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SBI CLERK Mains Practice Quiz

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SBI CLERK Mains Practice Quiz

shape Introduction

Career in Banking is one of the most lucrative and most sought after careers. In India, Bank Recruitment Exams are primarily conducted for recruitment of Probationary Officers, Clerks & Specialist Officers. India currently[2019] has 93 commercial and 27 public sector banks out of which 19 are nationalized and 6 are SBI and its associate banks and rest two are IDBI Bank and Bharatiya Mahila Bank, which are categorized as other public sector banks. Recruitment for Bank Probationary Officers, Management Trainees, Clerks and for various other posts generally follow a 3 step recruitment process: Preliminary Exam + Mains Exam + Interview & Group Discussion. The article SBI CLERK Mains Practice Quiz presents a practice set for the most sought after SBI CLERK recruitment. Until the year 2013, All Public Sector Banks used to conduct their own entrance test, GDs and Personal Interview for recruiting candidates. However, after 2014, IBPS started conducting recruitment Tests for 12 PSU Banks. SBI holds a separate entrance test for recruitment.

Mains exams are very important to clear every government sector or bank related recruitment process in India. Only those candidates who are selected in the Mains round are allowed to move further up in the recruitment process. The marks obtained in the Mains exams are considered for the final merit list. Mains exams usually consist of 4 sections, with 155 questions with a time duration of 3 hours. Mains exams most certainly have negative marking.

shape Quiz

1. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘K ≤ H’ and ‘M > J’ definitely true?
H ≥ I = J ? K H 3 I = J ? K ≤ L < M L < M


    A. >
    B. 3
    C. ≤
    D. Either < or ≤
    E. =


2. In which of the following expression will the expression ‘P > S’ be definitely false?

    A. P > Q ≥ R = S
    B. S ≤ R ≤ Q < P
    C. R = P > Q ≥ S
    D. S > Q ≥ R < P
    E. S < Q ≤ R < P


Directions Q (3 -7): In a certain instruction system the different computation processor written as follows:

(i) x $ y % z means z is multiplied by the sum of x and y.
(ii) x # y * z means that when y is subtracted from x and the resultant is divided by z.
(iii) x @ y Ó z means x is added to the resultant when y is divided by z.
(iv) x · y l z means x is subtracted from the product of y and z.

In each of the questions below, a set of instruction sequence is given. You are required to find out the outcome which should come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the given sets of sequence.

3. (i) 20 # 10 * 2 = m
(ii) m · 6 l 4 = ?


    A. 19
    B. 29
    C. 4
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


4. (i) 60 $ 20 % 4 = n
(ii) 8 @ n ⓒ 10 = ?


    A. 20
    B. 40
    C. 10
    D. 60
    E. None of these


5. (i) 15 · 12 l 5 = p
(ii) 4 $ 12 % p =


    A. 720
    B. 228
    C. 108
    D. 93
    E. None of these


6. (i) 16 @ 12 ⓒ 8 = z
(ii) z # 20 · 8 =


    A. 240
    B. 80
    C. 120
    D. Can not be determined
    E. None of these


7. (i) 80 · 15 l 8 = t
(ii) t $ 5 % 8 =


    A. 40 # 40 * 10
    B. 40 $ 40 % 10
    C. 40 @ 40 ⓒ 10
    D. 40 · 40 l 10
    E. None of these


Directions Q (8 – 12): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: day 74 night 36 25 68 all for

Step I: all day 74 night 36 25 68 for

Step II: all 74 day night 36 25 68 for

Step III: all 74 day 68 night 36 25 for

Step IV: all 74 day 68 for night 36 25

Step V: all 74 day 68 for 36 night 25

and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

8. Step III of an input : bond 86 goal 12 33 like high 46.

Which of the following will be step VII?

    A. bond 86 goal 46 like 12 33 high.
    B. bond 86 goal 46 high 33 12
    C. bond 86 goal 46 high 33 like 12.
    D. There will be no such step.
    E. None of these


9. Input: mind new 27 35 19 59 own tower.

Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

    A. VI
    B. IV
    C. V
    D. VII
    E. None of these


10. Step IV of an input: dear 63 few 51 16 29 yrs now.

How many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement?

    A. Four
    B. Five
    C. Three
    D. Two
    E. None of these


11. Step II of an input is: car 73 18 18 25 wear 49 long for which of the following is definitely the input?

    A. 18 25 wear 49 long for car 73
    B. 73 18 car 25 wear 49 long for
    C. 18 73 25 car wear 49 long for
    D. Cannot be determined
    E. None of these


12. Input: was 52 and peace 43 16 now 24.

How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

    A. Four
    B. Five
    C. Six
    D. Seven
    E. None of these


Directions Q (13 – 15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

The successful man has the ability to judge himself correctly.
(A) Inability to judge correctly causes failure.
(B) To judge others is of no use to a successful man.
(C) The successful man cannot make a wrong judgment.
(D) Hard-working is the key to success.
(E) A successful man cannot judge others.
(F) A successful man does not look into the future.

13. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) is implicit in the information given above?

    A. Only (A)
    B. Only (B)
    C. Only (C)
    D. ONly (D)
    E. (A), (B ) and (C)


14. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) is the cause of success?

