SBI Clerk - SPLessons

SBI CLERK Mains Practice Quiz Sets

SPLessons 5 Steps, 3 Clicks
5 Steps - 3 Clicks

SBI CLERK Mains Practice Quiz Sets

shape Introduction

Career in Banking is one of the most lucrative and most sought after careers. In India, Bank Recruitment Exams are primarily conducted for recruitment of Probationary Officers, Clerks & Specialist Officers. India currently[2019] has 93 commercial and 27 public sector banks out of which 19 are nationalized and 6 are SBI and its associate banks and rest two are IDBI Bank and Bharatiya Mahila Bank, which are categorized as other public sector banks. Recruitment for Bank Probationary Officers, Management Trainees, Clerks and for various other posts generally follow a 3 step recruitment process: Preliminary Exam + Mains Exam + Interview & Group Discussion. The article SBI CLERK Mains Practice Quiz Sets presents a practice set for the most sought after SBI CLERK recruitment. Until the year 2013, All Public Sector Banks used to conduct their own entrance test, GDs and Personal Interview for recruiting candidates. However, after 2014, IBPS started conducting recruitment Tests for 12 PSU Banks. IBPS holds a separate entrance test for recruitment.

Mains exams are very important to clear every government sector or bank related recruitment process in India. Only those candidates who are selected in the Mains round are allowed to move further up in the recruitment process. The marks obtained in the Mains exams are considered for the final merit list. Mains exams usually consist of 4 sections, with 155 questions with a time duration of 3 hours. Mains exams most certainly have negative marking.

shape Quiz

Directions Q (1 – 3): Each of the questions below consists of a questions and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Read both the statements and — Give answer

(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

1. Kiran is older than Manoj and Dilip is older than Neelam. Who among them is the youngest?

I. Kiran is older than Neelam.

II. Manoj is younger than Dilip.

2. What is the relation between M and F?

I. M has two sons, one of whom is B.

II. The mother of F has two sons D and B.

3. H is in which direction with respect to V?

I. S is to the south of K, who is to the west of V.

II. M is to the north of H, who is to the east of V.

Directions Q (4 – 6): These questions are based on the following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions.

Seven members L, H, K, T, F, J, and R represent different countries in Olympics viz, USA, China, Korea, France, Russia, Australia, and Japan; each one competes for a different sport, viz.

Volleyball, Archery, Rifle Shooting, Tennis, Boxing, Athletics, and Football. The order of persons, countries, and games is not necessarily the same.

K represents China for Archery. T represents the USA but not for Volleyball or Rifle Shooting. The one who represents Japan competes for Boxing. F competes for Volleyball but not for Korea. L represent Australia for Athletics. The one who represents Russia competes for Tennis. J does not represent Korea or Japan. R competes for Rifle Shooting.

4. Which of the following combinations is correct?

    A. J – Tennis – France
    B. R – Tennis-Russia
    C. R – Tennis – France
    D. J – Tennis – Russia
    E. None of these


5. Who represents Japan?

    A. F
    B. R
    C. J
    D. H
    E. None of these


6. F represents which country?

    A. France
    B. Russia
    C. Japan
    D. Korea
    E. None of these


Directions Q (7 – 9): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Any further increase in the population level in the city by way of industrial effluents and automobile exhaustions would pose a severe threat to the inhabitants.

(A) All the factories in the city should immediately be closed down.
(B) The automobiles should not be allowed to ply on the road for more than four hours a day.
(C) The government should restrict the issue of fresh licenses to factories and automobiles.
(D) Cancer, heart attacks, brain strokes, tuberculosis are the major disease which is rapidly increasing in industrial cities.
(E) All types of pollutants are very harmful to health.
(F) Excessive growth of industries has increased the pollution level in the city.

7. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) can be an immediate course of action for the Government?

    A. Only (A)
    B. Only (B)
    C. Only (C)
    D. Only (D)
    E. All of these


8. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) can not be an immediate course of action for the government?

    A. Only (A)
    B. Only (B)
    C. Both (A) and (B)
    D. Only (D)
    E. None of these


9. Which of the following (A), (B), (D) and (E) may be the effect of increment in the pollution level in the city?

    A. Only (A)
    B. Only (B)
    C. Only (D)
    D. Only (E)
    E. None of these


10. Cause: Govt has recently decided to hike the procurement price of paddy for the rabi crops.

Which of the following will be a possible effect of the above cause?

    A. The farmers may be encouraged to cultivate paddy for the rabi season.
    B. The farmers may switch over to other cash crops in their paddy fields.
    C. There was a drop in production of paddy during Kharif season
    D. Govt may not increase the procurement price of paddy during the next Kharif season.
    E. Govt. will buy paddy from the open market during next few months.


11. Statement: Many patients suffering from malaria were administered the anti-malarial drug for a week. Some of them did not respond to the traditional drug and their condition deteriorated after four days.

Which of the following would weaken the findings mentioned in the above statement?

    A. Those patients who responded to the traditional drugs and recovered were needed to be given additional doses as they reported a relapse of symptoms.
    B. The mosquitoes carrying malaria are found to be resistant to traditional malarial drugs.
    C. Majority of the patients suffering from malaria responded well to the traditional malarial drugs and recovered from the illness.
    D. Many drug companies have stopped manufacturing traditional malarial drugs.
    E. None of these


Directions Q (12 – 16): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a rectangular table in such a way that two persons sit on each of the four sides of the table facing the centre. Persons sitting on opposite sides are exactly opposite to each other.

D faces North and sits exactly opposite H. E is on the immediate left of H. A and G sit on the same side. G is exactly opposite B, who is on the immediate right of C. A is next to the left of D.

12. Who is sitting opposite A?

    A. G
    B. D
    C. E
    D. A
    E. None of these


13. Who is next to E in clockwise direction?

    A. G
    B. B
    C. F
    D. A or F
    E. None of these


14. Which of the following pairs of persons has both the persons sitting on the same side with first person sitting to the right of second person?

    A. DF
    B. CB
    C. FC
    D. AG
    E. None of these


15. Who is sitting opposite E?

    A. D
    B. A
    C. F
    D. A or D
    E. None of these


16. Which of the following statements is definitely true?

    A. A is facing North
    B. E is sitting opposite F
    C. F is the left of G
    D. C is to the left of A.
    E. None of these


Directions Q (17 – 21): In the following questions, the symbols c , @ ,$, % and are used with the following meanings as illustrated below:

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’
‘P Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P c Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

In each question, four statements showing relationship have
been given, which are followed by four conclusions I, II, III & IV. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true.

