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NIACL AO Reasoning Ability

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NIACL AO Reasoning Ability

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NIACL AO 2018-19 - Preliminary Examination, conducted in online Mode, has: a duration of 1 hour, a maximum score of 100 marks, and consists of 3 sections, namely - English Language, Reasoning Ability and Quantitative Aptitude. The 3 sections are separately timed and the questions can be attempted in any order. There is a Negative marking in NIACL AO Preliminary exam and 0.25 marks are deducted for each wrong answer. Candidates must clear the cut-off in all 3 sections to qualify for the NIACL AO Main exam. The below sections gives the detailed information about NIACL AO Reasoning Ability.

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S.No. Name of Test/ Section (not in sequence) Type of test Max. Marks Duration for each test/ section (Separately timed) Version
1 English Language Objective 30 20 min English
2 Reasoning Ability Objective 35 20 min English/ Hindi
3 Quantitative Aptitude Objective 35 20 min English/Hindi
Total 100

The NIACL AO Reasoning Ability section in the Prelims, has the objective questions with 35 marks in 20 minutes. Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions in the Preliminary Exam of NIACL AO Reasoning Ability Section.

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Directions (1-5): These questions are based on the following arrangement of letters/ numbers/ symbols. Study them carefully and answer the questions given beside.
5 H β 3 % T I L 4 $ E 6 F 1 R M @ A # B D 2 8 U & C
1. If all the numbers, vowels and the symbol ‘&’ are removed from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the eighth element from the left end?
    A. L B. @ C. M D. R E. None of these

Answer: Option (D)
Explantion: If we remove the numbers, vowels and the symbol ‘&’ from the above arrangement, the arrangement will be like:
H β % T L $ F R M @ # B D C
Clearly, ‘R’ is the eighth element from the left end. Option D is hence the correct answer.
2. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of eighth element to the left of the thirteenth element from the left end?
    A. β B. T C. A D. $ E. None of these

Answer: Option (D)
Explantion: The 13th element from the left end = F The resultant direction = 8th to the left - 5th to the right = 3rd to the left = $ Option D is hence the correct answer.
3. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and also immediately preceded by a letter?
    A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. None of these

Answer: Option (A)
Explantion: 5 H β 3 % T I L 4 $ E 6 F 1 R M @ A # B D 2 8 U & C Clearly, only 1 such permutation exists. Option A is hence the correct answer.
4. If first five and the last five elements are written in reverse order, how many symbols are there that will be immediately followed by a letter?
    A. Only one B. Two C. Three D. Four E. None of these

Answer: Option (E)
Explantion: % 3 β H 5 T I L 4 $ E 6 F 1 R M @ A # B D C & U 8 2
Clearly, 5 such permutations exist.
Option E is hence the correct answer.
5. Four of the five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Find out the one that does not belong to that group?
    A. 35 B. 4T C. 64 D. RA E. 8B

Answer: Option (D)
Explantion: 5 H β 3 % T I L 4 $ E 6 F 1 R M @ A # B D 2 8 U & C
In all the permutations except given as option D, the second element is 3 steps left to the first element. In option D, the second element is 3 steps right to the first element.
Option D is hence the correct answer.
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the criteria to recruit a Finance Consultant in an organisation:
The candidate must
    (a) be a graduate in any discipline with minimum 65% marks. (b) be above 26 years and not above 35 years of age as on 01-01-2017. (c) have a postgraduate degree or diploma (2 years full time in Finance) or must have completed CA/CS/ ICWA with above 50% marks. (d) have an experience of minimum three years in the above areas. (e) be ready to be on probation for one year.

If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except (i) at (c) above, but is a Commerce graduate with minimum 70% marks and has been working in financial areas for at least last five years, his/her case is to be referred to the Asst General Manager – Personnel and Administration (PA). (ii) at (d) above, but has scored minimum 70% in post graduation (Finance) and has a minimum of two years of experience in Finance, his/her case is to be referred to the General Manager (PA).
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer.
You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-01-2017.
1. Rahul is a Science graduate with 65% marks and has completed post-graduation in Finance. He completed 26 years of age in 2016 and has four years’ experience as a Senior Manager. He is ready to join on one-year probation.
    A) if the candidate is to be selected. B) if the data given are not sufficient to take any decision. C) if the case is to be referred to the Asst General Manager. D) if the case is to be referred to the General Manager. E) if the candidate is not to be selected.

Answer: Option (A)
2. Mukul is a gold medalist CA and Class I graduate with 77% and 82% marks respectively. He has been working as a professor in Finance for the past four years and has also been a freelance Finance Consultant for the past two years.
    A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Head. B) if the case is to be referred to Vice President. C) if the candidate is to be selected. D) if the information is inadequate to take a decision. E) if the candidate is not to be selected.