    A. Only (A)
    B. Only (B)
    C. Only (C)
    D. Only (D)
    E. None of the above


15. Which of the following (C), (D), (E) and (F) is a weak the argument in favor of a successful man?

    A. Only (C)
    B. Only (D)
    C. Only (E)
    D. Only (F)
    E. Both (E) and (F)


16. Whether we look at the intrinsic value of our literature, or at the particular situation of this country, we shall see the strongest reason to think that of all foreign tongues the English tongue is that which would be the most useful to our native subjects. It can be inferred that

    A. The speaker is a die-hard colonist
    B. The speaker has the good of the nation at heart
    C. The speaker is addressing an issue related to a colonial empire
    D. None of the above
    E. All of these


17. Statement: But because the idea of private property has been permitted to override, with its selfishness, the common good of humanity, it does not follow that there are not limits within which that idea can function for the general convenience and advantage. Which of the following is most likely to weaken the argument

    A. All the people of the society should progress at an equitable rate and there should be no disparities and private property does bring about a tremendous disparity.
    B. One should not strive for the common good of humanity at all, instead one should be concerned with maximizing one’s own wealth.
    C. One should learn from the experiences of former communist nations and should not repeat their mistakes at all.
    D. Even prosperous capitalist countries like the USA have their share of social problems.
    E. None of these


Directions Q (18 – 23): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends Q, R, S, T, V, W, Y, and Z are sitting around a circular table, facing the center, There are three males and five females in the group of friends. No two males are immediate neighbors of each other.

  • V sits second to the right of his wife.

  • S sits third to the right of V.

  • W sits second to the right of her husband Z. Z is not an immediate neighbor of V’s wife.

  • T is a male and Y is not an immediate neighbor of V.

  • R sits second to the right of Q.


18. What is the position of T with respect to Z

    A. Second to the left
    B. Immediately to the right
    C. Third to the left
    D. Second to the right
    E. Third to the right


19. Which of the following statements regarding S is definitely correct?

    A. S is one of the male members of the group.
    B. Both the immediate neighbors of S are females.
    C. S sits third to the left of T.
    D. W is an immediate neighbor of S.
    E. S sits second to the right of Q.


20. Who amongst the following is V’s wife

    A. Q
    B. Y
    C. R
    D. T
    E. None of these


21. Who amongst the following has a male fitting to the immediate left and the right

    A. Y
    B. R
    C. Q
    D. S
    E. None of these


22. Which of the following is not true regarding T

    A. T is an immediate neighbor of Z’s wife.
    B. No male is an immediate neighbor of T.
    C. Q sits second to the right of T.
    D. The one who sits third to the left of T is a male.
    E. All are true.


23. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbors of T

    A. RQ
    B. WZ
    C. YV
    D. WY
    E. None of these


Directions Q (24 – 30): In each question below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be a variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

24. Statements: Some institutes are banks.
All institutes are academies.
All academies are schools.

Conclusions: I. Some institutes are not schools.
II. All academies being banks is a possibility.

25. Statements: Some institutes are banks.
All institutes are academies.
All academies are schools.

Conclusions: I. All banks can never be schools.
II. Any bank which is an institute is a school.

26. Statements: All energies are forces.
No force is torque.
All torques are powers.

Conclusions: I. All energies being power is a possibility.
II. All powers being a force is a possibility.

27. Statements: All energies are forces.
No force is torque.
All torques are powers.

Conclusions: I. All those powers, if they are forces, are also energies.
II. No energy is torque.

28. Statements: All circles are squares.
Some squares are rectangles.

Conclusions: I. All rectangles being squares is a possibility.
II. All circles being rectangles is a possibility.

29. Statements: No gadget is a machine.
All machines are computers.

Conclusions: I. No computer is a gadget.
II. All computers being gadgets is a possibility.

30. Statements: Some paintings are drawings.
All sketches are paintings.

Conclusions: I.
All sketches are drawings.
II. Some sketches being drawings is a possibility.

Directions Q (31 – 35): In each of the following questions, a related pair of figures is followed by five lettered pairs of figures. Select the pair that has relationship similar to that in the question figure. The best answer is to be selected from a group of fairly close choices.

31.


32.


32.


34.


35.


36. The database environment has all of the following components except

    A. database
    B. DBA
    C. users
    D. SQL
    E. separate files


37. A number of related records that are treated as a unit are called a

    A. field
    B. data
    C. file
    D. batch
    E. group


38. Disk checking is associated with

    A. debugging a program
    B. running a program
    C. compiling a program
    D. coding program
    E. assembling a program


39. What is the common name given to a program written in any one of the high-level languages

    A. System program
    B. Compiler program
    C. Object program
    D. Source program
    E. Data program


40. A group of magnetic tapes, videos or terminals usually under the control of one master is called a

    A. cluster
    B. track
    C. cylinder
    D. All the above
    E. None of these


41. Communication between a computer and a CPU uses ________ transmission mode.

    A. automatic
    B. simplex
    C. half-duplex
    D. full-duplex
    E. None of these


42. ISDN is an acronym for

    A. Integerated Standard Digital Network
    B. Intelligent Services Digital Network
    C. Integerated Services Digital Network
    D. Integrated Services Data Network
    E. None of these


43. In MS Excel, to display current date only _____ is used.

    A. date ()
    B. now ()
    C. today ()
    D. time ()
    E. current date ()


44. To rename currently highlighted object ______ is used.

    A. F1
    B. F2
    C. F3
    D. F5
    E. F6


45. Which generation is natural language related to

    A. First generation
    B. Second generation
    C. Third generation
    D. Fourth generation
    E. Fifth generation


Solution: For Q(1-45)

Q1:

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

H ≥ I = J = K ≤ L < M

Q2:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

From this expression we cannot deduce any relation between P and S.