17. Statement: M Ⓒ D, D ★ K, K @ R, R ★ F

Conclusions: I. F c K
II. D ★ F
III. M Ⓒ R
IV. D ★ R

    A. None is true
    B. Only I is true
    C. Only II is true
    D. Only III is true
    E. Only IV is true


18. Statement: B % K, K $ T, T ★ F, H Ⓒ F

Conclusions: I. B $ T
II. T Ⓒ B
III. H Ⓒ K
IV. F Ⓒ B

    A. Only either I or II is true
    B. Only III is true
    C. Only IV is true
    D. Only III and IV are true
    E. Only either I or II and III and IV are true


19. Statement: W ★ B, B @F, F Ⓒ R, R $ M

Conclusions: I. W ★ F
II. M ★ B
III. R ★ B
IV. M ★ W

    A. Only I and IV are true
    B. Only II and III are true
    C. Only I and III are true
    D. Only II and IV are true
    E. None of these


20. Statement: E @ K, K $ T, T c N, B % N

Conclusions: I. T % E
II. K Ⓒ N
III. B ★ T
IV. B ★ E

    A. Only I, II and III are true
    B. Only II, III and IV are true
    C. Only I, III and IV are true
    D. All are true
    E. None of these


21. Statement: Z $ B, B % M, M c F, F @ R

Conclusions: I. Z ★ M
II. F ★ B
C. R ★ M
IV. M @ Z

    A. Only I, II are true
    B. Only I, III and IV are true
    C. Only III and IV are true
    D. Only I or IV and II are true
    E. None of these


Directions Q (22 – 24): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

22. Statement: All stones are poles.
All poles are desks.
Some desks are nets.
All nets are days.

Conclusions: I. Some nets are stones.
II. Some desks are stones.
III. Some days are desks.

    A. Only I and II follow
    B. Only I and III follow
    C. Only II and III follow
    D. All I, II and III follow
    E. None of these


23. Statement: Some months are weeks.
Some weeks are years.
All years are buses.
All buses are trains.

Conclusions: I. Some trains are weeks.
II. Some buses are weeks.
III. Some trains are months.

    A. Only I and II follow
    B. Only I and III follow
    C. Only II and III follow
    D. All I, II and III follow
    E. None of these


24. Statement: Some stations are rails
All rails are rivers.
All rivers are papers.
Some papers are cards.

Conclusions: I. Some cards are stations.
II. Some rivers are stations.
III. Some cards are rivers.

    A. None follows
    B. Only I follow
    C. Only II follows
    D. Only III follows
    E. Only II and III follow


Directions Q (25): Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below:

M 5 % P U 2 A $ 4 3 Z E K 1 9 Q R I @ D 7 F d 8 W N 6 # V Ⓒ J ★ Y

25. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement?

    A. U
    B. D
    C. E
    D. c
    E. None of these


Directions Q (26 – 30): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.

In a toy exhibition, a machine processes a given input by the following rule. Participants are shown one by one until it reaches its last step. Following is an illustration of the working of this machine.

Input: sui me ato fe zen u no
Step I : fe sui me no ato zen u
Step II : no fe sui u me ato zen
Step III : u no fe zen sui me ato
Step IV: zen u no ato fe sui me
Step V : ato zen u me no fe sui and so on.

Now attempt the questions given below.

26. Which of the following steps would read as ‘not you only say wise yet are’ for the input ‘say not you are only wise yet’?

    A. III
    B. V
    C. VI
    D. VII
    E. None of these


27. If Step V of input is ‘so cd rom lay is nor it’, which of the following would be its Step II?

    A. is nor it rom lay so cd
    B. nor it lay is so cd rom
    C. lay so cd it rom is nor
    D. Data inadequate
    E. None of these


28. If Step III of an input is ‘lo men chi from yet as know’, which of the following would be its input?

    A. Data inadequate
    B. from lo men know chi yet as
    C. men chi yet lo as know from
    D. chi as know men know from lo
    E. None of these


29. Which of the following correctly describes the ‘machine logic’ in generating various steps based on the given input?

    A. Each step is generated on a random basis.
    B. Words/letters are finally arranged in dictionary order.
    C. The seventh letter interchanges with the fourth every time.
    D. Data inadequate
    E. None of these


30. What will be the step IV for the following input?

Input: may sen to cry if not hell

    A. cry may sen to if not hell
    B. if not hell to cry may sen
    C. sen to if may not hell cry
    D. not hell cry if may sen to
    E. None of these


Directions Q (31 – 35): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued.

31.


32.


33.


34.


35.


36. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no change on the Internet, is called a (n)

    A. version
    B. patch
    C. tutorial
    D. FAQ
    E. None of these


37. In programming, you use the following keys

    A. Arrow keys
    B. Function keys
    C. Alpha keys
    D. Page up and Page Down keys
    E. None of these


38. A Website address is a unique name that identifies a specific _______ on the web

    A. Web browser
    B. Web site
    C. PDA
    D. link
    E. None of these


39. If you are going to a site you use often, instead of having to type in the address every time, you should

    A. save it as a file
    B. make a copy of it
    C. bookmark it
    D. delete is
    E. None of these


40. Programs designed specifically to address general purpose applications and special-purpose applications are called

    A. operating system
    B. system software
    C. application software
    D. management information systems
    E. None of these


41. An ad hoc query is a

    A. pre-planned question
    B. pre-scheduled question
    C. spur-of-the-moment question
    D. question that will not return any results
    E. None of these


42. A (n) ________ camera is a peripheral device used to capture still images in a digital format that can be easily transferred into a computer and manipulated using graphics software.

    A. digital
    B. analog
    C. classic
    D. film
    E. None of these


43. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk called

    A. configuration
    B. download
    C. storage
    D. upload
    E. None of these


44. Which is the best definition of a software package

    A. An add-on for your computer such as additional memory
    B. A set of computer programs used for a certain function such as word processing
    C. A protection you can buy for a computer
    D.The box, manual and license agreement that accompany commercial software
    E. None of these


45. What characteristic of read-only memory (ROM) makes it useful

    A. ROM information can be easily updated.
    B. ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data storage.
    C. Data in ROM is nonvolatile, that is, it remains there even without electrical power.
    D. ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of computer.
    E. None of these


Solutions: For Q(1-45)

Q1:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

We have been given
Kiran > Manoj …(i)
Dilip > Neelam …(ii)
Now, who is the youngest? We need information by which the above equations can be combined into a single equation.

From I: If Kiran > Neelam then either Manoj or Neelam will be the youngest.

From II: If Dilip > Manoj then either Manoj or Neelam be the youngest.

Hence, neither I nor II is sufficient.

Q2:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

From I:


From II:


Both the statements I and II are not independently sufficient because statement I does not say about F and statement II does not say about M.

From statement I and II together, F is the daughter of M.

But we don’t know the sex of M.

Q3:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

From I:



From II:


Q(4-6):

Member Country Sport
K China Archery
T USA Football
F France Volleyball
L Australia Athletics
J Russia Tennis
R Korea Rifle Shooting
H Japan Boxing


Q4:

Answer: Option D

Q5:

Answer: Option D

Q6:

Answer: Option A

Q7:

Answer: Option C

Q8:

Answer: Option A

Q9:

Answer: Option C

Q10:

Answer: Option A

Q11:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Since majority of the patients have responded well to the drug one wonders how some of them have witnessed deterioration in their condition.

