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LIC ADO Prelims Model Paper

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LIC ADO Prelims Model Paper

shape Introduction

Aspirants of LIC Apprentice Development Officer (ADO) 2019, who are willing to enhance their career with insurance sector can check all the details in LIC ADO’s 2019 – Official Notification issued by LIC. The online examination Preliminary is scheduled to be conducted in \({6}^{th}\) and \({13}^{th}\) July, 2019 (Tentatively), Mains exam is scheduled to be conducted in \({10}^{th}\) August, 2019 .


Click Here – For Official Website


Candidates planning to take up employment in the Insurance sector must be aware of many of the terms policies and other such important information related to Prelims. The article LIC ADO Prelims Model Paper provides pattern Questions, and it helps the candidates to devise effective preparation strategies, by focusing on their strengths and weaknesses in different topics and also useful to the candidates while preparing Various Insurance, Banking & Government Exams like SBI PO, SBI Clerk, SSC CPO, SSC CHSL.


Preliminary Examination is important to qualify for the Mains Examination. Below mentioned data gives an overview of the LIC ADO 2019 Prelims Model Paper. The paper is divided into three sections i.e., Reasoning ability, Numerical Ability, English Language.


shape Pattern

Directions (1-5): Study the following information and answer the question given below.

Eight players – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W sit around a square table in such a way that four of them sit on the four sides while the rest at corners. They play different games namely Football, Basketball, Badminton, Tennis, Cricket, Volleyball, Golf, and Squash. Some of them are facing the center while some are facing outside. (i.e away from the center)

Note: Same directions means that if one person facing the center then the other person also faces the center and vice versa. Opposite direction means if one person is facing the center then the other person faces outside and vice versa.

  • Q faces the center of the table and does not sit on any corner. V sits on one of the corners between the Squash player and Volleyball player. W sits second to the right of the Basketball player who faces the center. The Cricket player sits third to the left of Q. S sits opposite to W. P sits on the corner exactly opposite to T. The Basketball player sits third to the right of the Golf player. The Football player does not face the center. The Volleyball player sits opposite to Q, also faces in the opposite direction of Q and sits between Golf player and Cricket player. T who is the Cricket player sits immediate right to the Tennis player. The Tennis player faces the same direction as the U. The immediate neighbors of Q are facing opposite directions. The Golf player sits exactly opposite to Badminton player. The one who is on the immediate left of U is facing the same direction as W. R sits third to the left of W.


1. Who among the following is a Volleyball player?

    A. P
    B. U
    C. T
    D. Can’t be determined
    E. None of these


2. R is related to which of the following games?

    A. Badminton
    B. Foot Ball
    C. Golf
    D. Can’t be determined
    E. None of these


3. Who among the following sits exactly between R and the Football Player?

    A. The person who plays Squash
    B. The person who plays Golf
    C. The person who plays Basketball
    D. Volleyball player
    E. None of these


4. How many persons sit facing the centre?

    A. None
    B. One
    C. Two
    D. Three
    E. Four


5. Which of the following pairs are the immediate neighbours of the Squash player?

    A. P, V
    B. P, R
    C. V, R
    D. Q, R
    E. V, Q


6. If in certain code MONKEY is written as ZFLOPN then in the same code how CHARACTER is written?

    A. SFUDBSCID
    B. SFUDBEBID
    C. SFUBIDDBS
    D. SFUDBSBID
    E. None of these


7. If in certain code CERTAIN is written as DGUTXGM then in the same code how REVERSE is written?

    A. SGYEOQS
    B. SGXEQOD
    C. SGYEOQD
    D. SGYEQOD
    E. None of these


8. If in certain code COMPUTER is written as RCOW then in the same code how DOCUMENT is written?

    A. SXRH
    B. SXHR
    C. XSRH
    D. SXGR
    E. None of these


9. If in certain code SOFTWARE is written as TOGUXASE then in the same code how WEDNESDAY is written?

    A. XEEMETEAZ
    B. XEEOETEAZ
    C. XEFOETEAZ
    D. XEEOETEAY
    E. None of these


10. If in certain code TRANSLATE is written as SQBMRKBSF then in the same code how VERIZON is written?

    A. UFQJYUM
    B. UFQJXPM
    C. FUQJYPM
    D. UEQJYEM
    E. None of these


11. 4, 6, 8, 30, 112, ?

    A. 540
    B. 580
    C. 550
    D. 590
    E. 570


12. 14, ?, 13, 17.5, 21.75

    A. 10
    B. 12
    C. 12.5
    D. 13.25
    E. None of these


13. 107, 106, 52, 16.3 , ?