Q3:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

(i) 20 # 10 * 2 = m

or, m = (20 – 10) ̧ 2

or, m = \({10}{2}\) = 5

(ii) 5 . 6 λ 4 = ?

5 – 6 × 4

⇒ 6 × 4 – 5 = 19

Q4:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

(i) 60 $ 20 % 4 = n

or, n = (60 + 20) × 4

or, n = 80 × 4 = 320
(ii) 8 @ n © 10 = ?

Q5:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

(i) 15 · 12 l 5 = 45
or, p = 60 – 15 = 45
(ii) 4 $ 12 % p = ?
or, ? (4 + 12) × 45
or, ? = 16 × 45 = 720

Q6:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

(i) 16 @ 12 © 8 = z

or, z = 16 + \({12}{8}\)

or, z = 16 + \({35}{2}\)

(ii) z # 20 · 8 = ?

Q7:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

(i) 80 · 15 l 8 = t

or, t = (15 × 8) – 80

or, t = 120 – 80 = 40

(ii) t $ 5 % 8 = ?

or, ? = (40 + 5) × 8

or, ? = 45 × 8 = 360

Option (1)

40 # 40 ★ 10

or, (40 – 40) ̧ 10 = 0

Option (2)

40 $ 40 % 10

or, (40 + 40) × 10 = 800

Option (c)

40@ 40 © 10

For Q(8-12): In the first step, the word that comes first in the alphabetical order shifts to the first in the alphabetical order shifts to the left most position, while the remaining line shifts rightward. In the next step, the largest number shifts to the second position from left, pushing the remaining line rightward. This goes on alternately till the words get arranged in an alphabetical order and the numbers in a descending order at alternate positions.

Q8:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Step III: bond 86 goal 12 33 like high 46

Step IV: bond 86 goal 46 12 33 like high

Step V: bond 86 goal 46 high 12 33 like

Step VI: bond 86 goal 46 high 33 12 like

Step VII: bond 86 goal 46 high 33 like 12

Q9:

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

Input: mind new 27 35 19 59 own tower

Step I: mind 59 new 27 35 19 own tower

Step II: mind 59 new 35 27 19 own tower

Step III: mind 59 new 35 own 27 19 tower

Step IV: mind 59 new 35 own 27 tower 19

Hence step III will be that last but one.

Q10:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Step IV: dear 63 few 51 16 29 yes now

Step V: dear 63 few 51 now 16 29 yes

Step VI: dear 63 few 51 now 29 16 yes

Step VII: dear 63 few 51 now 29 yes 16

Hence 7 – 4 = 3 more steps will be required.

Q11:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

We can’t proceed backward.

Q12:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Input: war 52 and peace 43 16 now 24

Step I: and war 52 peace 43 16 now 24

Step II: and 52 war peace 43 16 now 24

Step III: and 52 now war peace 43 16 24

Step IV: and 52 now 43 war peace 16 24

Step V: and 52 now 43 peace war 16 24

Step VI: and 52 now 43 peace 24 war 16

Q13:

Answer: Option E

Q14:

Answer: Option D

Q15:

Answer: Option E

Q16:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

The passage refers to the usefulness of the English tongue and the intrinsic value of our literature. Since none of the choices infers anything from the passage, the correct option is (D). Although English is a colonial language, the passage does not link English to the colonial history.

Q17:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

The idea of the passage is that, the idea of private property, within limits, can function for the general advantage. Option (a) would weaken the argument as it talks about equitable growth and says that private property brings disparity.

For Q(18-23):

Q18:

Answer: Option E

Q19:

Answer: Option D

Q20:

Answer: Option D

Q21:

Answer: Option B

Q22:

Answer: Option E

Q23:

Answer: Option D

Q24:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

All institutes are academic. All academics are schools = A + A = A = All institute are schools. Hence I does not follow. Some institute are banks (I) → conversion → Some banks are institute (I) + All institutes are academics = I + A =\ I = Some banks are academics. Hence the possibility of II exists.

Q25:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Some banks are academics = All academics are schools = I + A = I Some banks are schools. This does not lead us to I. II follows because All institutes are school.

Q26:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

No force is torque + All torques are powers = E + A = O* = Some powers are not forces. Hence the possibility of II is ruled out. All energies are forces + No force is torque = A + E = E = No energy is torque + All torques are powers = E + A = O* = Some powers are not energies. This does not rule out the possibility of I.

Q27:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

It follows from the solution to the above question. But I does not follow unless we know that All forces are energies.

Q28:

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

The possibilities exit because we don’t have any negative statements.

Q29:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

No gadget is a machine + All machines are computer = E + A = Q* = Some computers are not gadget. This rules out the possibility of II. As for I, it many be true but we can’t say so with certainty.

Q30:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

There being no negative statements, the possibility (conclusion II) exists but not certainty (conclusion I).

Q31:

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

From element I to II the design rotates through 180°

Q32:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

From element I to II the design is mirror image after being rotated through 90° clockwise.

Q33:

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

From element I to II the design is enclosed by another design.

Q34:

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

From element I to II the upper design encloses the lower design.

Q35:

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

From element I to II the design is divided into four equal parts and the lower left part becomes shaded.