Q(12-16):


Q12:

Answer: Option E

Q13:

Answer: Option B

Q14:

Answer: Option D

Q15:

Answer: Option C

Q16:

Answer: Option B

Q17:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

M K ….(ii), K ≤ R …(iii); R > F ….(iv)

These relationships can’t be of any help; none of the quantities can be compared on their basis.

Q18:

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

B ≥ K …(i); K = T….(ii); T > F ….(iii); H < F… (iv)

From (i) and (ii), B ≥ K = T or B ≥ T. Hence either I (B = T) or II (T < B) is true.

From (ii), (iii) and (iv), K = T, T > F > H or H < K.

Hence III follows. From (i), (ii) and (iii),

B ≥ K =T > F or F < B. Hence IV follows.

Q19:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

W > B …(i); B ≤ F …(ii); F < R …(iii); R = M …(iv)

From (ii), (iii) and (iv), B ≤ F ≤ R ≤ M = …(v)

Hence M > B and II follows. Also, R > B and III follows.

From (i) and (v). We can’t be compared either with F or with M. Hence I and IV do not follow.

Q20:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

E ≤ K …(i); K = T …(ii); T < N …(iii); B ≥ N …(iv)

Combining these, we get E ≤ K = T < N ≤ B.

Hence T ≤ E and I follow.

Again, K < N and II follow.

B > T and hence III is true.

Again, B > E and hence IV follows.

Q21:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Z = B …(i); B ≥ M …(ii); M < F…(iii); F ≤ R ……iv)

From (i) and (ii), Z = B ≥ M or Z ≥ M…(v)

Hence I (Z > M) is not definitely true but IV (M ≤ Z )is:

From (ii) and (iii), B and F can’t be compared.

Hence II does not follow.

From (iii) and (iv), M M. Hence III follows.

Q22:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

All stones are poles + All poles are desks = A + A = A

= All stones are desks → conversion → Some desks are stones (I).

Hence II follows. All stones are desks + Some desks are nets = A + I = No conclusion. Hence I do not follow. Some desks are nets + All nets are days = I + A

= I = Some desks are days → conversion → Some days are desk (I).

Hence III follows.

Q23:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Some weeks are years + All years are buses = I + A = I

= Some weeks are buses → conversion → Some buses are weeks (I). Hence II follows. Some weeks are buses + All buses are trains = I + A = I = Some weeks are trains → conversion → Some trains are weeks (I).

Hence, I follows. Some months are weeks + Some weeks are trains = I + I = No conclusion. Hence III does not follow.

Q24:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Some stations are rails + All rails are rivers = I + A = I = Some stations are rivers → conversion → Some rivers are stations (I).

Hence II follows. All rivers are papers + Some papers are cards = A + I = No conclusion.

Q25:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

\({4}^{th}\) to the left of \({6}^{th}\) to the left of W = (4 + 6) = \({10}^{th}\) to the left of W = 9

Q(26-30):

Here the rule followed is: In each step the fourth word becomes first word and the last word becomes fourth word and all other words shift one place rightwards except the third, which shifts two place rightwards. In order to make things easier, let us represent the words digitally from 1 to 7.

Then we have:

Input 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Step I 4 1 2 7 3 5 6
Step II 7 4 1 6 2 3 5
Step III 6 7 4 5 1 2 3
Step IV 5 6 7 3 4 1 2
Step V 3 5 6 3 7 4 1
Step VI 2 3 5 1 7 6 4


Q26:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Input: say not you are only wise yet
2 3 4 5 6 7

Arrangement: not you only say wise yet are

Step VI: 2 3 5 1 6 7 4

Q27:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Step V: so cd rom lay is nor it
3 5 6 2 7 4 1

Step II: 7 4 1 6 2 3 5
is nor it rom lay so cd

Q28:

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Step III: lo men chi from yet as know
6 7 4 5 1 2 3

Input: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Q29:

Answer: Option E

Q30:

Answer: Option B

Q31:

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

In the first step the upper middle shifts to middle left → lower left → upper middle while the remaining four shift one step CW in a cyclic order. In the next step the middle row elements shift from left to right in a cycle order while the remaining five shift one step CW.

Q32:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

In the first step the upper left and middle right interchange places ; so do the upper right and middle left. The remaining three elements shift one step CW. In the next step the lower-left and lower-right elements are replaced by new ones while the remaining five shift one step ACW in a cyclic order.

Q33:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

In each step the upper middle rotates by 45° CW and the lower middle rotates by 45° ACW. Among the middle-row elements two pairs interchange places while the fifth element is replaced by new one successively from the right to left, beginning from the right.

Q34:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

From fig 1 to 2: The upper left and the middle left interchange positions while the remaining five elements shift one step CW in a cyclic order.

Q35:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Follow the shifting of the elements in alternate steps.

Q36:

Answer: Option B

Q37:

Answer: Option B

Q38:

Answer: Option D

Q39:

Answer: Option C

Q40:

Answer: Option C

Q41:

Answer: Option C

Q42:

Answer: Option A

Q43:

Answer: Option C

Q44:

Answer: Option B

Q45:

Answer: Option E

Directions Q (46 – 50): These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The amount of money invested (in rupees crore ) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam, in Andhra Pradesh, is as follows:

Chittoor District Khammam District
Core Area 2014 2015 Core Area 2014 2015
Electricity 815.2 105.42 Electricity 2065.8 2365.1
Chemical 389.5 476.7 Chemical 745.3 986.4
Thermal 632.4 565.9 Thermal 1232.7 1026.3
Solar 468.1 589.6 Solar 1363.5 1792.1
Nuclear 617.9 803.1 Nuclear 1674.3 2182.1
Total 2923.1 3489.5 Total 7081.6 8352


46. By what percent was the total investment in the two districts more in 2015 as compared to that in 2014?

    A. 14%
    B. 21%
    C. 24%
    D. 18%
    E. None of these


47. Approximately how many times the total investment in Chittoor was the total investment in Khammam?

    A. 2.8
    B. 2.0
    C. 2.4
    D. 1.7
    E. None of these


48. The investment in Electricity and Thermal Energy in 2014 in these two districts formed what percent of the total investment made in that year?

    A. 41%
    B. 47%
    C. 52%
    D. 55%
    E. None of these


49. In Khammam district, the investment in which area in 2014 showed the highest percent increase over the investment made in that area in 2014?

    A. Electricity
    B. Chemical
    C. Solar
    D. Nuclear
    E. None of these


50. If the total investment in Khammam shows the same rate of increase in 2016, as it had shown from 2014 to 2015, what approximately would be the total investment in Khammam in 2016 (in Rs. crore)?

    A. 9, 850
    B. 10, 020
    C. 9, 170
    D. 8, 540
    E. None of these


Directions Q (51 – 55): Carefully and answer the questions that follow. Read the following information:

Children in a class play only one or two or all the three games badminton, football, and cricket. 5 children play only cricket, 8 children play only football and 7 children play only badminton. 3 children play only two games badminton and football, 4 children play only two games cricket and football and another 4 children play only two games badminton and cricket. 2 children play all the three games.