    A. 3.075
    B. 2.625
    C. 1.916
    D. 0.416
    E. None of these


Directions (14-17): Study the given information to answer the followings questions

In a certain code,

  • ‘today positive decent found’ is written as ‘@6A @6V &7B @5Q’
  • ‘people attend daily party’ is written as ‘@6V *6V #5B @5A’
  • ‘regular fitness sound health’ is written as ‘@6A @8P #8O @5E’
  • ‘picture perfect quality movie’ is written as ‘#6B #8B #8V @8Q’


14. Which of the following word represents the code ‘@5V’?

    A. Sunday
    B. Monday
    C. Tuesday
    D. Either Sunday or Monday
    E. None


15. What is the code for the word ‘perfect’?

    A. #6B
    B. #8B
    C. #8V
    D. @8Q
    E. Cannot be determined


16. What is the code for the words ‘negative world’?

    A. &8B @5A
    B. &7B *5A
    C. &7B *6A
    D. #6B *6A
    E. None


17. Which of the following word represents the code ‘#5P’?

    A. Bracket
    B. Torture
    C. Special
    D. Leaves
    E. None


Directions (18-20): Study the following arrangement to answer the given questions

D 3 M % R A $ K 2 P 5 E © N 4 W @ F 8 Z # 6 & V * 9 Q U ! 1 Y

18. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the left end?

    A. U
    B. F
    C. V
    D. 9
    E. 6


19. Which of the following is fourth to the left of the eighth to the left of ‘Z’?

    A. D
    B. 3
    C. K
    D. R
    E. None of these


20. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the fourteenth from the right end of the above arrangement?

    A. 5
    B. E
    C. R
    D. 9
    E. P


Directions (21-25): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are seven people live on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each person likes different vegetables namely Potato, Brinjal, Carrot, Tomato, Drumstick, Cabbage, and Cauliflower.

  • Three persons live between the one who likes Potato and the one who likes Brinjal. The one who likes Potato lives one of the floors above the floor numbered 4. Three persons live between the one who likes Drumstick and the one who likes Cauliflower. The person who lives on the ground floor like neither Carrot nor Brinjal. The one who likes Carrot lives on one of the floors below the floor numbered 4. The person who likes Cabbage does not live on one of the floors below the floor numbered 4. The person who likes Potato and Drumstick live on one of the floors above the floor numbered 4. The person who lives on the topmost floor does not like Potato. Three persons live between the one who likes Cabbage and the one who likes Carrot. Life between B and E. B lives on one of the floors above E. A lives on an odd numbered floor but not on the floor numbered three. Only one person lives between A and G. F lives immediately below the one who likes Carrot. Only two persons live between E and C. C does not live on the topmost floor. G does not like Carrot.


21. Which among the following is liked by B?

    A. Tomato
    B. Carrot
    C. Potato
    D. Cauli Flower
    E. None of these


22. Which of the following combination is true as per the given arrangement?

    A. A – 5 – Drumstick
    B. C – 3 – Tomato
    C. B – 5 – Carrot
    D. F – 2 – Cauli flower
    E. None of these


23. Who among the following lives in floor no 3?

    A. A
    B. C
    C. D
    D. F
    E. None of these


24. Four among the following form a group in a certain way. Which of the following does not belong to Group?

    A. G – Cauli Flower
    B. A – Carrot
    C. B – Brinjal
    D. F – Potato
    E. D – Tomato


25. Who among the following likes Cauli flower?

    A. A
    B. C
    C. D
    D. F
    E. None of these


Direction (26-28): Study the following information to answer the given questions.

    A$B means A is not smaller than B
    A@B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B
    A#B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B
    A&B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B
    A*B means A is not greater than B



26. Statements: O & A, A $ R, R # S, S * Q
Conclusions:
I. Q @ R
II. S @ O
III. R & O
IV. R # O


    A. Only I is true
    B. Only III is true
    C. Only IV is true
    D. Either III or IV is true
    E. Either III or IV and I are true


27. Statements: A * E, E $ F, F # O, O @ L
Conclusions:
I. L # F
II. E @ O
III. A # O
IV. E @ L


    A. None is true
    B. Only I is true
    C. Only II is true
    D. Only III is true
    E. Only IV is true


28. Statements: B @ Q, Q # A, A & L, L * N
Conclusions:
I. N $ A
II. L @ Q
III. B @ N
IV. Q # N


    A. I, II and III are true
    B. I, II and IV are true
    C. I, III and IV are true
    D. I, III and IV are true
    E. All are true


29. Jack introduces Mary as the daughter of the only son of my father’s wife. How is Mary related to Jack?

    A. Sister
    B. Niece
    C. Wife
    D. Daughter
    E. Mother


30. Pointing to a boy in a photograph, a man said,” I have no brother or sister but that boy’s father is my father’s son.” Whose photograph was it?

    A. Himself
    B. His son
    C. His father
    D. His brother
    E. His nephew


Directions (31-35): Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions below.

In a warehouse, 8 boxes have different products – Cookies, Snacks, Bread, Jam, Pickle, Shampoo, Soap, and Spices. They belong to different companies – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W but not necessarily in that order. Each box has a number written on it from 1 to 8 but not necessarily in that order. Number 1 is at the top, number 8 is at the bottom and others accordingly.


There are 3 boxes between company P’s box and the box of Pickle. Box of the company, which makes Snacks, is exactly 2 place above the box of the company Q. Box, which has Soap, is neither at no. 1 nor at no. 8. Box of company Q is an even number but not at number 6. Box of Spices is above box U. There are 3 boxes between boxes of company Q and S. Box of Snacks is immediately above the box of Bread. Box of the company, which makes Shampoo, is exactly between the box of company R and box of Jam which is company S’s product. The shampoo is not the product of company U. Box of Soap is immediately above to box of Cookies. Box of company V is not at number 7 while the box of company U is above the box of company W. Neither Shampoo nor Spices are the product of W.