Answer: Option (D)
3. Shivani, a 27-year-old Commerce graduate with 62% post-graduated in Finance with 72% marks. She has been working with a Finance organisation for the last two years. She is ready to join on one-year probation.
    A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Head. B) if the case is to be referred to Vice President. C) if the candidate is to be selected. D) if the information is inadequate to take a decision. E) if the candidate is not to be selected.

Answer: Option (E)
4. Avneesh is a Commerce graduate with 74% marks and has been working for the past eight years during which he worked as Accounts Manager for two years. He is pursuing ICWA. He was born on 05.10.1985 and is ready to join on one-year probation.
    A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Head. B) if the case is to be referred to Vice President. C) if the candidate is to be selected. D) if the information is inadequate to take a decision. E) if the candidate is not to be selected.

Answer: Option (E)
5. Aditya has been working as Senior Manager for the past eight years. He has completed MBA Finance and graduation with 70% marks each and is ready to join on probation for a year. He was born on 19th March 1984.
    A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Head. B) if the case is to be referred to Vice President. C) if the candidate is to be selected. D) if the information is inadequate to take a decision. E) if the candidate is not to be selected.

Answer: Option (A)
Directions (1-2): Study the following set of questions carefully and answer the questions given below.
1. Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below: If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is father of B’. If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is wife of B’. If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’. If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is son of B’. How is L related to Q in the expression ‘L ÷ M × O – P ÷ Q’?
    A. Granddaughter B. Niece C. Daughter-in-law D. Daughter E. Can’t be determined

Answer: Option (A)
2. Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below: If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is father of B’. If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is wife of B’. If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’. If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is son of B’.
What will come in the place of the question mark, to establish that Q is the nephew of T in the expression: ‘Q ? R ÷ S × T'?
    A. + B. × C. – D. ÷ E. Either – or ÷

Answer: Option (C)
Directions (3-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are ten members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J in the family. There are three generations of the family. There is also three married couple in the family.There is an equal number of male and female. A is the daughter of J. B's brother I have only one sister A. H and B are the married couple. C is the daughter of H. G is the mother of B. D is the son in law of G. C is the sister of E. F is the only son of D.
3. If I is the father of Y then how is H related to Y?
    A. Mother B. Sister C. Grandmother D. Aunt E. Niece

Answer: Option (D)
4. If B is the son in law of X. Then how is X related to C?
    A. Father B. Grandmother C. Grandfather D. Mother E. None of these

Answer: Option (E)
5. If Y is the daughter of I. Then how is Y related to E?
    A. Sister B. brother C. Sister in law D. Cousin E. Brother in law

Answer: Option (D)
Directions (1-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions: In a certain code, ‘superstring park avail prelim’ is written as ‘#22T %8Q $10B @12Q’, ‘cereal revolving crook newsroom’ is written as ‘#10S @16O $12D %10D’, ‘training system unequal monk’ is written as ‘$14V %bN @12T #16U’, and ‘payback dream using ethical’ is written as ‘%14Q $14F #10V @10E’.
1. What is the code for ‘shooting upstream’?
    A. @16V %16T B. @16V #18T C. @16V #16T D. @16U %16T E. Cannot be determined

Answer: Option (C)
2. What is the code for ‘making framework’?
    A. #12N %18G B. #12M $18G C. #12M %20G D. #12N @18G E. Cannot be determined
Answer: Option (A)
3. What is the code for ‘logical coding’?
    A. @12M $12E B. #14M $12D C. @14M $12C D. #14M $12D E. Cannot be determined
Answer: Option (B)
4. What is code for ‘environmental petroleum’?
    A. @18Q $24F B. @16Q $26E C. @18Q $26F D. #16Q $26E E. Cannot be determined
Answer: Option (C)
5. What is code for ‘maximum cashback’?
    A. #14N %16D B. @16N %16D C. @14N %16E D. @14N %16D E. Cannot be determined
Answer: Option (D)
1. Raman walked 2km West from his office and then turned South covering 4km. Finally, he walked 3 km towards East and again move I km West. How far is Raman from his initial position?
    A. 4 km B. 8 km C. 10 km D. 7 km

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Raman starts from his office A, moves 2 km West upto B, then 4 km to the South upto C, 3 km East upto D and finally 1 km West upto E. Thus his distance from the initial position A = AE = BC = 4 km.
Hence option (A) is the correct answer.
2. Rashmi walks 10 km towards North. She walks 6 km towards South then. From here she moves 3 km towards East. How far and in which direction is she with reference to her starting point?
    A. 6 km West B. 7 km East C. 8 km North D. 5 km North-East

