National Securities Depository
    B. Aditya Birla Nuvo
    C. Tech Mahendra
    D. Vodafone M-Pesa
    E. Reliance Industries


Q22. India’s biggest fraud: How the 2G scam unravelled authored by _________

    A. John Grisham
    B. J.Gopikrishnan
    C. Anoothi Vishal
    D. Anuupama Chopra
    E. None of these


Q23. The book “ Arise, Awake” is written by whom ?

    A. Javed Akthar
    B. Taha Kehar
    C. Rashmi Bansal
    D. Karan Bajaj
    E. None of these


Q24. Amitav Gosh is an author of _______

    A. Flood of fire
    B. The Seeker
    C. In Other Words : Poems
    D. Partition: The Long Shadow
    E. None of these


Q25. Who is the Union Minister of Civil Aviation?

    A. Raj Nath Singh
    B. Suresh Prabhu
    C. Ashok Gajapathi Raju
    D. Sushma Swaraj
    E. Arun Jaitley


Q26. Which of the following state government has launched India’s first state-led incubator for women entrepreneurs “WE-Hub”?

    A. Telangana
    B. Andhra Pradesh
    C. Karnataka
    D. Odisha
    E. Tamil Nadu


Q27. The Mukhyamantri Mahila Kosh scheme was launched by _______ government.

    A. Uttar Pradesh
    B. Haryana
    C. Rajasthan
    D. Bihar
    E. Madhya Pradesh


Q28. Which of the following the Padma Vibhushan 2017 recipient who is renowned Indian musician and film playback singer?

    A. V. K. Aatre
    B. Kattassery Joseph Yesudas
    C. Avinash Dixit
    D. Jagmohan
    E. None of these


Q29. In which field Shri Karimul Hak given Padam Shri 2017 award?

    A. Public Affair
    B. Social Work
    C. Medicine
    D. Arts
    E. None of these


Q30. Find out the recipeint of Dhyan Chand Award in Athletics 2017?

    A. Ms. Satti Geetha
    B. Shri Sylvanus Dung Dung
    C. Shri Raghunath V.R.
    D. Bhupender Singh
    E. None of these


Q31. Sachin Tendulkar hit his 100\(^{th}\) international century against which among the following team?

    A. Sri Lanka
    B. Bangladesh
    C. Pakistan
    D. South Africa
    E. None of these


Q32. The word “Agricultural shot” is known to be used sometimes in which among the following sports?

    A. Cricket
    B. Hockey
    C. Golf
    D. Polo
    E. None of these


Q33. Which among the following country is the host of 2018 Commonwealth Games?

    A. Canada
    B. England
    C. Australia
    D. India
    E. None of these


Q34. Which among the following is played on a synthetic hard court?

    A. French Open
    B. Wimbledon
    C. US open
    D. Australia open
    E. None of these


Q35. Murugappa Gold Cup is related to which among the following sports?

    A. Football
    B. Hockey
    C. Cricket
    D. Table Tennis
    E. None of these


Q36. Potatoes will often go green color due to ________

    A. Decrease of disease resistance
    B. Increase of disease resistance
    C. Accumulation of dead skin cells
    D. Formation of Chlorophyll
    E. None of these


Q37. Minimum Support Price (MSP) is fixed by which of the following ?

    A. Commission of Agriculture
    B. Ministry of Finance
    C. Ministry of Agriculture
    D. Government of India
    E. None of these


Q38. Which is an example of Sorosis ?

    A. Apple
    B. Grapes
    C. Pineapple
    D. Banana
    E. None of these


Q39. Which micronutrient is essential for plant growth ?

    A. Oxygen
    B. Nitrogen
    C. Boron
    D. Carbon
    E. None of these


Q40. Curing is the process of removing ___________ from tobacco

    A. Moisture
    B. Bacteria
    C. Nitrogen
    D. Nutrients
    E. None of these


Q41. SDR is an international reserve asset created by

    A. ILO
    B. IMF
    C. World Bank
    D. New Development Bank
    E. None of these


Q42. The New Development Bank is associated with which international organization ?

    A. WTO
    B. World Bank
    C. UN
    D. BRICS
    E. None of these


Q43. NUUP (National Unified NUUP Platform) is a USSD based mobile banking service from

    A. Ministry of Telecom
    B. RBI
    C. BSNL
    D. NPCI
    E. None of these


Q44. Which bank sets up centralised hub ‘Cen-MARG’ to process retail and MSME loans?