31. What is the name of the product which comes from company P?

    A. Bread
    B. Spices
    C. Snacks
    D. Soap
    E. Shampoo


32. Which company produces Soap?

    A. P
    B. V
    C. R
    D. Q
    E. W


33. Which product ‘s box of is immediately below the box of Cookies?

    A. Shampoo
    B. Pickle
    C. Bread
    D. Snacks
    E. Soap


34. Which company’s box is immediately between the box of Jam and Pickle?

    A. T
    B. P
    C. U
    D. Q
    E. None of these


35. Which company’s box is at the top?

    A. W
    B. Q
    C. U
    D. P
    E. V


Answers and Explanations


Explanation (1-5) –


1. Answer – Option B

2. Answer – Option A

3. Answer – Option C

4. Answer – Option E

5. Answer – Option A


6. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Write the word in reverse order and then shift one place forward
CHARACTER = RETCARAHC (in reverse order) = SFUDBSBID (+1 forward)


7. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

+1, +2, +3, same, -3, -2, -1


8. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Divide the word in equal groups of two like in DOCUMENT

DO, CU, ME and NT and now add their respective positions in English alphabet like DO = 4 + 15 = 19

CU = 3 + 21 = 24, ME = 13 + 5 = 18 and NT = 14 + 20 = 34.

Now, 19 is equivalent to S, 24 is equivalent to X, 18 is equivalent to R and 34 is equivalent to 26 + 8 = H


9. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

All vowels are kept same and consonants are increased one step forward


10. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

UFQJYPM ( vowels are increased one step forward and consonants are moved one step backward)


11. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

4 * 1 + 2 = 6

6 * 2 – 4 = 8

8 * 3 + 6 = 30

30 * 4 – 8 = 112

112 * 5 + 10 = 570


12. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

\(\frac{14}{2}\) + 5 = 12

\(\frac{12}{2}\) +7 = 13

\(\frac{13}{2}\) + 11= 17.5

\(\frac{17.5}{2}\) + 13 = 21.75


13. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

107 – \(\frac{1}{1}\) = 106

106 – \(\frac{2}{2}\) = 52

52 – \(\frac{3}{3}\) = 16.3

16.3 – \(\frac{4}{4}\) = 3.075


14. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Either Sunday or Monday


15. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

@8Q


16. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

&7B *6A


17. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Leaves


18. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

D 3 M R A K 2 P 5 E N 4 W F 8 Z 6 V 9 Q U 1 Y

Seventeenth from the left end – 6


19. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

4th to the left of the 8th to the left of ‘Z’ –> 12th to the left of Z – i.e “K”

D 3 M % R A $ K 2 P 5 E © N 4 W @ F 8 Z # 6 & V * 9 Q U ! 1 Y


20. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

8th to the right of the 14th from the right end —> 6th from the right end

D 3 M % R A $ K 2 P 5 E © N 4 W @ F 8 Z # 6 & V * 9 Q U ! 1 Y


Explanation (21-25) –


21. Answer – Option C

22. Answer – Option A


23. Answer – Option C


24. Answer – Option E


25. Answer – Option B


26. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

Either III or IV and I are true


27. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

None is true


28. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

I, II and IV are true


29. Answer – Option D

Explanation –



30. Answer – Option B

Explanation –



31. Answer – Option C

32. Answer – Option D


33. Answer – Option B


34. Answer – Option A


35. Answer – Option E

Explanation (31-35) –

1. 45% of 300 + √? = 56% of 750 – 10% of 350

    A. 260
    B. 62500
    C. 230
    D. 52900
    E. None of these


2. [(?)\(^{11/7}\)50] = [20/(?)\(^{10/7}\)]

    A. 3
    B. 5
    C. 10
    D. 20
    E. None of these


3. 79296 ÷ √x =112*12

    A. 3481
    B. 3561
    C. 3721
    D. 3969
    E. None of these


4. 1637 + 1832 = (45)\(^{2}\) + (?)\(^{2}\)

    A. 32
    B. 38
    C. 42
    D. 48
    E. None of these


5. 13498 + 8932 – 1159 = ? * 89

    A. 289
    B. 271
    C. 239
    D. 261
    E. None of these


6. (37685 + 29452 – 41897) ÷ 250

    A. 102.56
    B. 118.96
    C. 100.96
    D. 112.76
    E. None of these


7. 75 / ? = ? / 147

    A. 175
    B. 125
    C. 115
    D. 135
    E. None of these


8. (32.4 * 8 * 5 + 4) ÷ 26 + 14 = (?)\(^{2}\)

    A. 8
    B. 2
    C. 18
    D. 12
    E. None of these


9. √(12 * 145 ÷ 6 + 34) = ?

    A. 18
    B. 28
    C. 63
    D. 73
    E. None of these


10. 5670 ÷ (28*13.5) = ?