51. In all how many children play football?

    A. 8
    B. 17
    C. 15
    D. 14
    E. None of these


52. How many children play badminton as well as cricket?

    A. 9
    B. 10
    C. 4
    D. 6
    E. None of these


53. Total how many children are there in the class?

    A. 33
    B. 31
    C. 36
    D. 35
    E. None of these


54. In all how many children play badminton?

    A. 14
    B. 17
    C. 12
    D. 13
    E. None of these


55. How many children play badminton?

    A. 7
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 15
    E. None of these


56. 4 boys and 3 girls are to be seated in a row in such a way that no two boys sit adjacent to each other. In how many different ways can it be done?

    A. 5040
    B. 30
    C. 144
    D. 72
    E. None of these


57. Mr. ‘X’ invested certain amounts in two different schemes ‘A’ & ‘B’. Scheme ‘A’ offers simple interest at 12 p.c.a. and Scheme ‘B’ offers compound interest at 10 p.c.p.a. Interest accrued on the amount invested in Scheme A in 2 years was Rs. 3600 and the total amount invested was Rs. 35.000. What was interest accrued on the amount invested in Scheme ‘B’?

    A. Rs. 4,800
    B. Rs. 4,200
    C. Rs. 4,000
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


58. 12 men take 36 days to do a work while 12 women complete \(\frac{3}{4}th\) of the same work in 36 days. In how many days 10 men and 8 women together will complete the same work?

    A. 6
    B. 27
    C. 12
    D. Data inadequate
    E. None of these


59. A grocer purchased 2 kg.of rice at the rate of Rs. 15 per kg. and 3 kg. of rice at the rate of Rs. 13 per kg. At what price per kg. should he sell the mixture to earn 1
33\(\frac{1}{3}\) % profit on the cost price
?

    A. Rs. 28.00
    B. Rs. 20.00
    C. Rs. 18.40
    D. Rs. 17.40
    E. None of these


60. A boat takes 6 hours to travel from place M to N downstream and back from N to M upstream. If the speed of the boat in still water is 4 km./hr., what is the distance between the two places?

    A. 8 km.
    B. 12 km.
    C. 6 km.
    D. Data inadequate
    E. None of these


Directions Q (61 – 65): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements denoted A, B and C are given below it. You have to study the questions and all the three statements are decide whether the question can be answered with any one or two of the statements or all the statements are required to answer the question.

61. What is R’s share of profit in a joint venture?
A. Q started business investing Rs. 80,000/-
B. R joined him after 3 months.
C. P joined after 4 months with a capital of Rs. 1,20,000 and got Rs. 6,000 as his share of profit.

    A. Only A and C are required
    B. Only B and C are required
    C. All A, B and C together are required
    D. Even with all A, B, and C, the answer cannot be arrived
    E. None of these


62. What is the area of a right-angled triangle?
A. The perimeter of the triangle is 30 cm.
B. The ratio between the base and the height of the triangle is 5: 12.
C. The area of the triangle is equal to the area of a rectangle of length 10 cms.

    A. Only B and C together are required
    B. Only A and B together are required
    C. Only either A or B and C together are required.
    D. Only A and C together are required
    E. None of these


63. What will be the sum of two numbers?
A. Among the two numbers, the bigger number is greater then the smaller number by 6.
B. 40% of the smaller number is equal to 30% of the bigger number.
C. The ratio between half of the bigger number and \({1}{3}rd\) of the smaller number is 2: 1.

    A. Only B and C together are necessary
    B. Only A and B together are necessary
    C. Out of A, B, and C, and two together are necessary
    D. All three A, B, and C together are necessary
    E. None of these


64. How much profit did Mahesh earn on the cost price of an article by selling it?
A. He got 15% discount on the market price at the time of purchase.
B. He sold it for Rs. 3060.
C. He earned 2% profit on the marked price.

    A. Only A and B both together are necessary.
    B. Only B and C both together are necessary.
    C. Only A or C and B together are necessary.
    D. Even A, B and C all together are not sufficient to answer the question.
    E. All three A, B and C together are necessary.


65. How many marks did Arun secure in English?
A. The average marks obtained by Arun in four subjects included English is 60.
B. The total marks obtained by him in English and Mathematics together is 170.
C. The total marks obtained by him in Mathematics and Science together is 180.

    A. All three A, B and C together are necessary.
    B. Only A and B together are necessary
    C. Only B and C together are necessary.
    D. Only A and C together are necessary.
    E. None of these


Directions Q (66 – 70): Refer to the pie-chart given below and answer the questions that follow:

Operating Profit 160 lakh



2014-2015


Operating Profit 130 lakh



2013-2014


66. The operating profit in 2014-15 increased over that in 2013- 14 by

    A. 23%
    B. 22%
    C. 25%
    D. 24%
    E. None of these


67. The Interest burden in 2014-15 was higher than that in 2013-14 by

    A. 50%
    B. 25 lakh
    C. 90%
    D. 41 lakh
    E. None of these


68. If, on an average, 20% rate of interest was charged on borrowed funds, then the total borrowed funds used by this company in the given two years amounted to ….

    A. 221 lakh
    B. 195 lakh
    C. 368 lakh
    D. 515 lakh
    E. None of these


69. The retained profit in 2014-15, as compared to that in 2013-14 was

    A. higher by 2.5%
    B. higher by 1.5%
    C. lower by 2.5%
    D. lower by 1.5%
    E. None of these


70. The equity base of these companies remained unchanged. Then the total dividend earning (in lakh rupees) by the share holders in 2014-15 is

    A. 10.4 lakh
    B. 9 lakh
    C. 12.8 lakh
    D. 15.6 lakh
    E. None of these


Directions Q (71 – 75): Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Percent profit made by two companies over the years

Percent Profit = \(\frac{Income – Expenditure}{Expenditure}\) x 100


71. If in the year 2010 the expenditure incurred by Company A and B were the same, what was the ratio of the income of Company A to that of Company B in that year?

    A. 27 : 28
    B. 14 : 23
    C. 13 : 19
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


72. If the amount of profit earned by Company A in the year 2013 was Rs. 1.5 lakhs, what was it expenditure it that year?

    A. Rs. 1.96 lakhs
    B. Rs. 2.64 lakhs
    C. Rs. 1.27 lakhs
    D. Rs. 3.75 lakhs
    E. None of these


73. What is the average percent profit earned by Company B over all the years together?

    A. 19
    B. 24
    C. 12
    D. 37
    E. None of these


74. If in the year 2014, the incomes of both the companies A and B were the same, what was the ratio of the expenditure of Company A to the expenditure of Company B in that
year
?