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: It is clear, Rashmi moves from A 10 km Northwards upon B, then moves 6 km Southwards up to C, then turns towards East and walks 3 km up to D. Then, AC = (AB – BC) = 10 – 6 = 4km CD = 3km Rashmi’s distance from starting point A = AD = 5 km.
Direction (3-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:
Monika starts walking from point A. After walking 4 km in the east direction she reached to point B. Then she turned to her left and walk 3 km to reach point C. From there she turned back to A via the shortest route. From there she starts walking in a south direction and after walking 5 km she reached to point D, then she turned left and walks 8km to reach point E. From there she turns left and walks equal distance of distance from point A to point D and reach point F. Finally, she turned right and reaches to point G after walking 4km.
3. What will be the shortest distance of point A to point C?
    A. 5 km B. 14 km C. 8 km D. 6 km E. 9 km

Answer: Option (A)
4. Which points are in a straight line?
    A. A, D, G B. C, B, E C. A, B, D D. B, F, G E. F, C, G

Answer: Option (D)
5. In which direction is point G with respect to point C?
    A. West B. North C. North-East D. South-West E. South-East

Answer: Option (E)
Directions (1-5): In the following question, the symbols @, &, %, $ and * are used with the following meaning illustrated.
‘P & Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’. ‘P * Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’. ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’. ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’. ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller then Q’.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the given conclusions (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below is/are definitely true.
1. Statement: I & J, V * W, K % V, J @ K, L & M, K % L Conclusion: (a) I % W (b) L @ W (c) M $ J (d) I * V
    (A) Conclusion (a), (d) Only (B) Conclusion (c) Only (C) Conclusion (b) and (c) Only (D) Conclusion (a) and (c) Only (E) None of these

Answer: Option (B)
2. Statement: A $ R, R % S, T & U, V $ J, U @ V, U $ K, R & U Conclusion: (a) A * U (b) S $ J (c) T & K (d) A * K
    (A) Conclusion (b), (d) Only (B) Conclusion (b) Only (C) Conclusion (b) and (c) Only (D) Conclusion (a), (b) and (c) Only (E) None of these

Answer: Option (E)
3. Statement: U % B, B % T, U % W, H & C, K $ U, C @ K Conclusion: (a) H & T (b) K @ T (c) C * B (d) W % K
    (A) Conclusion (c), (d) Only (B) Conclusion (d) Only (C) Conclusion (b) and (c) Only (D) Conclusion (a) and (b) Only (E) None of these

Answer: Option (E)
4. Statement: P % R, S $ T, R & S, K & S, G * K, S $ M Conclusion: (a) P & K (b) R * M (c) S @ G (d) S * K
    (A) Conclusion (d) Only (B) Conclusion (a), (b) and (c) Only (C) Conclusion (b) and (c) Only (D) Conclusion (c) and (d) Only (E) Conclusion (a), (d) Only

Answer: Option (A)
5. Statement: V $ R, W % K, R @ A, A & W, C & I, D $ C, A * D Conclusion: (a) C % V (b) D * R (c) K $ R (d) K * C
    (A) Conclusion (a), (b) and (c) Only (B) Conclusion (b), (d) Only (C) Conclusion (a) and (c) Only (D) Conclusion (a) and (d) Only (E) None of these

Answer: Option (C)
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A number arrangement machine arranges two digit numbers into a typical manner. Each step gives output taking input from the previous step. The following is an illustration of inpu and rearrangement. Using the illustration answer the question given below.

1. Which of the following represent difference of the first digit of the third number and third digit of the first number in step I of the given input?
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 7 E. 8

Answer: Option (B)
2. If each digit in the step II is halved and then added, then what will be the final sum?
    A. 8.5 B. 12.5 C. 17 D. 14 E. None of these

Answer: Option (E)
3. If the value '4.5' is subtracted from the final output, then what will be the resultant value?
    A. 18 B. 12 C. 8 D. 4 E. None of these

Answer: Option (D)
4. Which of the following represent the first digit of the second number and second digit of the first number in step II?
    A. 4, 1 B. 7, 1 C. 1, 4 D. 2, 4 E. None of these

Answer: Option (C)
5. What is the difference of two numbers obtained in step III?
    A. 37 B. 29 C. 41 D. 18 E. None of these