    A. 25
    B. 35
    C. 15
    D. 45
    E. None of these


11. 572 ÷ 26 x 12 – 232 = 2\(^{?}\)

    A. 5
    B. 3
    C. 6
    D. 7
    E. None of these


12. 44000 ÷ 2000 x 400 ÷ 20= ?

    A. 340
    B. 440
    C. 880
    D. 580
    E. None of these


Directios (13-18): Study the following graph carefully to answer the given questions


13. P and R started the work jointly. A few days later U also joined them and thus all of them completed the whole work in 10 days. All of them were paid total Rs.600. What is the Share of U?

    A. Rs.360
    B. Rs.385
    C. Rs.240
    D. can’t be determined
    E. None of these


14. Q and S work together for 5 days, the rest of the work is finished by M in two more days. If they get Rs. 6000 as wages for the whole work, what are the daily wages of Q, S and M respectively?

    A. 200, 250, 300
    B. 300, 200, 250
    C. 600, 400, 200
    D. 600, 400, 500
    E. None of these


15. The efficiency of L is 25% more than P. L started a work alone and then P joined her 5 days before actual completion of the work. For how many days L worked alone?

    A. 9
    B. 11
    C. 10
    D. 25
    E. 12


16. R started the work and left after some days, when 25% work was done. After it Z joined and completed it working for 25 days. In how many days R and Z can do the complete work, working together?

    A. 6
    B. 8
    C. 10
    D. 12
    E. 20


17. T and V started the work. After 3 days Z joined them, who can complete alone the same whole work in 3 days. What is the total number of days in which they had completed the work?

    A. 12
    B. 8
    C. 4
    D. 6
    E. None of these


18. A is twice efficient as B and together they do the same work in as much time as T and V together. In how many days A can complete the work individually?

    A. 5 days
    B. 8 days
    C. 4 days
    D. 9 days
    E. None of these


19. A right circular cone is placed over a cylinder of the same radius. Now the combined structure is painted on all sides. Then they are separated now the ratio of area painted on Cylinder to Cone is 3:1. What is the height of Cylinder if the height of Cone is 4 m and radius is 3 m?

    A. 5 m
    B. 6 m
    C. 8 m
    D. 10 m
    E. Cannot be determined


20. Suman’s age was double that of Kareena’s 10 years ago. Ratio of the present ages of Kareena to Suman is 3 : 5. What will be Kareena’s age 5 years after?

    A. 50
    B. 30
    C. 65
    D. 35
    E. 40


21. Veena bought a watch costing Rs. 1404 including sales tax at 8%. She asked the shopkeeper to reduce the price of the watch so that she can save the amount equal to the tax. The reduction of the price of the watch is?

    A. Rs.108
    B. Rs.104
    C. Rs.112
    D. Rs.120
    E. None of these


22. A Sales Executive gets a commission on total sales at 8%. If the sale is exceeded Rs.10,000 he gets an additional commission as a bonus of 4% on the excess of sales over Rs.10,000. If he gets the total commission of Rs.950, then the bonus he received is?

    A. 40
    B. 50
    C. 36
    D. 48
    E. None of these


23. The average of Four numbers is 24.5. of the four numbers, the first is 1.5 times the second, the second is 1/3 rd of the third, and the third is 2 times the fourth number. Then what is smallest of all those numbers?

    A. 12
    B. 13
    C. 14
    D. 15
    E. 16


24. A milkman buys two cows for Rs. 3000. He sells first cow at a profit of 22% and the second cow at a loss of 8%. What is the SP of second cow if in the whole transaction there is no profit no loss?

    A. Rs. 2312
    B. Rs. 2024
    C. Rs. 2484
    D. Rs. 2532
    E. None of these


25. A sum of money was went at 10% per annum, compounded annually for 2 years. If the interest was compounded half yearly, he would have received Rs. 440.5 more. Find the sum.

    A. Rs. 84000
    B. Rs. 96000
    C. Rs. 100000
    D. Rs. 104000
    E. Rs. 80000


26. Two trains 200 m and 160 m long, run at the rate of 60 km/h and 100 km/h respectively on parallel rails. How long will it take a man sitting in the second train to pass the first train if they run in the opposite direction?

    A. 4.4 seconds
    B. 4.5 seconds
    C. 3.24 seconds
    D. 4 seconds
    E. None of these


27. A car traveled 80% of the distance from town A to B by traveling at T hours at an average speed of V km/h. The car travels at an average speed of S km/h for the remaining part of the trip. Which of the following expressions represents the average speed for the entire trip?

    A. 12VS/(9V+S)
    B. 5VS/(4S+V)
    C. VT/3S
    D. 9VS/(4S+V)km/h
    E. None of these


28. A Container contains 192 liter of Milk. A seller draws out x% of Milk and replaced it with the same quantity of water. He repeated the same process for 3 times. And thus Milk content in the mixture is only 81 liter. Then how much percent he withdraw every time?

    A. 10%
    B. 15%
    C. 18%
    D. 20%
    E. 25%


29. Three friends A, B, C invested in a business in the ratio of 4:5:6. After 6 months C withdraw half of his capital. If the sum invested by A is 36000, then the profit earned by C out of the total profit of 60000.

    A. 20000
    B. 30000
    C. 40000
    D. 50000
    E. None of these


30. 4, 4, 6, 12, 30, ?