    A. 21 : 25
    B. 7 : 9
    C. 13 : 15
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


75. What is the ratio of the amount of profit earned by Company A to that by company B in the year 2015?

    A. 2 : 3
    B. 4 : 7
    C. 11 : 15
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


Directions Q (76 – 80): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Percentage of employees in various departments of an
organization and these male-female ratio
Total No. of Employees = 2500



Ratio– Male : Female


Department Male : Female
Administration 7 : 5
Accounts 2 : 3
HR 5 : 3
Marketing 7 : 8
HR 3 : 4
Operations 5 : 4
Logistics 6 :5
Printing 2 : 1


75. What is the ratio of the amount of profit earned by Company A to that by company B in the year 2015?

    A. 2 : 3
    B. 4 : 7
    C. 11: 15
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


76. What is the ratio of male employees in Administration to those in the Printing Department?

    A. 7 : 4
    B. 4 : 7
    C. 3 : 4
    D. 7 : 3
    E. None of these


77. What is the difference between the total number of employees in IT and that in Operations Department?

    A. 75
    B. 150
    C. 100
    D. 50
    E. None of these


78. What is the ratio of the total number of males in HR and Marketing to the total number of females in these two departments?

    A. 13 : 15
    B. 15 : 13
    C. 13 : 17
    D. 17 : 14
    E. None of these


79. How many female employees are there in the HR Departments?

    A. 250
    B. 120
    C. 125
    D. 150
    E. None of these


80. What is the difference between the numbers of male and female employees in the Logistics Department?

    A. 50
    B. 25
    C. 75
    D. 100
    E. None of these


Solutions: For Q(46-80)

Q46:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Total investment in 2014 = 2923.1 + 7081.6 = 10004.7

Total investment in 2015 = 3489.5 + 8352.0 = 11,841.5

∴ % increase = \(\frac{11841.5 – 10,004.7}{10,004.7}\) x 100 = 18.36 %

Q47:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Total investment in Chittor = 6412.6

Total investment in Khammam = 15433.6

∴ \(\frac{4746.1}{Total investment in Chittor}\)

Q48:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Investment in electricity & thermal energy in 2014 in two districts = 815.2 + 632.4 + 2065.8 +1232.7

= 4746.1

% in terms of total investment

∴ \(\frac{Total investment in Khammam}{10,004.7}\) X 100 = 47.43%

Q49:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

% increase in Khammam district in the area of

Electricity = \(\frac{2365.1 – 2065.8}{2065.8}\) X 100 = 14.5%

Chemical = \(\frac{986.4 – 745.3}{745.3}\) X 100 = 32.34%

Solar = \(\frac{1792.1 – 1363.5}{1363.5}\) X 100 = 31.43%

Nuclear = \(\frac{2182.1 – 1674.3}{1674.3}\) X 100 = 30.32%

Hence highest increase is in the area of chemical

Q50:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

% increase in investment from 2014 to 2015

\(\frac{8352 – 7081.6}{7081.6}\) = 17.93%

∴ Total investment in 2016 = 1.1793 × 8352

= Rs. 9850 crores

Q(51 – 55):

Venn-Diagram for questions


Q51:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Number of football players = 3 + 2 + 4 + 8 = 17

Q52:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Number of badminton as well as cricket players = 4 + 2 = 6

Q53:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Number of children = 7 + 3 + 2 + 4 + 8 + 4 + 5 = 33

Q54:

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Number of badminton players = 7 + 3 + 2 + 4 = 16.

Q55:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Number of football as well as cricket players = 2 + 4 = 6

Q56:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

3 girls can be seated in a row in 3! ways. Now, in the 4 gaps 4 boys can be seated in 4! ways. Hence, the number of ways in which no two boys sit adjacent to each other.

= 3! × 4! = 6 × 24 = 144

Q57:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Let the amount invested in scheme A be Rs. x.

∴ \(\frac{x × 12 × 2}{100}\) = 3600 ⇒ x = \(\frac{3600 × 100}{24}\) = Rs. 15000

Total investment = Rs. 35,000

∴ Amount invested in scheme B. = Rs. (35000 – 15000) = Rs. 20000

∴ C.I. = P {[1 + \(\frac{R}{100}]^T – 1 \)} = 2000 {[1 + \(\frac{10}{100}]^2 – 1 \)}

= 20000 (1.21 – 1) = 2000 × 0.21 = Rs. 4200

Q58:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

In 36 days 12 men can do 1 complete work.

In 36 days 12 women can do \({3}{4}th\) of the work.

Since time and the no. of persons is the same in both cases.

Since time and the no. of persons is the same in both cases.

1 woman’s daily work = \({3}{4}th\) of 1 man’s daily work

8 women’s daily work = \({3}{4}th\) x 8 = Rs. 6 men’s daily work

(10 men + 8 womens daily work) = (10 men + 6 men)

= 16 men’s daily work

∴12 men can do the work in 36 x \(\frac{12}{6}\)days = 27 days.

Q59:

Answer: Option C

Q60:

Answer: Option D

Q61:

Answer: Option D

Q62:

Answer: Option B

Q63:

Answer: Option B

Q64:

Answer: Option E

Q65:

Answer: Option E

Q66:

Answer: Option A

Q67:

Answer: Option B

Q68:

Answer: Option D

Q69:

Answer: Option D

Q70:

Answer: Option C

Q71:

Answer: Option A

Q72:

Answer: Option D

Q73:

Answer: Option E

Q74:

Answer: Option C

Q75:

Answer: Option D

Q76:

Answer: Option A

Q77:

Answer: Option C

Q78:

Answer: Option D

Q79:

Answer: Option D

Q80:

Answer: Option B
Directions(81-90): In the following questions a paragraph is given. Read the paragraph carefully and answer the questions which follow each of this paragraph.

The greatest consequences of the atmosphere crisis may be global warming and ozone depletion. The Earth appears to be warming due to the greenhouse effect. Scientists estimate that the average temperature could climb about 2 degrees Celsius in 20 years. Global warming is the predicted result of the greenhouse effect, created by greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide and methane, in the atmosphere. This change in the global climate would have disastrous results, including drought, coastal flooding, and increased species extinction. Also, scientists have discovered a hole in the ozone layer. The ozone layer is the only protection for life on Earth against deadly ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Once the ozone layer is completely destroyed, all life on Earth will cease to exist, killed by the deadly radiation. The planet will become a barren rock devoid of all life. And when this happens the process of industrialization would have to take the blame which has resulted in increased use of fossil fuels such as coal, petroleum, and diesel.

81. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage
A. The use of all chemical products should be immediately stopped.
B. Scientists will have a hard time to estimate the rate of change of temperature in the years to come due to enormous changes in the environment.
C. The environmental disaster in the future will happen as a result of increased usage of fossil fuels.

    A. Only A
    B. Only C
    C. Both A and C
    D. Both B and C
    E. None of these


82. Which of the following best explains the usage of the phrase ‘brewing a disastrous stewl

    A. The continuous rise in Earth’s temperature has proved to be very dangerous.
    B. Lack of efforts to curb the greenhouse effects would degrade the environment in the near future.
    C. The harmful ultraviolet radiations are slowly destroying life on Earth.
    D. The fraternity of scientists has been opposing the process of industrialization.
    E. The increased discharge of chemicals in the air is resulting in an atmosphere crisis.