Answer: Option (A)
Direction (1-2): Statements are followed by 4 conclusions. Determine which conclusion(s) follow(s) from the given statements.
1. Statements: All H are G. Some G are D. No D is C. Some C are T. Conclusions: I. No C is G II. Some G are not C. III. All D are H is a possibility. IV. All D are T is a possibility.
    A) Only II, III and either I or IV follow. B) Only III follows C) All follows. D) Only II, III and IV follow E) None of these

Answer: Option (D)
2. Statements: All B are F. Some H are F. All P are H. No J is F. Conclusions: I. All J being H is a possibility II. Some P are not J III. Some H are not J. IV. Some P are F
    A) Only II, III and IV follow. B) Only I and III follows C) All follows. D) Only I, III and IV follow E) None of these

Answer: Option (B)
Direction (3-5): Each of the following questions consists of six statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option that indices a combination where the third statement can be logically deduced from the first two statements and that option will be your answer.
3. I. Some orange is white. II. Some white is black. III. All black is orange. IV. Some green are blue. V. No blue is white. VI. All red are green.
    A) [IV, VI, V] B) [I, II, V] C) [II, III, I] D) [IV, V, VI] E) None is correct

Answer: Option (C)
4. I. Some red is green. II. All blue is black. III. Some blue is white. IV. Some red is white. V. Some black is blue. VI. Some white is black.
    A) [VI, IV, I] B) [II, III, VI] C) [I, II, IV] D) [I , V, III] E) None is correct

Answer: Option (B)
5. I. No red is green. II. Some white is red. III. All blue is white. IV. Some green is blue. V. No white is black. VI. No blue is black.
    A) [I, II, V] B) [II, III, V] C) [I, IV, VI] D) [III, V, VI] E) None is correct

Answer: Option (D)
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight persons Nainika, Virat, Vani, Vaibhav, Nakul, Viji, Namith and Nareshare sitting around a square table, four of them facing towards centre while four of them facing outside but not necessarily in the same order. Vaibhav sits fourth to right of Naresh. Vani is sitting immediate right of Vaibhav. Only one person sits between Namith and Vaibhav and both are facing same directions. Namith sits fourth to the right of Viji, whodoesn’t sits in middle of the table. Viji is not a neighbour of Naresh and faces towards the centre. Vani sits adjacent to Namith, who faces opposite direction of Vani. Nakul is to the immediate left of Vaibhav. Virat faces opposite direction of Vani and sits second to the left of Vani. Nakul is sitting second to left of Nainika, who faces same direction as Viji.
1. Who among the following persons faces the centre of the table?
    A. Naresh B. Virat C. Nakul D. Vaibhav E. None of these

Answer: Option (A)
Explanation: Naresh is facing the centre of the table among the given people.
2. Who is sitting immediate right of Naresh?
    A. Nainika B. Virat C. Vani D. Nakul E. None of these

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: Virat sits immediate right of Naresh.
3. Four of the following five are form a group in some way, find out the odd one?
    A. Nainika B. Vani C. Viji D. Nakul E. Virat

Answer: Option (C)
Explanation: Except Viji, all given persons are sitting in the middle of the table.
4. Vani is related to Nakul and in the same way Naresh is related to Namith then which of the following is related to Viji?
    A. Vaibhav B. Naresh C. Both Vaibhav and Naresh D. Either Vaibhav or Naresh E. None of these

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: Vani is sitting second to the right of Nakul and vice-versa. In the same way Naresh is sitting second to the right of Namith and vice-versa. Following the same way no one is related to Viji.
5. Which of the following statement is/ are true?
    A. Vani is facing outside the centre B. Virat is facing towards the centre C. Nareh is facing same direction as Vaibhav D. Viji is sitting immediate right of Nainika E. None is true

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: None of the given statements is true.
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Seven boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are bought at different cost between Rs.40 and Rs.50 but not necessarily in the same order. The Cost of box R is five less than that of box T. The Cost of Box P is a prime number. The cost of Box U is two more than that of box P. The cost of Box U is more than that of box T. The cost of box S is an odd number. The cost of box V is three more than cost of box S. None of the box cost is Rs.44. The cost of box Q is an even number.
1. What is the cost of Box T?
    A. Rs. 42 B. Rs. 45 C. Rs. 47 D. Rs. 46 E. None of these

Answer: Option (D)
2. What is the sum of Cost of box R and S?
    A. Rs. 96 B. Rs. 86 C. Rs. 88 D. Rs. 72 E. None of these

Answer: Option (B)
3. How many boxes are not costlier than Q?
    A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. None of these

Answer: Option (A)
4. Which of the following box is just costlier than S?
    A. P B. Q C. T D. V E. None of these