Q36:

Answer: Option E

Q37:

Answer: Option C

Q38:

Answer: Option A

Q39:

Answer: Option D

Q40:

Answer: Option A

Q41:

Answer: Option B

Q42:

Answer: Option C

Q43:

Answer: Option C

Q44:

Answer: Option B

Q45:

Answer: Option E

Directions Q (46 – 50): Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below them.



    A. Integerated Standard Digital Network
    B. Intelligent Services Digital Network
    C. Integerated Services Digital Network
    D. Integrated Services Data Network
    E. None of these


46. What was the approximate average of obese men, obese women and obese children in 2013?

    A. 12,683
    B. 12,795
    C. 12,867
    D. 12,843
    E. 12,787


47. The number of obese men in the year 2015 was what percent of the men not suffering from obesity in the same year?

    A. 55
    B. 60
    C. 50.5
    D. 65.5
    E. None of these


48. What was the ratio of obese women in the year 2014 to the obese men in the year 2014?

    A. 6 : 7
    B. 21 : 65
    C. 15 : 73
    D. 48 : 77
    E. None of these


49. What is the difference between the number of obese women and obese children together in the year 2012 and the number of obese men in the same year?

    A. 5,475
    B. 5,745
    C. 4,530
    D. 31,650
    E. None of these


50. What was the total number of children not suffering from obesity in the year 2010 and 2011 together?

    A. 4,350
    B. 31,560
    C. 4,530
    D. 31,650
    E. None of these


Directions Q (51 – 55): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Out of the 15,000 candidates eligible for an Officer’s post in a Public Sector Bank, 450 candidates have prior experience of working in Public Sector banks in a rural area only. 25% of the total number of candidates have prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks in urban areas only. 12% of the total number of candidates have prior experience of working in Private Sector Banks in urban areas only. 2% of the total number of candidates have prior experience of working in Private Sector banks in rural areas only. 3,600 candidates have worked in both Public and Private Sector Banks in urban areas only. 600 candidates have worked in both Public and Private Sector Banks in rural areas only. The remaining candidates have no prior experience of working in the Banking industry.

51. How many candidates have prior experience of working in rural areas (both Public Sector and Private Sector Banks together)?

    A. 4,350
    B. 4,950
    C. 4,800
    D. 4,900
    E. 4,850


52. How many candidates have prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks (Urban and Rural areas together)?

    A. 12,450
    B. 8,400
    C. 10,050
    D. 10,650
    E. None of these


53. What is the ratio of the candidates who have a prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks in rural areas only to the candidates who have prior experience of working in Private Sector Banks in rural areas only?

    A. 4 : 3
    B. 3 : 2
    C. 2 : 3
    D. 3 : 4
    E. None of these


54. What is the total number of candidates who have worked in Private Sector Banks in urban areas?

    A. 1,800
    B. 2,250
    C. 4,050
    D. 36,600
    E. None of these


55. The candidates who have no prior experience of working in the banking industry is what percent of the candidates who have worked in Public Sector Banks in both urban and rural areas together?

    A. 60.5
    B. 63.5
    C. 62
    D. 64
    E. None of these


Directions Q (56 – 60): Study the following pie-chart carefully to answer these questions.

Total number of passengers = 8500

Percentage of passengers


56. What was the approximate average number of passenger in Train-S, Train-M and Train-L together?

    A. 1521
    B. 1641
    C. 1651
    D. 1671
    E. 1691


57. If in Train-R 34 percent of the passengers are females and 26 percent are children, what is the number of males in that train?

    A. 306
    B. 316
    C. 308
    D. 318
    E. None of these


58. The number of passengers in Train-Q is approximate what percentage of the total number of passengers to Train-A and Train-R?

    A. 90
    B. 70
    C. 75
    D. 80
    E. 86


59. Which train has the second highest number of passengers?

    A. A
    B. Q
    C. S
    D. M
    E. L


60. How many more percent (approximately) number of passengers are there in Train-M as compared to the number of passengers in Train-L?

    A. 29
    B. 49
    C. 43
    D. 33
    E. 39


Directions Q (61 – 65): Study the following pie-charts and table to answer these questions.

State wise Details of the adult population of a country Graduate and above

Total no. = 24




Male Female (M : F) Ratio


61. What is the difference between the Graduate male population and XII Std male population from State ‘A’?

    A. 24,000
    B. 14,000
    C. 28,000
    D. 36,000
    E. None of these


62. What is the ratio of the Graduate female population of State E to Std XII female population of State D?

    A. 7 : 5
    B. 5 : 7
    C. 16 : 15
    D. 14 : 16
    E. None of these


63. The Graduate female population of State C is what per cent of the Std XII population of all the states together?

    A. 40
    B. 62.5
    C. 50
    D. 52.5
    E. None of these


64. The Std XII male population of State C is what percent of the total Std XII population of all the states together?

    A. 8%
    B. 12%
    C. 11%
    D. 9%
    E. None of these


65. What is the ratio of the Graduate male population of State E Std XII female population of that State?

    A. 28 : 35
    B. 35 : 28
    C. 32 : 45
    D. 45 : 32
    E. None of these


66. The total Graduate population of State F is what percent of the total Std XII population of State A?

    A. 56
    B. 72
    C. 68
    D. 76
    E. None of these


67. Std XII male population of state E is what percent of the Std XII male population of State F?

    A. 70
    B. 75
    C. 68
    D. 72
    E. None of these


68. What is the ratio of the total Graduate and Std XII male the population of State A to the total Graduate and Std XII female population of that State?