    Fashion has become one of the largest fads among the youth. The amount of time wastage and expenditure on fashion is very large. What bothers, however, is the fact that fashion is here
    to stay despite countless arguments against it. What is required, therefore, is that strong efforts should be made in order to displace the excessive craze of fashion from the minds of today’s youth.


83. Which of the following statements finds the least support by the argument made by the author in the given paragraph

    A. Youngsters should be motivated to do constructive business rather than wasting time on fashion.
    B. The world of fashion is glamorous and glittery attracts people towards itself.
    C. Following the latest fashion increases the self-efficacy of people, thus increasing their overall mental abilities.
    D. Many universities have implemented a dress code to put a check on the increasing fad amongst the youth which was affecting their grades.
    E. None of these


84. Which of the following can be inferred from the given paragraph

    A. The author has made strong efforts to wipe out fashion from the minds of youth.
    B. Steps need to be taken in order to control the growing fad of fashion amongst the youth.
    C. The author is upset with the shift” of fashion from the traditional ethnic wear to western outfits.
    D. The fashion world is responsible for the lack of creativity among the youth.
    E. None of these

    The government cannot afford to compartmentalize education. It has to be emphasized that any country which does not have a good university education will never be listed as an independent country and will never be able to progress. Only countries prepared to tolerate a second rate and subjugate status in the world would neglect higher education. If India had any position in the comity of nations in the past, it was only because it had a better higher education than many of its Asian counterparts. This clear emphasis on higher education, however, does not imply that it should be supported and developed at the cost of primary and secondary education.


85. Which of the following best explains the main idea of the paragraph

    A. The government has made a wrong move in compartmentalizing education.
    B. To highlight the superiority of India in higher education as compared to the rest of the world
    C. To emphasize more on primary education rather than higher education
    D. Higher education is important for the growth of a country.
    E. None of these


86. Which of the following is the most likely title of the bigger passage (having the same main idea as that of the given paragraph) in which this paragraph might have appeared

    A. Education—a fundamental right of every child
    B. Indian education—unfortunate neglect of primary education
    C. Lack of higher education opportunities in India
    D. A comparison of higher education in India with that of the west
    E. Importance of higher education in the growth of a country

    Although an eco-friendly process and one of the main ways to save the environment, recycling is not gaining pace in the industry. The process of recycling undergoes many processes.
    First is collecting and sorting of garbage. This requires a lot of manpower and tools which are expensive. Another disadvantage of recycling which makes it unviable is that for the manufacturers, economically, the recycled material is not highly demanded since its quality is not as good as the original material. So if the marketing of recycled goods is not worthwhile, then the whole process of recycling cannot be economically efficient. Recycled products face other disadvantages as well, such as short shelf life, difficulty in drinking dyed products and less durability.


87. The author has listed the disadvantages of recycling to

    A. explain the reason why recycling is not a popular option besides having various positive effects on the environment
    B. give arguments to support the stopping of the process of recycling completely
    C. predict the effects of stoppage of recycling on the environment
    D. show that there are better options than recycling available for utilization
    E. None of these


88. Why is the marketing of recycled products not worthwhile, according to the author?
(A) The original products are being sold at a much lower price as compared to the recycled products.
(B) The overall effect of recycling on the environment is detrimental rather than beneficial.
(C) It does not give appropriate economic returns since recycled products lack demand in the market.

    A. Only A
    B. Both B and C
    C. Only C
    D. Both A and B
    E. None of these

    Human civilization stands on an edge of destiny. It lies today on the mercy of nuclear weapons, which have the power to destroy us completely lest controlled wisely. In such a crisis situation, it is important to develop sensitivity towards the basic values of life. It includes an explicit realization that humans swim in an ocean where they must swim together and sink together. At this juncture, a single rotten fish would damage the ocean as a whole. Man cannot afford to tamper with his loyalty to peace and international understanding, which is the
    only way to deal with the situation. Anyone who does so, dooms the entire past, present and the future of the human civilization.


89. What, according to the author, should be done to avoid the destruction of life by nuclear weapons?

    A. Ban the use of nuclear weapons throughout the world
    B. Enforce stricter laws and boycotts against the nations using nuclear weapons
    C. Generate more awareness regarding the harm of using nuclear weapons
    D. Work towards international harmony and understanding
    E. None of these


90. Which of the following can be inferred from the given paragraph?
(A) Nuclear war, one day or the other, is poised to end the human civilization.
(B) It is not possible for the countries to exist in unison regardless of what happens in other countries.
(C) Unless all the nuclear weapons on earth are destroyed, peace cannot be restored.

    A. Only A
    B. Only B
    C. Only B and C
    D. Only A and C
    E. None of these


Directions(91-100): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case. The barter system for getting goods and services (91) back many centuries. In most cultures, the barter system was used before money was (92). People who had specific items or services would (93) these with others for the things they needed. Good negotiation was the (94) to make good trades. While the barter system (95) based on basic needs, today the barter system continues to thrive. The barter system transcends the monetary system. The barter system is making a (96) today. What makes the barter system even better today than ever before is that it can now be done globally. In the past, bartering was simply done with those that were located nearby. Today, the barter system can be used in a much more (97) way than ever before yet it carries with it the same basic motivation – the need for something that you don’t have and the excess of something that someone else wants. The barter system is enjoying (98) interest today. Bartering allows you to get the things you need without having to (99) additional money. Instead, you can use the things you no longer need or want to get the things you do need. There are swap markets and online auctions that (100) you to sell or trade your items or to purchase items that you want. Negotiation takes place just like it did hundreds of years ago.

91.

    A. discovered
    B. dates
    C. began
    D. started
    E. initiated


92.

    A. bought
    B. imagined
    C. began
    D. emerged
    E. invented


93.

    A. buy
    B. sell
    C. exchange
    D. give
    E. return


94.

    A. important
    B. essential
    C. result
    D. key
    E. intention


95.

    A. originated
    B. stood
    C. generated
    D. created
    E. produced


96.

    A. issue
    B. comeback
    C. withdrawal
    D. recall
    E. fading


97.

    A. primitive
    B. appreciated
    C. promoted
    D. sophisticated
    E. better


98.

    A. diminishing
    B. revival
    C. perishing
    D. declining
    E. renewed


99.

    A. expend
    B. exchanging
    C. expand
    D. consume
    E. cost


100.