    A. 97
    B. 92
    C. 95
    D. 98
    E. 90


31. 10 5 5 10 40 ?

    A. 350
    B. 320
    C. 360
    D. 370
    E. 380


32. 3, 5, ?, 27, 92, 349

    A. 12
    B. 18
    C. 15
    D. 10
    E. 11


33. 1, 2, 6, 17, ?, 157.5

    A. 40.5
    B. 42.5
    C. 49.5
    D. 51.5
    E. 50.5


34. 7, ?, 19, 45, 95, 177

    A. 8
    B. 5
    C. 6
    D. 7
    E. 9


35. 9, 8, 15, ?, 175, 874

    A. 42
    B. 24
    C. 38
    D. 44
    E. 14


Answers and Explanations


1. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

45% of 300 + √x = 56% of 750 – 10% of 350

135 + √x = 420 – 35 => √x = 250

x = 62500


2. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

[(?)\(^{11/7}\)/50] = [20/(?)\(^{10/7}\)] x\(^{3}\) = 1000

x = 10


3. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

√x = \(\frac{79296}{112*12}\)

√x = 59

x = 3481


4. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

1637 + 1832 = (45)\(^{2}\) + (?)\(^{2}\)

(?)\(^{2}\) = 3469 – 2025 = 1444 => x = 38


5. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

13498 + 8932 – 1159 = ? * 89

x * 89 = 21271 => x = 239


6. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

(37685 + 29452 – 41897) ÷ 250

= 25240 ÷ 250 = 100.96


7. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

x\(^{2}\) = 75 * 147 => x = 105


8. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

32.4 * 8 * 5 + 4 = 1300

1300 ÷ 26 + 14 = 64 => x = 8


9. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

\(\sqrt {(12 * 145 ÷ 6 + 34)}\)


\(\sqrt {(290 + 34)}\) = 18


10. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

5670 ÷ (28*13.5)

= 5670 ÷ 378 = 15


11. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

572 ÷ 26 = 22

22 x 12 = 264

264 – 232 = 32 = 2\(^{5}\)


12. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

(44000 ÷ 2000) x 400 ÷ 20 = 440


13. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Efficiency of P = 4%

Efficiency of R = 2%

[(4+2)*10] = 60%

The remaining work was done by U = 40%.

40% of 600 = 240


14. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Q’s 5 days work = 50%

S’s 5 days work = 33.33%

M’s 2 days work = 16.66% [100- (50+33.33)] Ratio of work of Q, S and M = 3: 2: 1

Q’s total share = Rs. 3000

S’s total share = Rs. 2000

M’s total share = Rs. 1000

Q’s one day’s wage = Rs.600

S’s one day’s wage = Rs.400

M’s one day’s wage = Rs.500


15. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Efficiency (L : P) = 5 : 4

Number of days(L : P) = 4x : 5x = 4x : 25

∴ Number of days required by L to finish the work alone = 4x = 4 x 5 = 20.

L and P work together for last 5 days = 5 x 9 = 45%

Efficiency of L = 5% and P’s efficiency = 4%

∴ No. of days taken by L to complete 55% work = \(\frac{55}{5}\) = 11days


16. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

Efficiency of R = (\(\frac{100}{50}\)) = 2%

Rest work = 75%

∴ Efficiency of Z = \(\frac{75}{25}\) = 3%

∴ Combined efficiency of R and Z = 5%

∴ Number of days required by R and Z to work together = \(\frac{100}{5}\) = 20 days.


17. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Efficiency of T and V = 11.11 + 5.55 = 16.66%

Work done in 3 days = 3 x 16.66 = 50%

Rest work done by T, V and Z = \(\frac{50}{50}\) = 1 day

Work can be completed in 4 days.


18. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

\(\frac{1}{x}\) + \(\frac{1}{2x}\) = \(\frac{1}{9}\) + \(\frac{1}{18}\)

\(\frac{3}{2x}\) = \(\frac{3}{18}\)

Number of days taken by A = 9 days


19. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Cylinder painted area = 2πrh+πr²

Cone painted area = πrl

2h+r/√ (r\(^{2}\) +h1\(^{2}\) ) = 3:1

h = 6


20. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Let the present ages of Kareena and Suman are 3x and 5x.

Then, 10 yrs ago, (5x-10) = 2 * (3x-10)

Solve, x = 10

So Kareena present age = 30, after 5 years = 35


21. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

1.08x = 1404

x = 1300

The reduction of the price of the watch = 104


22. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

From Options;

let Number of girls = 800

Number of boys = 1000

96% of 1000 + 800 = 95% of 800 + 1000[satisfies the condition; Check the condition with other options also]


23. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

First = 1.5x Second = x Third = 3x Fourth = 1.5x

average = 24.5 = \(\frac{(1.5x+x+3x+1.5x)}{4}\)

x = 14


24. Answer – Option B


25. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

Let the sum = 100

Interest if compounded annually = 100 \([{(1 + \frac {10}{100})}^{2} – 1]\) = Rs. 21

Interest if compounded half yearly = 100 \([{(1 + \frac {5}{100})}^{4} – 1]\) = Rs. 21.55

Difference = 0.550625

Actual sum \(\frac {444.5}{0.5506} \times = Rs. 80000\)


26. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Since both trains are moving in opposite direction so their speed must be added.