    A. 215 : 216
    B. 214 : 215
    C. 217 : 215
    D. 215 : 217
    E. None of these


69. What is the ratio of the total Graduate population of State D to the total Std XII population of that State?

    A. 17 : 16
    B. 16 : 17
    C. 64 : 51
    D. 51 : 64
    E. None of these


70. The Graduate female population of State B is what per cent of the Graduate female population of State E? (rounded off to the nearest integer)?

    A. 129
    B. 82
    C. 77
    D. 107
    E. None of these


Directions Q (71 – 75): These questions are based on the graph given below.

Graph indicates the annual sales tax revenue collections (in Rupees in crores) of seven states from 1996 to 2001. The values given at the top of each bar represents the total collections in that year.


71. If for each year, the states are ranked in terms of the descending order of sales tax collections, how many states don’t change the ranking more than once over the five years?

    A. 1
    B. 5
    C. 3
    D. 4
    E. None of these


72. Which of the following states has changed its relative ranking most number of times when you rank the states in terms of the descending volume of sales tax collections each year?

    A. Andhra Pradesh
    B. Uttar Pradesh
    C. Karnataka
    D. Tamil Nadu
    E. None of these


73. The percentage share of sales tax revenue of which state has increased from 2011 to 2015?

    A. Tamil Nadu
    B. Karnataka
    C. Gujarat
    D. Andhra Pradesh
    E. None of these


74. Which pair of successive years shows the maximum growth rate of tax revenue in Maharashtra?
The number of people employed in each month is:


    A. 2011 to 2012
    B. 2012 to 2013
    C. 2013 to 2014
    D. 2014 to 2015
    E. None of these


75. Identify the state whose tax revenue increased exactly by the same amount in two successive pair of years?

    A. Karnataka
    B. West Bengal
    C. Uttar Pradesh
    D. Tamil Nadu
    E. None of these


Directions Q (76 – 80): These questions are based on the tables and information given below.

Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients follow the given schedule


76. Due to overrun in “Design”, the Design stage took 3 months, i.e. months 3, 4 and 5. The number of people working on Design in the fifth month was 5. Calculate the percentage change in the cost incurred in the fifth month.(Due to improvement in “Coding” technique, this stage was completed in months 6 – 8 only )?

    A. 225%
    B. 150%
    C. 275%
    D. 240%
    E. None of these


77. With reference to the above question, what is the cost incurred in the new “coding” stage ? (Under the new technique, 4 people work in the sixth month and 5 in the eighth)?

    A. Rs. 1,40,000
    B. Rs. 1,50,000
    C. Rs. 1,60,000
    D. Rs. 1, 80,000
    E. None of these


78. Under the new technique, which stage of Software development is most expensive for Mulayam Software company?

    A. Testing
    B. Specification
    C. Coding
    D. Design
    E. None of these


79. Which five consecutive months have the lowest average cost per man-month under the new technique?

    A. 1- 5
    B. 9 – 13
    C. 11 – 15
    D. 5 – 8
    E. None of these


80. What is the difference in the cost between the old and the new techniques?

    A. Rs. 30,000
    B. Rs. 60,000
    C. Rs. 70,000
    D. Rs. 40,000
    E. None of these


Solution: For Q(46-80)

Q46:

Answer: Option C

Q47:

Answer: Option B

Q48:

Answer: Option D

Q49:

Answer: Option A

Q50:

Answer: Option D

Q51:

Answer: Option B

Q52:

Answer: Option D

Q53:

Answer: Option B

Q54:

Answer: Option C

Q55:

Answer: Option E

Q56:

Answer: Option D

Q57:

Answer: Option A

Q58:

Answer: Option E

Q59:

Answer: Option D

Q60:

Answer: Option D

Q61:

Answer: Option B

Q62:

Answer: Option E

Q63:

Answer: Option C

Q64:

Answer: Option A

Q65:

Answer: Option E

Q66:

Answer: Option E

Q67:

Answer: Option B

Q68:

Answer: Option C

Q69:

Answer: Option A

Q70:

Answer: Option C

Q71:

Answer: Option B

Q72:

Answer: Option B

Q73:

Answer: Option D

Q74:

Answer: Option C

Q75:

Answer: Option A

Q76:

Answer: Option B

Q77:

Answer: Option A

Q78:

Answer: Option D

Q79:

Answer: Option C

Q80:

Answer: Option B

Directions Q (81 – 84): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them answering some of the questions.

A nine-membered international task force on conservation of forests has identified India as one of the 56 countries of the world which are critically affected by widespread deforestation and steady destruction of natural watersheds. It has also warned that unless urgent conservation measures are taken, the country will face a serious food crisis in the next century. The report correctly describes the Himalayan eco system as the most critical watershed in the world, the degradation of which now threatens the very processes of life in the Indo-Gangetic plain. The report documents some aspects of the process of environmental destruction that is at work in this country and calls for an expenditure of about Rs.1,450 crores over the next five years to reverse some of the damage that has taken place. While the task force’s report is a welcome reminder of the urgency to the task of halting and rolling back the most awesome form of destruction that this country has ever witnessed, it regrettably underestimates the magnitude of the effort involved and hence falls short of suggesting a comprehensive solution to the problem. For instance, the five-year plan. Its recommendation bears no relationship to the resources that will be actually needed to reach a net rate of zero deforestation. At present deforestation is proceeding at the furious pace of 1.3 million hectares a year.