    A. insist
    B. force
    C. allow
    D. lure
    E. constraint


Directions(101-105): Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
A. A legal framework is thus now available for promoting energy efficiency in all sectors of the economy.
B. The increasing preference for commercial energy has led to a sharp increase in the demand for electricity and fossil fuels.
C. There is still a considerable potential for repairing such damage and reducing energy consumption by adopting energy-efficiency measures at various sectors of our country.
D. This framework is nothing but the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, the success of which greatly depends on the people who take the lead in supporting this programme.
E. This use of fossil fuels has resulted in the emission of a huge quantity of carbon dioxide causing serious environmental damage.
F. These adopted measures will not only reduce the need to create new capacity requiring high investment but also result in substantial environmental benefits.

101. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. E


102. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement

    A. E
    B. F
    C. A
    D. D
    E. B


103. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement

    A. B
    B. C
    C. D
    D. E
    E. F


104. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. E


105. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. E


Directions(106-110): In each of these sentences, parts of the sentence are numbered (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). One of these parts has some error in it. The error may be either of spelling or grammar or wrong word or unnecessary word etc. The letter of the part that contains the error is the answer.

106.

    A. My only concern
    B. is that
    C. at this juncture
    D. communal sentiments are rather
    E. heightened up-wardly.


107.

    A. However,
    B. this division
    C. of power is not quiet
    D. as neat as it may
    E. appear at first.


108.

    A. He strongly felt that
    B. that explanation
    C. which was given
    D. during the meeting
    E. was not at all truth.


109.

    A. We decided to
    B. dedicate this article on the women
    C. who have been instrumental in
    D. training generations of
    E. young girls to create a healthy/ atmosphere?


110.

    A. When the opportunity came
    B. it appeared
    C. in a different form
    D. and from a different
    E. direction then he had expected.


Directions(111-115): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

111. Behaving in a ________ and serious way, even in a ________ situation, makes people respect you

    A. calm, difficult
    B. steady, angry
    C. flamboyant, tricky
    D. cool, astounding
    E. silly, sound


112. Along with a sharp rise in, ________ a recession would eventually result in more men, women and children living in ________

    A. crime, apathy
    B. fatalities, poor
    C. deaths, slums
    D. unemployment, poverty
    E. migrations, streets


113. The government has to provide financial aid to the ones ________ by severe floods in the city

    A. desired, troubled
    B. promised, havoc
    C. failed, affected
    D. wanted, struck
    E. decided, ill


114. An airplane with ________ passengers on board made an unscheduled ________ as the airport to which it was heading was covered with thick log

    A. irritable, slip
    B. faulty, stop
    C. variety, halt
    D. tons, wait
    E. numerous, landing


115. Deemed universities ________ huge fees, but have not been successful in providing ________ education to our students

    A. collect, maintaining
    B. pay, better
    C. ask, good
    D. charge, quality
    E. demand, quantitative


Solutions: For Q(81-115)

Q81:

Answer: Option B

Q82:

Answer: Option E

Q83:

Answer: Option C

Q84:

Answer: Option B

Q85:

Answer: Option D

Q86:

Answer: Option E

Q87:

Answer: Option E

Q88:

Answer: Option C

Q89:

Answer: Option D

Q90:

Answer: Option A

Q91:

Answer: Option B

Q92:

Answer: Option E

Q93:

Answer: Option C

Q94:

Answer: Option D

Q95:

Answer: Option A

Q96:

Answer: Option B

Q97:

Answer: Option D

Q98:

Answer: Option E

Q99:

Answer: Option A

Q100:

Answer: Option C

Q101:

Answer: Option B

Q102:

Answer: Option B

Q103:

Answer: Option D

Q104:

Answer: Option D

Q105:

Answer: Option A

Q106:

Answer: Option E

Q107:

Answer: Option C

Q108:

Answer: Option E

Q109:

Answer: Option B

Q110:

Answer: Option E

Q111:

Answer: Option A

Q112:

Answer: Option D

Q113:

Answer: Option C

Q114:

Answer: Option E

Q115:

Answer: Option D

116. The book entitled The Wrong Enemy: America in Afghanistan, 2001-2014 has been written by

    A. Carlotta Gall
    B. Neville Maxwell
    C. Henderson Brooks
    D. Lindsay Williams
    E. None of these


117. Saraswati Samman is an annual award and is given in recognition of outstanding prose or poetry literary works in Indian languages that are listed in Schedule VII of the constitution of India. The award is given by which institution

    A. Sahitya Akademi
    B. National Integrity Cultural Academy
    C. Kalakshetra
    D. K. K. Birla Foundation
    E. None of these


118. When was Earth Hour Observed

    A. March 22
    B. April 1
    C. March 29
    D. March 31
    E. None of these


119. Which of the following statements is correct

    A. Interest payable on the savings bank account is not regulated by the RBI.
    B. Interest payable on the savings bank account is regulated by the Ministry of Finance.
    C. Interest payable on saving bank account is regulated by the State Government.
    D. Interest payable on the savings bank account is regulated by the Indian Banks’ Association.
    E. None of these


120. Which of the following best defines a mortgage

    A. It is a movable or liquid asset that a borrower offers a lender to secure a loan.
    B. It is a security of immovable property for a deposit received by a bank.
    C. It is a debt instrument that is secured by the collateral of specified movable property.
    D. It is a debt instrument that is secured by the collateral of specified immovable property.
    E. None of these


121. Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct with respect to current accounts

    A. Cheques are not issued against current accounts
    B. There is no restriction on the number of transactions in the current accounts.
    C. Normally no interest is paid on current accounts.
    D. Both (A) and (B)
    E. Both (B) and (C)


122. Which organization regulates Mutual Funds in India

    A. SEBI
    B. RBI
    C. Ministry of Finance, Govt of India
    D. IRDA
    E. None of these


123. In which of the following years did the government of India devalue its currency twice

    A. 1949
    B. 1966
    C. 1991
    D. 1949 and 1991
    E. 1993


124. What does the acronym LAF stand for

    A. Liquidity Adjustment Fund
    B. Liquidity Adjustment Facility
    C. Liquidity Adjustment Finance
    D. Liquidity Adjustment Factor
    E. None of these


125. Which of the following market structures has a kinked Demand Curve

    A. Perfect competition
    B. Monopoly
    C. Oligopoly
    D. Monopolistic competition
    E. None of these


126. Market information means

    A. knowledge of companies
    B. cross- country information
    C. knowledge of related markets
    D. knowledge of current customers
    E. None of these


127. Efficient marketing style requires

    A. proper planning
    B. good communication skills
    C. team work
    D. knowledge of the products
    E. All of these


128. Effective communication is not required in marketing if __

    A. Demand exceeds supply
    B. Supply exceeds demand
    C. Buyer is illiterate
    D. Seller is illiterate
    E. All of these


129. Social Marketing refers to _____

    A. Share market prices
    B. Marketing to the entire society
    C. Internet Marketing
    D. Marketing for a social cause
    E. Society bye-laws


130. Sole aim of marketing is to ____

    A. Increase sales
    B. Increase the number of workers
    C. Increase profits
    D. Increase production
    E. All of these