As we Know, speed = \(\frac {distance}{time}\)

Time taken by man sitting in second train to pass the first train = \(\frac {200}{(60 + 100) \times \frac {5}{18}}\) = 4.5 sec


27. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

80 % of the distance = VT km

i.e, Total distance = \(\frac {VT}{80} \times 100 = \frac {5}{4}VT km\)

Remaining distance = \( \frac {5}{4}VT – VT = \frac {1}{4}VT km\)

Remaining Time = \( \frac {VT}{4S}hour\)

Total time = T + \( \frac {VT}{4S}\)

Average speed = \( \frac {Total Distance}{Total Time}\) = \(\frac {\frac {5}{4} VT}{T + \frac {VT}{4S}} = \frac {5VS}{4S + V}\)km/h


28. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

81 = 192*(1-x/100)\(^{3}\)

x = 25


29. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

sum invested by A = 4x = 36000.

X = 9000

Investment made by A, B , C – 36000, 45000, 54000

Ratio in which the profit will divide- 36000*12 : 45000*2 : 54000*6 + 27000*6

i.e 4:5:9. So C share = (\(\frac{9}{18}\))*60000 = 30000


30. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

4 * 1 = 4

4 * 1.5 = 6

6 * 2 = 12

12 * 2.5 = 30

30 * 3 = 90


31. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

10 * 0.5 = 5

5 * 1 = 5

5 * 2 = 10

10 * 4 = 40

40 * 8 = 320


32. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

3 + 1\(^{2}\) + 1 = 5

5 + 2\(^{2}\) + 1= 10

10 + 4\(^{2}\) + 1= 27


33. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

1 * 1 + 1 = 2

2* 1.5 + 3 = 6

6 * 2 + 5 = 17

17 * 2.5 + 7 = 49.5

49.5 * 3 + 9 =157.5


34. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

7 + 1\(^{2}\) + 1= 9

9 + 3\(^{2}\) + 1= 19

19 + 5\(^{2}\) + 1= 45……..


35. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

9*1 – 1 = 8

8*2 – 1 = 15

15*3 – 1 = 44

1. Directions (Q.1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain parts are given in bold to answer some of the questions based on the passage.

One of the most important things to notice about the power of art is the way in which great works continue to exert their influence through the ages. Scientific discoveries which are of major importance at the time they are made are superseded. Thus, Newton’s theory of gravitation has been superseded by Einstein’s theory of relativity. Hence the work of great scientists has value in stages on the way to a goal which supersedes them. Broadly speaking, the achievements of generals, politicians, and statesmen have importance only in their own time.


Hence these people and their acts, great as they may have been are like milestones which mankind passes on its way to something else. They may be juxtaposed in future but then, only to praise the contemporary work. But with the work of art, it is not so. The place which they occupy in the estimation of succeeding ages and the power which they exercise over men’s spirit is as great as they were in the age which produced them; indeed, their power tends to increase with time, as they came to be better understood.

1. The power of art can be judged through ?

    A. Its influence on a few individuals
    B. its influence on the people over the years
    C. the greatness of great artists
    D. the opinion of great thinkers
    E. Both 1 and 2


2. The statement; “Newton’s theory of gravitation has been superseded by Einstein’s theory of relativity” suggests that

    A. the theory of relativity has nothing to do with the theory of gravitation
    B. the theory of relativity is new in comparison to the theory of gravitation
    C. the theory of relativity is an improvement over the theory of gravitation
    D. the theory of relativity has suppressed the theory of gravitation
    E. Both 2 and 3


3. Which among the following is the MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word ‘SUPERSEDE’ ?

    A. excel
    B. absurd
    C. diverge
    D. replace
    E. embed


4. The achievements of generals, politicians and statesmen have been compared to milestones because

    A. they are inscribed on the milestones
    B. they have contemporary relevance
    C. they have topical and historical importance
    D. people tend to forget those achievements with time
    E. they are strong and lasting stones


5. According to the author what is correct among the following statements in the context of the passage given ?

    A. a work of art has a greater influence on mankind than the scientific ones
    B. Newton’s discoveries were inferior than that of Einstein’s
    C. achievements by esteemed men are destined to be forgotten
    D. Both a and b
    E. 1, 2 and 3


6. What does the ‘milestones’ refer to in context of the passage ?

    A. work of art
    B. scientific discoveries by Newton and Einstein
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Achievements of generals, politicians, statesmen etc.
    E. 1, 2 and 4


7. Why people tend to forget over the ages the great work ?

    A. Because it is not in their interests
    B. Since they are not relevant in the present time
    C. people remember only the influential works
    D. any work howsoever great loses it importance with time
    E. None of these


8. How is a work of art different from the work of a scientist ?

    A. a work of art is as permanent as the work of a scientist
    B. The influence of a work of art increases from age to age unlike the work of a scientist
    C. a work of art has no material value like the work of a scientist
    D. a work of art is an expression of creative power while the work of a scientist is not
    E. Both 2 and 3