Past experience shows that more than Rs. 300 crores in government expenditure alone is needed over four to five years at today’s prices merely to plant less than a million hectare. Realistically speaking, resources of the order of Rs. l,000 crores a year will be necessary for the next five years to sustain a plan that actually provides a forest cover to badly denuded land and an underestimation of the magnitude of such a plan is not the only flaw in the report. An even more serious one, related to the first, lies in its failure to establish a coherent set of priorities among the different functions that an afforestation programme must perform. To take just one example, the vital task of planting fuel wood and fodder trees is put at par with the planting of trees to meet raw materials requirement of industries. Owing to confusion, the task force falls short of recommending the kind of radical measures. Wood-based industries step against the spreading of mono cultures and entrusting afforestation programmes.

81. The author’s chief concern appears to be –

    A. conservation of forests
    B. destruction of natural watersheds
    C. degradation of Himalayan eco systems
    D. to take radical measures for afforestation
    E. to discuss the report of international task force


82. In order to reverse the damage caused by deforestation, India, in a period of five years, will be required to incur a total expenditure of about 7.


    A. 300 crores
    B. 1000 crores
    C. 1450 crores
    D. 2450 crores
    E. 5000 crores


83. What seems to be the immediate cause for writing the passage

    A. Danger of famine
    B. Scarcity of water
    C. Scarcity of food grains
    D. Report of the international task force on conservation of forests
    E. 5000 crores


84. The international task force has not

    A. suggested a comprehensive scheme for dealing with the problem of deforestation
    B. emphasized the urgency of tackling the problem
    C. underestimated the magnitude of problem of deforestation
    D. underestimated the intensity of the problem of the natural watersheds
    E. 5000 crores


Directions Q (85): Select the word which is SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.

85. Pace

    A. Momentum
    B. Rate
    C. Progress
    D. Gain
    E. Measure


Directions Q (86): Select the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.

86. Critical

    A. Substantial
    B. Negligible
    C. Secondary
    D. Large
    E. Unduly


Directions Q (87 – 90): In each of the following sentences there are blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by the numbers a, b, c, d and e. Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

87. The fear ________ with feeling incompetent is the fear of being humiliated, embarrassed and ________

    A. endowed, criticized
    B. afflicted, downtrodden
    C. consistent, damaged
    D. associated, vulnerable
    E. imbued, exposed


88. If a professional ________ his professional development and ________ education, he may quickly become obsolete

    A. management, voluminous
    B. higher, vulnerable
    C. neglects, better
    D. refuses, higher
    E. denies, superior


89. This book is readable, clear and ________ researched with ________ detailed references

    A. fabulously, intricate
    B. meticulously, extensive
    C. leisurely, complete
    D. hardly, national
    E. closely, scattered


90. The Indian hospitality industry, which has been ________ a prolonged slump, is now entering a new ________ phase

    A. witnessing, ambitious
    B. observing, listless
    C. recovering, debt
    D. demonstrating, efficient
    E. succumbing, lean


Directions Q (91 – 95): The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D, E & F as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

91. ___________ before the clock struck 8 on Saturday night, India Gate was swamped with people wearing black tee shirts and holding candles.

(A) Minutes (B) Time
(C) Later (D) Quickly
(E) Since (F) Seconds

    A. (B) and (E)
    B. (A) and (C)
    C. (A) and(F)
    D. (B) and (D)
    E. (C) and (E)


92. The States should take steps to________ the process of teachers appointments as the Centre has already sanctioned six lakh posts.

(A) fasten (B) move
(C) hasten (D) speed
(E) early (F) quicken

    A. (D) and (F)
    B. (A) and (C)
    C. (C) and (F)
    D. (D) and (E)
    E. (B) and (D)


93. A senior citizen’s son __________ threatened her every day and physically harmed her, forcing her to transfer her property to him.

(A) superficially (B) mistakenly
(C) allegedly (D) miserably
(E) doubtfully (F) purportedly

    A. (C) and (F)
    B. (A) and (E)
    C. (C) and (E)
    D. (D) and (F)
    E. (A) and (C)


94. Medical teachers said that the management had continued to remain _________ to their cause leading to the stretching of their strike..

(A) unmoved (B) lethargic
(C) unconcerned (D) apathetic
(E) indifferent (F) bored

    A. (B) and (C)
    B. (C) and (F)
    C. (A) and (E)
    D. (A) and (D)
    E. (D) and (E)


95. The parents had approached the high court to ______ the government _________order after their children, who passed UKG, were denied admission by a school. .

(A) void (B) quash
(C) annual (D) stay
(E) lift (F) post

    A. (A) and (D)
    B. (B) and (C)
    C. (C) and (E)
    D. (E) and (F)
    E. (C) and (D)


Directions Q (96 – 100): Replace the words given in bold by one of the given options to make the sentence correct and meaningful. In case of ‘no correction required’, (e) will be the answer.

96. If one prays honestly and sincerely, God will listen to one’s prayer.

    A. If one pray
    B. One if prays
    C. If one will praying
    D. If one prayed
    E. No correction required


97. Not only I but also my parents are looking forward to see you soon.

    A. am looking forward to seeing
    B. are looking to see forward
    C. are looking forward seeing
    D. are looking forward to seeing
    E. no correction required


98. They are waiting for her since morning.

    A. are waiting
    B. are awaiting to
    C. have been a waiting
    D. have been waiting for
    E. no correction required


99. If he had asked me, I would have helped him.

    A. If he ask
    B. had he asked
    C. He had asked
    D. If he asked
    E. no correction required


100. I am sure that scientists must discover a cure for AIDS by the end of next decade.

    A. will have discovered
    B. might discovered
    C. have discovered
    D. must discover
    E. no correction required


Directions Q (101 – 105): Rearrange the sentences given below in a way which would make an appropriate a meaningful paragraph. Mark the correct order of sentence A, B, C, D, E, F and answer the questions given below.