131. Consumer Day is celebrated on ____

    A. 15th March
    B. 16th March
    C. 20th April
    D. 20th March
    E. None of these


132. Financial inclusion means the provision of_

    A. Financial services namely payments, remittances, savings, loans, and insurance at an affordable cost to persons not yet given the bank
    B. A ration at an affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
    C. House at an affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
    D. The food at an affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
    E. Education at an affordable cost to persons not yet given the same


133. An ECS transaction gets bounced and you are unable to recover your money from your customer. Under which Act criminal action can be initiated

    A. Indian Penal Code
    B. Negotiable Instrument Act
    C. Criminal Procedure Code
    D. Payment and Settlement Act
    E. Indian Contract Act


134. Which of the following terms is used in the field of finance and banking

    A. Metabolism
    B. Genetic process
    C. Centrifugal force
    D. Debt instrument
    E. Experimental error


135. The term ‘moral suasion’ refers to

    A. The moral duty of a borrower to deal with only one bank
    B. The advice is given by the Reserve Bank of India to banks/financial institutions in the matter of an heir lending and other operations with the objective that they might implement or follow it
    C. The banker’s duty of secrecy as regards the affairs and accounts of his customers
    D. All of the above
    E. None of these


136. Which one of the following is not a money market instrument?

    A. Repo
    B. A negotiable Certificate of Deposit
    C. Commercial paper
    D. A Treasury Bill
    E. Treasury Bond


137. Land Development Banks provide long-term credit for schemes of basic importance to agriculture as?

    A. mechanization of agriculture i.e., loans for purposes of tractors, power tillers, threshers, etc
    B. land reclamation, soil conservation, plantation of fruit orchards, dairy development schemes, etc. involving heavy expenditure
    C. minor irrigation purposes like wells, dug-cum-bore wells, tube wells, pump sets, and irrigation tanks
    D. None of these
    E. All of the above


138. From which of the following financial organizations of the world, India had taken a soft loan for recapitalization of banks?

    A. Asian Development Bank
    B. International Monetary Fund
    C. International Donors’ Group
    D. World Bank
    E. Bank of China


139. Through which of the following the funds to the projects aided by the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) are distributed?

    A. Regional Branches of RBI
    B. NABARD
    C. Integrated Rural Development Programme
    D. Agriculture Refinance and Development Corporation
    E. Ministry of Finance


140. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market?

    A. Bill Market
    B. Call Money Market
    C. Banks
    D. Mutual Funds
    E. Indian Gold Council


141. Union Budget which is presented every year in the parliament is also known as?

    A. Annual Budget
    B. Common Budget
    C. General Budget
    D. Finance Report of the year
    E. Statement of Allocation of funds


142. Which of the following terms is NOT used in Banking/ Finance related matters?

    A. Discount Rate
    B. Letter of Credit
    C. Cheque Clearing
    D. General Ledger
    E. Law of Motion


143. Which of the following organizations/agencies works solely to monitor and arrange the flow of agriculture credit in India?

    A. NABARD
    B. SIDBI
    C. RBI
    D. SEBI
    E. None of these


144. Foreign currencies are represented in various abbreviations. What is meant by USD?

    A. UAE Dinar
    B. US Dollar
    C. Unit of Currency of Denmark
    D. Ukrainian Soviet Dollar
    E. None of these


145. What is the sum set aside for providing innovation grants to employees, start-ups and small businesses to support internal and external innovation, as per the Rail Budget 2016-2017?

    A. 20 crores
    B. 60 crores
    C. 5.6 crores
    D. 50 crores
    E. None of these


146. Suresh Prabhu in the Rail Budget 2016-2017 set a target to eliminate all unmanned level crossings by which year?

    A. 2017
    B. 2018
    C. 2019
    D. 2020
    E. None of these


147. As per the Rail Budget 2016-2017, the capacity of e- ticketing system will be enhanced from 2000 tickets/min to?

    A. 7200 tickets/min
    B. 5000 tickets/min
    C. 6400 tickets/min
    D. 3200 tickets/min
    E. None of these


148. How many stores will be opened under the Prime Minister’s Jan Aushadhi Yojana during 2016-17?

    A. 1000
    B. 2000
    C. 3000
    D. 4000
    E. None of these


149. Name the proposed programme that will be started under National Health Mission through public-private partner- ship mode to provide dialysis services to renal patients in all-district hospitals across the country?

    A. National Services Programme for Renal Patients
    B. National Dialysis Programme
    C. National Dialysis Services Project
    D. National Dialysis Services Programme
    E. None of these


150. Recently, India signed the Kamov helicopter deal, with which country

    A. Israel
    B. Russia
    C. Ukraine
    D. France
    E. None of these


151. Who is the incumbent Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)

    A. Christine Lagarde
    B. Dominique Strauss-Kahn
    C. Ban Ki-moon
    D. Jim Yong Kim
    E. None of these


152. ‘Kakrapara Atomic Power Station’ is located in which state of India

    A. Gujarat
    B. Karnataka
    C. Maharashtra
    D. Rajasthan
    E. None of these


153. Which one of the following tennis tournaments is the first to start the International Grand Slam in the tennis history

    A. Australian open
    B. French open
    C. Wimbledon open
    D. US open
    E. None of these


154. Which of the following is NOT decided by the Finance Minister while presenting Union Budget every year

    A. Rate of Income Tax
    B. Expenditure of Defense Services
    C. Relief packages to various sections of the society
    D. Repo & Reverse Repo rates
    E. Revenue Expected from various sources


155. The rate of MAT is changed almost in every budget. What is the full form of MAT

    A. Maximum Alternate Tax
    B. Minimum Alternate Tax
    C. Minimum Affordable Tax
    D. Maximum Affordable Tax
    E. None of the above


Solutions: For Q(116-155)

Q116:

Answer: Option A

Q117:

Answer: Option D

Q118:

Answer: Option C

Q119:

Answer: Option A

Q120:

Answer: Option D

Q121:

Answer: Option A

Q122:

Answer: Option A

Q123:

Answer: Option C

Q124:

Answer: Option B

Q125:

Answer: Option C

Q126:

Answer: Option C

Q127:

Answer: Option E

Q128:

Answer: Option E

Q129:

Answer: Option D

Q130:

Answer: Option A

Q131:

Answer: Option A

Q132:

Answer: Option A

Q133:

Answer: Option D

Q134:

Answer: Option D

Q135:

Answer: Option B

Q136:

Answer: Option E

Q137:

Answer: Option E

Q138:

Answer: Option D

Q139:

Answer: Option D

Q140:

Answer: Option E

Q141:

Answer: Option C

Q142:

Answer: Option E

Q143:

Answer: Option A

Q144:

Answer: Option B

Q145:

Answer: Option D

Q146:

Answer: Option D

Q147:

Answer: Option A

Q148:

Answer: Option C

Q149:

Answer: Option D

Q150:

Answer: Option B

Q151:

Answer: Option A

Q152:

Answer: Option A

Q153:

Answer: Option C

Q154:

Answer: Option C

Q155:

Answer: Option B