9. What is meant by “CONTEMPORARY”

    A. preposterous
    B. outmoded
    C. defunct
    D. modern
    E. archaic


10. Whose power tends to increase with time ?

    A. Generals, politicians, statesmen
    B. men with profound knowledge
    C. artistic works
    D. Both 1 and 2
    E. scientific discoveries


Directions(11-14): Read each of the sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in TWO PARTS of the sentence. The combination of those parts is the answer. If no part in the sentence has an error, then select ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

11. The Supreme Court directed that husbands cannot (A)/ be persecuted without no proof of their guilt(B)/ and ruled that even a single false dowry complaint against the husband and (C)/ in-laws were sufficient ground for courts to grant decree of divorce to annul the marriage.(D)

    A. BC
    B. AC
    C. AB
    D. BD
    E. No Error


12. People in large numbers were witnessing(A)/ the launch of Space X rocket at Florida(B)/, some of the people were standing in the street watch on screens(C)/ while others were enjoying on TV.(D)

    A. BC
    B. AB
    C. BD
    D. CD
    E. No Error


13. The constitution has given ample of fundamental rights(A)/ which gave us liberty and freedom without(B)/ any constraints but we have often been unreasonable ignorant(C)/ of our fundamental duties.(D)

    A. AB
    B. CD
    C. BC
    D. AD
    E. No Error


14. I am disappointed that the(A)/ news coming from the upper hill market are bad (B)/ because I was planning(B)/ to either visit the resort but also(C)/ purchase gifts from the showroom.

    A. CD
    B. AD
    C. BC
    D. CD
    E. No Error


Directions(15-20): In the given sentences a blank is given indicating that something is missing. From the given four options, (1), (2), (3), (4), a combination of words would fit the blank thereby making it grammatically and contextually correct. Select that option as the answer. If all the given combinations fit perfectly, then select ‘All fit’ as the answer.

15. It is hard to imagine that the 2021 Census will not face another ________ of demands for collection of caste data.

    I. dawn
    II. slew
    III. bellicose
    IV. siege


    A. II , IV
    B. I
    C. II
    D. III
    E. All fit


16. Indian society has undergone a tremendous transformation since 1931. Land ownership that bolstered the power of upper castes has lost its hold. Land fragmentation and decades of agricultural ________ have turned many upper caste landowners into marginal farmers barely eking out a subsistence.

    I. torpidity
    II. quiescence
    III. stagnation
    IV. stasis


    A. I , II
    B. III
    C. I, IV
    D. III, IV
    E. All fit


17. India’s _________ approach to World Trade Organisation negotiations is unjustified.

    I. intransigent
    II. uncompromising
    III. pugnacious
    IV. quarrelsome


    A. III
    B. I, II
    C. IV
    D. III, IV
    E. All fit


18. Judiciary has been inching towards allowing passive euthanasia, where the means of prolonging a patient’s life are withdrawn – say by withdrawing ventilator support. But the process remains enmeshed in such a legal _________ that ordinary patients can hardly hope to benefit from it.

    I. equipoise
    II. subsume
    III. problem
    IV. imbroglio


    A. III, IV
    B. I
    C. I, II
    D. IV
    E. All fit


19. The fossil remains of the first flying vertebrates, the pterosaurs, have _________ paleontologists for more than two centuries.

    I. lured
    II. fascinated
    III. intrigued
    IV. tempted


    A. II
    B. I, III
    C. II, IV
    D. IV
    E. All fit


20. Supreme Court’s clarification that fatwas issued by sharia courts or muftis had no legal basis and hence could not be enforced has important social ____________.

    I. acerbic
    II. consequences
    III. claptrap
    IV. ramifications


    A. III
    B. I, IV
    C. II
    D. II,IV
    E. All fit


Direction(21-24): Choose the correct sentence among following.

21. Protection from harrassment for good Samaritans who help accident victims is something the amended law provides, and this needs to be in place.

    A. Protection
    B. harrassment
    C. Samaritans
    D. amended
    E. All correct


22. The bottleneck created by their lack of capacity has stiffled regulatory reform in the transport sector and only encouraged corruption.

    A. bottleneck
    B. capacity
    C. stiffled
    D. encouraged
    E. All correct


23. There is a dire need to have clear rules and transparent processes in all these areas, since transport bureaucracy have remained unresponsive to the needs of a growing economy that is witnessing a steady rise in motorisation.

    A. dire
    B. processes
    C. bureaucracy
    D. motorisation
    E. All correct


24. Local elections are seen as a way to allow for a much-needed administrative presence everywhere, but this cannot happen without the participation of all political forces, espcially Madhesis.

    A. administrative
    B. presence
    C. participation
    D. espcially
    E. All correct


Directions(25-30): Given below are six sentences (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) and (F). Answer the following questions after rearranging the following sentences into a coherent paragraph.