Answer: Option (C)
5. Which of the following is correct?
    A. Box Q is costlier than box R B. The cost of box U is prime number C. The cost of box V is below Rs.45 D. The cost of box P is two more than that of box S E. Both (a) and (d)

Answer: Option (E)
Directions (1-5): Eight friends – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H were born on in March, June, September and December on either 3rd or 8th (all born on different dates). The ones who were born in a month having 30 days like different fruits – Banana, Apple, Mango and Litchi not necessarily in the same order. The ones who were born in a month having 31 days like different colours – Red, Yellow, Blue and Green not necessarily in the same order.
E was born in June. 1 person was born between E and D. D does not like any colour. B likes red colour. Same number of people were born before A as after D. No person was born between the ones who like yellow colour and mango. The one who likes yellow colour was not born on 8th of any month. No person was born between E and one who likes litchi. One person was born between B and one who likes Banana. A does not like Banana. The ones who like apple and banana were born either on same date or in same month. One person was born between A and H. F does not like any fruit. No person was born between C and one who likes blue colour. H does not like fruit. Same number of persons were born between the ones who like green colour and apple and who like blue colour and mango.
1. Who likes Green colour?
    A) C B) F C) G D) H E) E

Answer: Option (D)
2. How many people were born between B and one who likes Litchi?
    A) Four B) Two C) Three D) None E) One

Answer: Option (B)
3. Four of the following forms a group based on certain pattern. Who does not belong to this group?
    A) A B) G C) D D) C E) E

Answer: Option (D)
4. Who was born on 3rd September?
    A) The one who likes mango B) E C) C D) D E) The one who likes litchi

Answer: Option (E)
5. C likes which of the following fruit/ colour?
    A) Yellow B) Mango C) Litchi D) Blue E) Banana

Answer: Option (A)
Directions (1-5): Each question below contains two rows marked by I and II. The resultant of each row can be found by the rules given below. Answer the question followed by the rows by finding the resultant with the help of following five rules:
1) If a perfect cube is followed by an odd number, then the numbers are needed to be added. 2) If an even number is followed by a prime number, then subtract the second number from the first one. 3) If an odd number is followed by a perfect square, divide the second number by the first one. 4) If an odd number is followed by a non-perfect square, multiply the two numbers. 5) If a composite number is followed by an even number, then the numbers are needed to be added.
1. I. 6 3 36 II. x 7 6 If x is equal to the resultant of the first row, then find the resultant of the second row.
    A) 42 B) 45 C) 30 D) 36 E) 33

Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: For row I – From rule 2: 6 – 3 = 3 From rule 3: 36/3 = 12 Resultant of second row = 12 So, x = 12 For row II – From rule 2: 12 – 7 = 5 From rule 4: 5 × 6 = 30 Resultant of second row = 30
2. I. 7 6 10 II. 10 17 35 Find the multiplication of the resultant of both rows.
    A) 242 B) 423 C) 362 D) 260 E) 333

Answer: Option (D)
Explanation: For row I – From rule 4: 7 × 6 = 42 From rule 5: 42 + 10 = 52 Resultant of second row = 52 For row II – From rule 2: 17 – 10 = 5 From rule 4: 35 ÷ 7 = 5 Resultant of second row = 5 So answer = 52 × 5 = 260
3. I. 4 4 15 II. 3 x 3 If x is equal to the resultant of first row, then find the resultant of second row.
    A) 142 B) 207 C) 162 D) 160 E) 199

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: For row I – From rule 5: 4 + 4 = 8 From rule 1: 8 + 15 = 23 Resultant of second row = 23 So x = 23 For row II – From rule 4: 3 × 23 = 69 From rule 4: 69 × 3 = 207 Resultant of second row = 207
4. I. 5 100 4 II. 8 9 3 Find the total of the resultant of both rows.
    A) 54 B) 75 C) 52 D) 60 E) 73

Answer: Option (B)
Explanation: For row I – From rule 3: 100 ÷ 5 = 20 From rule 5: 20 + 4 = 24 Resultant of second row = 24 For row II – From rule 1: 8 + 9 = 17 From rule 4: 17 × 3 = 51 Resultant of second row = 51 So answer = 24 + 51 = 75
5. I. 9 5 25 II. 4 19 21 Find the multiplication of the resultant of both rows.
    A) 182 B) 123 C) 168 D) 160 E) 175

Answer: Option (E)
Explanation: For row I – From rule 4: 9 × 5 = 45 From rule 3: 25 ÷ 45 = 5/9 Resultant of second row = 5/9 For row II – From rule 2: 19 – 4 = 15 From rule 4: 15 × 21 Resultant of second row = 15 × 21 So answer = 5/9 × 15 × 21 = 175
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