A. On my way back home from school, I saw a crowd of people front of a house.
B. The women of the families were also taking part in the quarrel.
C. However, I soon found that it was a quarrel between a landlord and his tenant.
D. At first I could not make out as to what was happening.
E. Even the children didn’t kg behind and were throwing pots and pans.
F. Both were shouting at the top of their voices.

101. After rearrangement which of the following sentences will come ‘FIRST’

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. F


102. After rearrangement which of the following sentences will come ‘LAST’

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. E
    E. F


103. After rearrangement which of the following sentences will come ‘SECOND’

    A. B
    B. C
    C. D
    D. E
    E. F


104. After rearrangement which of the following sentences will come ‘THIRD’

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    E. E


105. After rearrangement which of the following sentences will come FOURTH

    A. A
    B. C
    C. D
    D. E
    E. F


Directions Q (106 – 115): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

Man has been tampering (106) ecosphere for a very (107) time and is forced to (108) that the environmental resources are (109). Environmental problems are (110) social problems. They begin with people as (111) and end with people as victims. Unplanned uses of resource (112) in the depletion of fossil fuels and (113) of air and water, Deforestation has led to (114) imbalance and draining away of national wealth (115) heavy expenditure on oil and power generation.

106.

    A. on
    B. in
    C. with
    D. for
    E. from


107.

    A. short
    B. long
    C. small
    D. tall
    E. high


108.

    A. see
    B. look
    C. do
    D. recognise
    E. realise


109.

    A. plenty
    B. scarce
    C. minute
    D. enough
    E. minimum


110.

    A. really
    B. coldly
    C. badly
    D. happily
    E. seriously


111.

    A. effect
    B. result
    C cause
    D. wisdom
    E. affect


112.

    A. cause
    B. rest
    C. consequence
    D. result
    E. get


113.

    A. revolution
    B. pollution
    C. resolution
    D. evolution
    E. solution


114.

    A. ecological
    B. biological
    C. logical
    D. chronological
    E. geographical


115.

    A. by
    B. in
    C. out
    D. through
    E. from


Solution: For Q(81-115)

Q81:

Answer: Option E

Q82:

Answer: Option C

Q83:

Answer: Option D

Q84:

Answer: Option A

Q85:

Answer: Option B

Q86:

Answer: Option C

Q87:

Answer: Option D

Q88:

Answer: Option C

Q89:

Answer: Option B

Q90:

Answer: Option A

Q91:

Answer: Option A

Q92:

Answer: Option B

Q93:

Answer: Option C

Q94:

Answer: Option B

Q95:

Answer: Option C

Q96:

Answer: Option E

Q97:

Answer: Option D

Q98:

Answer: Option D

Q99:

Answer: Option E

Q100:

Answer: Option A

Q101:

Answer: Option A

Q102:

Answer: Option D

Q103:

Answer: Option C

Q104:

Answer: Option C

Q105:

Answer: Option E

Q106:

Answer: Option C

Q107:

Answer: Option B

Q108:

Answer: Option E

Q109:

Answer: Option B

Q110:

Answer: Option A

Q111:

Answer: Option C

Q112:

Answer: Option D

Q113:

Answer: Option B

Q114:

Answer: Option A

Q115:

Answer: Option D

116. RBI increased the validity period of the in-principle approval of setting up of new banks from one year to

    A. 14 months
    B. 16 months
    C. 18 months
    D. 20 months
    E. None of these


117. The primary objective of the European Central Bank, as mandated in Article 2 of the Statute of the Bank, is

    A. to define and implement the monetary policy for the Eurozone
    B. to conduct foreign exchange operations
    C. to maintain price stability within the Eurozone.
    D. to take care of the foreign reserves of the European System of Central Banks and operation of the financial markets.
    E. None of these


118. Under which Article of the Constitution, the two States of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh will have special status for equitable opportunities for education and public employment

    A. Article 2 of the Constitution of India
    B. Article 239 A of the Constitution of India
    C. Article 358 of the Constitution of India
    D. Article 371-D of the Constitution of India
    E. None of these


119. Which one of the following is not a “Navaratna” company

    A. Bharat Electronics Limited
    B. Indian Oil Corporation
    C. Airports Authority of India
    D. Rural Electrification and Corporation Limited
    E. None of these


120. Which of the following has become the first airport in the World to receive the prestigious “Sword of Honour” for safety management

    A. Kempegowda International Airport
    B. Kochi International Airport
    C. Indira Gandhi International Airport
    D. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
    E. None of these


121. POS data entry system is used most extensively by the

    A. grocery industry
    B. railroad industry
    C. word-processing industry
    D. banking industry
    E. None of these


122. Which of the following statements is true

    A. Marketing makes the company loose money due to high cost.
    B. Marketing is not important in profit- making companies
    C. Marketing sharpens the mind set of the employees
    D. Marketing is a time-bound seasonal function
    E. Marketing is a waste