  • (A) Overworked courts cannot become a one-stop solution for performing legislative/executive tasks such as banning firecrackers/loudspeakers, enforcing seat belt/helmet wearing rules, or solving theological/civil society questions such as what the essence of Hinduism is or whether a mosque is integral for namaz.
  • (B) Yet, the irony of democracy is such that the task of completing the world’s largest democracy’s political and social revolution cannot be laid only at the doorstep of the wise men and women in robes.
  • (C) The abdication of responsibility by the legislature is even more damaging considering that the judiciary is groaning under the weight of a mammoth 3.3 crore pending cases.
  • (D) The process of abolishing religious or secular hierarchies/injustices cannot become deep-rooted if it is merely judicial or legal. Take the Supreme Court’s recent directive urging new legislation to curb lynching.
  • (E) Politically-motivated lynchings targeting a community do not happen because of the absence of laws. They happen because of a willful subversion of laws by the executive backed by mobs riding on electoral majorities.
  • (F) In this context, should the valuable time of the judiciary be spent in entertaining and delivering verdicts on Public Interest Litigations (PILs), seeking, to take a couple of instances, a ban on pornography or making the national anthem mandatory in cinema halls? The PIL, a unique and powerful tool to seek justice for the weakest sections, has now degenerated.


25. Considering statement (A) “Overworked courts cannot become a one-stop solution for performing legislative/executive tasks such as banning firecrackers/loudspeakers, enforcing seat belt/helmet wearing rules, or solving theological/civil society questions such as what the essence of Hinduism is or whether a mosque is integral for namaz ” as the Third sentence of the rearranged paragraph, then which among the following becomes the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

    A. D
    B. B
    C. F
    D. E
    E. C


26. Considering statement (A) “Overworked courts cannot become a one-stop solution for performing legislative/executive tasks such as banning fire crackers/loud speakers, enforcing seat belt/helmet wearing rules, or solving theological/civil society questions such as what the essence of Hinduism is or whether a mosque is integral for namaz ” as the Third sentence of the rearranged paragraph, then which among the following becomes the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?

    A. C
    B. B
    C. E
    D. F
    E. D


27. Considering statement (A) “Overworked courts cannot become a one-stop solution for performing legislative/executive tasks such as banning fire crackers/loud speakers, enforcing seat belt/helmet wearing rules, or solving theological/civil society questions such as what the essence of Hinduism is or whether a mosque is integral for namaz ” as the Third sentence of the rearranged paragraph, then which among the following becomes the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

    A. F
    B. E
    C. B
    D. D
    E. C


28. Among the following pairs which one of them is formed with two consecutive statements after the rearrangement?

    A. B-D
    B. A-E
    C. C-F
    D. E-F
    E. D-E


29. Among the following pairs which one of them is formed with two consecutive statements after the rearrangement?

    A. C-F
    B. A-C
    C. B-D
    D. D-E
    E. E-F


30. Considering statement (B) “It is a truth universally acknowledged that the modern democratic state, armed with technologies of surveillance and control, possesses the kind of power that has never ever been exercised by any other state in history” as the First sentence of the rearranged paragraph, then which among the following becomes the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

    A. C
    B. A
    C. F
    D. E
    E. D


Answers and Explanations


1. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Option B is suitable


2. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Option D is suitable


3. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Supersede – take the place of, replace


4. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Option B is suitable


5. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Statements A and B goes with the context of the passage


6. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

Statements A, B and D are in context of the passage


7. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Option D only is suitable


8. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Option B is suitable


9. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Contemporary – present time, current, modern


10. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Option C is suitable


11. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

In B, any will come in place no (Rule: negative word cannot be used with another negative word in a sentence i.e. ’without’ and’ no’ cannot be used to together.

In D, a single complaint (is singular), therefore was should be used in place of were


12. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

In B, in should be used in place of at because (Rule) at is used for smaller places. In C, watching in place of watch because (Rule) preposition + v +ing


13. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

In B, has given should be used in place of gave to make the tenses same as given earlier in the sentence. In C, unreasonably will come in place of unreasonable because(Rule) an adverb qualifies a verb not an adjective.


14. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

In B, is should be used instead of are (Rule) Nouns like news, summons, physics, mathematics, etc are used as a singular. In C, (Rule) Either….or are used together, but also is used with not only


15. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Slew- a violent or uncontrollable sliding movement.


16. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

Stagnation , torpidity , quiescence , stasis – the state of not flowing or moving.


17. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Intransigent , uncompromising – unwilling or refusing to change one’s views or to agree about something


18. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Imbroglio , problem – an extremely confused, complicated, or embarrassing situation


19. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

Intrigued , lured , tempted , fascinated – arouse the curiosity or interest


20. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Ramifications , consequences – a complex or unwelcome consequence of an action or even


21. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

The correct spelling should be harassment instead of harrassment which means aggressive pressure or intimidation.


22. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

stifled will be correct word which means make (someone) unable to breathe properly; suffocate.


23. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

it should be bureaucracies instead of bureaucracy.


24. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

especially will be correct word.


25. Answer – Option C

Explanation –

Correct sequence is CFADEB


26. Answer – Option B

Explanation –

Correct sequence is CFADEB


27. Answer – Option D

Explanation –

Correct sequence is CFADEB


28. Answer – Option E

Explanation –

Correct sequence is CFADEB


29. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Correct sequence is CFADEB


30. Answer – Option A

Explanation –

Correct sequence is BACEFD