    A. Dena Bank
    B. Punjab and Sind Bank
    C. Canara Bank
    D. State Bank of India
    E. None of these


Q45. Which company included in WEF’s Global Lighthouse Network?

    A. Tata Steel
    B. JSW Steel
    C. SAIL Steel
    D. Essar Steel
    E. None of these


Q46. Which of the following service is provided by E-Lobby?

    A. Cash Deposits
    B. Card-to-Card transfers
    C. Mobile phone top-ups
    D. Opening of FD/RD accounts
    E. All of these


Q47. Through open market operations, the Federal Reserve buys and sells government securities to influence the supply of bank reserves. When the Fed wants to increase reserves, it does what?

    A. Buys Securities
    B. Sells Securities
    C. Nothing
    D. All of these
    E. None of these


Q48. Monetary policy refers to what the Federal Reserve does to influence the amount of ________ and ________ in the U.S. economy.

    A. Currency and gold reserves
    B. Money and credit
    C. Taxes and revenue
    D. Interest and debt
    E. None of these


Q49. When RBI reduces Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points , which of the following is likely to happen?

    A. India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically
    B. Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital in to our country
    C. Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates
    D. It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking system
    E. All of these


Q50. Reverse Repo Rate is a tool used by RBI to?

    A. Absorb liquidity
    B. Inject liquidity
    C. To keep liquidity at one level
    D. None of These
    E. All of these


Answers and Explanations


1. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Insurance refers to the market for insurance in India which covers both the public and private sector organisations. It is listed in the Constitution of India in the Seventh Schedule as a Union List subject, meaning it can only be legislated by the Central government.


2. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

In 2006, the Actuaries Act was passed by parliament to give the profession statutory status on par with Chartered Accountants, Notaries, Cost & Works Accountants, Advocates, Architects and Company Secretaries.


3. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

The Indian insurance industry is governed by the Insurance Act, 1978, the General Insurance Business(Nationalisation) Act, 1972, Life Insurance Corporation Act, 1956 and Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999.


4. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

The UN entity for Gender Equality and Empowerment of Women on June 15\(^{th}\), 2016 appointed Anne Hathaway as Global Goodwill Ambassador.


5. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

The UN HQ in NY on 22\(^{nd}\) April was the venue of the alliance between UNDP and Interim Administrative Cell of International Solar Alliance to promote solar energy globally.


6. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

UNICEF and UNFPA have jointly launched the Global Programme to Accelerate Action to End Child Marriage. This multi country initiative is part of an international effort to prevent girls from marrying too young. It will also protect rights of millions of young girls by using the resources of communities and governments.


7. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

All Existing account holders


8. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Service with extra facilities


9. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

Income level is insufficient to meet the expenses


10. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

RBL Bank (formerly Ratnakar Bank) has launched India’s first golf-centric credit card. The card based on the premium MasterCard World platform was launched in association with the Indian Golf Union (IGU).


11. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

The country’s first contact less mobile payment solution to enable its credit and debit customers make in-store contact less payments by just waving their smartphones near an NFC-enabled merchant terminal. The mobile payment solution available in the Bank’s ‘Pockets’ app, provides improved convenience of ‘Touch & Pay’ as customers are no longer required to carry physical card or cash to pay in stores. ICICI Bank is the first financial institution in the country to leverage the Host Card Emulation (HCE) technology to bring forth this solution.


12. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Indusind Bank has launched India’s first digital branch at IndusInd Cybercity Rapid Metro station, Gurgaon. This video branch machine allows customers to connect with the remote teller over a real-time video call and perform regular banking transactions like statement printing, cheque deposits, opening of FD account and encashment, funds transfer along with dispensation of cash.


13. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Mozambique – Maputo (Capital) and Mozambican metical(Currency)


14. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Kenya – Nairobi(Capital) and Shilling(Currency)


15. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

South Africa- Cape Town (Capital) and Rand(Currency)


16. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Effective October 1\(^{st}\), the IMF is adding the Chinese renminbi (RMB) to the basket of currencies that make up the Special Drawing Right, or SDR.


17. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

SDR is an international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its member countries’ official reserves


18. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

The New Development Bank, formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states.


19. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

India Post Payments Bank Limited


20. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Section 22


21. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Tech Mahendra


22. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

India’s Biggest Fraud: How the 2G Scam Unravelled, an account of the 2G spectrum scam and its aftermath by J Gopikrishnan, the journalist who is credited with exposing the scam in 2008.


23. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

The Inspiring Stories Of Young Entrepreneurs Who Graduated From College Into A Business Of Their Own Books by Rashmi Bansal.


24. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Amitav Gosh is an author of Flood of fire


25. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Suresh Prabhu, the Union Minister of Commerce and Industries, has been given additional charge of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, after the resignation of Ashok Gajapathi Raju.


26. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

in Hyderabad. Unlike T-Hub, which is meant for technology startups, We-Hub will promote women-led, women-owned enterprises in Telangana. It is a platform which is open to all kinds of innovations including a tech start-up, a start-up in social innovation or an idea which is
completely radically different.


27. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

Under this scheme, the women who aren’t married and are above the age of 50 will be given pension.


28. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Kattassery Joseph Yesudas is renowned Indian musician and film playback singer and the recipient of Padma Vibhusan 2017 Award for his contribution in Art-Music.


29. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Padma Shri (also Padma Shree) is the fourth highest civilian award in the Republic of India, after the Bharat Ratna, the Padma Vibhushan and the Padma Bhushan. Awarded by the Government of India, it is announced every year on India’s Republic Day. Shri Karimul Hak is the recipient of Padam Shri Award 2017 in Social work.


30. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

The recipients of the Dhyan Chand Award are Bhupender Singh (Athletics), Syed Shahid Hakim (Football), and Sumrai Tete (Hockey).


31. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Bangladesh


32. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Cricket


33. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Australia


34. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Australia open


35. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Hockey


36. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Potatoes will often go green when they’re not stored properly and they’re exposed to light. This is due to formation of chlorophyll (which is found in all green plants).


37. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).


38. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Sorosis, a botanical term for any plant that produces clusters of flowers out of which grows a single, compound fruit, like a pineapple.


39. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Boron is an essential micronutrient which means it is essential for plant growth and development, but is required in very small quantities.


40. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Removal of moisture from tobacco leaves without affecting its aroma, colour and texture is called curing in tobacco.


41. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

SDR is an international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its member countries’ official reserves


42. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

The New Development Bank, formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states.


43. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

NUUP (National Unified NUUP Platform) is a USSD based mobile banking service from NPCI that brings together all the Banks and Telecom Service Providers.


44. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Punjab and Sind Bank sets up centralised hub ‘Cen-MARG’ to process retail and MSME loans


45. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Tata Steel Kalinganagar (TSK) in World Economic Forum’s (WEF) Global Lighthouse Network a community of manufacturers showing leadership in applying Fourth Industrial Revolution technologies to drive financial and operational impact.


46. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

ATM withdrawals, cash deposits, card-to-card transfers, mobile phone top-ups, railway booking, passbook printing, NEFT, Opening of FD/RD accounts, SMS alerts, cheque drop box, bill payments, mini statements, etc.


47. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Buys Securities


48. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Money and credit


49. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates. The RBI reduces SLR in an attempt to provide more liquidity to the banking system. Banks should use this headroom to increase their lending to productive sectors on competitive terms so as to support investment and growth. In order to increase their lendings, SCBs will have to reduce their lending rates.


50. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Reverse Repo Rate: The rate at which the RBI is willing to borrow from the commercial banks is called reverse repo rate. If the RBI increases the reverse repo rate, it means that the RBI is willing to offer a lucrative interest rate to commercial banks to park their money with the RBI. This results in a reduction in the amount of money available for the bank’s customers as banks prefer to park their money with the RBI as it involves higher safety. This naturally leads to a higher rate of interest which the banks will demand from their customers for lending money to them, thereby causing a reduction in liquidity.


Other Articles


shape Exams

Competitive Exams – College Entrance Exams
Category Notification
Diploma NITC New Delhi Goa Diploma Admissions 2019
Click Here For – All India Entrance Exam Notifications




shape Job-Alerts

Competitive Exams – Recent Job Notifications
Category
Banking SSC Railway
Defence Police Insurance
Click Here For – All India Latest Jobs



shape SP Quiz

Competitive Exams – Practice Sets
Category Quiz
Quant Aptitude Permutation and Combination
English Language Spotting Errors
Insurance Awareness Insurance Awareness