123. In how many languages does RBI prints the currency

    A. 12
    B. 14
    C. 15
    D. 16
    E. None of these


124. CRR stands for

    A. Cash Rate Requirements
    B. Cash Reserve Ratio
    C. Credit Rate Requirements
    D. Credit Reserve Requirements
    E. None of these


125. Which of the prize is also known as the Alternative Nobel prize?

    A. Pulitzer prize
    B. Magsaysay award
    C. Booker prize
    D. Right livelihood award
    E. None of these


126. Which country is not a member of SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation)?

    A. Myanmar
    B. Sri Lanka
    C. Bhutan
    D. Maldives
    E. None of these


127. The book ‘Jhansi Ki Rani’ was written by?

    A. Devkinandan Khatri
    B. Sharat Chand Chaudhary
    C. Vrindavanlal Verma
    D. Mahadevi Verma
    E. None of these


128. ‘Big Bazaar’ chain of stores is run by which group?

    A. Jindal Group
    B. Reliance Group
    C. Future Group
    D. Aditya Birla Group
    E. None of these


129. What does ‘Financial Inclusion’ mean?

    A. Allow the merger and acquisition of banks so that only few big banks exist and continue to cater to the need of corporate sector.
    B. Providing insurance cover to each and every citizen so that he/she can live a healthy and long life.
    C. Expanding the network of banks of such a way that people from lower strata of society also get the benefit of services provided by banks
    D. To manage banking operations smoothly and merge nationalised banks for further financial settlements.
    E. None of these


130. Green Banking means

    A. financing of irrigation projects by banks
    B. development of forestry by banks
    C. financing of environment friendly projects by banks
    D. Managing fishery by banks.
    E. None of these


131. Who is the author of the book Patrons of the Poor: Caste Politics and Policy Making in India

    A. Narayan Lakshman
    B. Greg Lindsay
    C. Khushwant Singh
    D. Salman Rushdie
    E. None of these


132. What does SAPTA stand for

    A. South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement
    B. South Asian Post Trade Agreement
    C. SAARC Preferential Trade Agreement
    D. SAARC Post Trade Agreement
    E. None of these


133. With which one of the following activities are Golden Globe Awards associated

    A. Journalism
    B. Social work
    C. Peace initiatives
    D. Films
    E. None of these


134. Which of the following schemes of the Govt. of India is associated with the health sector

    A. NRDP
    B. IRDP
    C. ASHA
    D. Bharat Nirman
    E. All of these


135. Which of the following awards is given in the field of Science & Technology?

    A. Kalinga Prize
    B. Dhyanchand Award
    C. Arjun Award
    D. Moortidevi Award
    E. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award


136. Which of the following book is written by British Nobel Prize-winning author Doris Lessing

    A. Wolf hall
    B. Sea of Poppies
    C. Silent Spring
    D. The Grass is Singing
    E. None of these


137. Major functions undertaken by merchant bankers are

    A. Issue management
    B. Market maker in capital market
    C. Capital structuring/restructuring
    D. All of the above
    E. None of these


138. Which of the following is the first commercial bank in the country to launch a mutual fund

    A. Bank of India
    B. Canara Bank
    C. State Bank of India
    D. Indian Bank
    E. None of these


139. The term ‘mutual fund’ refers to

    A. contribution by the employees of a business enterprise in the provident fund scheme
    B. fund created by commercial banks and other eligible financial institutions for floating new shares in the market to earn a higher profit
    C. the business of acquisition, holding managment, trading or disposal of securities participation certificates or any other instruments, income or growth
    participation business and Unit Trust schemes
    D. All of the above
    E. None of these


140. The money collected by a mutual fund is invested in

    A. real estate and plantation projects
    B. capital market instruments such as shares, debentrures and other securities
    C. gilt-edged securities only
    D. government securities only
    E. None of these


141. Functions of the mutual funds are

    A. collection of funds from the public
    B. investment of the resources raised in capital markets
    C. holding investment in trust and ensuring proper management of investment portfolio
    D. All of the above
    E. None of these


142. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is better known as

    A. World Bank
    B. Asian Development Bank
    C. IMF
    D. It is known by its name
    E. None of these


143. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?

    A. Asian Development Bank
    B. IMF
    C. International Developmental Association
    D. International Finance Corporation
    E. None of these


144. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries

    A. Asian Development Bank
    B. IMF
    C. International Developmental Association
    D. International Finance Corporation
    E. None of these


145. What does devaluation of a currency mean

    A. decrease in the internal value of money
    B. decrease in the external value of money
    C. decrease both in the external and internal values of money
    D. increase in the internal value of money
    E. None of these


146. Which of the following is known as plastic money

    A. bearer cheques
    B. credit cards
    C. demand drafts
    D. gift cheques
    E. None of these


147. When did Regional Rural Banks start functioning in India

    A. 1975
    B. 1947
    C. 1956
    D. 1960
    E. None of these


148. Which of the following correctly describes what sub-prime lending is?
(1) Lending to the people with less than ideal credit status.
(2) Lending to the people who are high value customers of the banks.
(3) Lending to those who are not a regular customer

    A. Only 1
    B. Only 2
    C. Only 3
    D. All
    E. None of these


149. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing paper notes in India?

    A. Union Government
    B. Reserve Bank of India
    C. Ministry of Finance
    D. Supreme Court
    E. None of these


150. As per the Rail Budget 2016-2017, world’s first bio-vacuum toilet developed by Indian Railways is being used in which Rajdhani train?

    A. Howrah Rajdhani
    B. Swarna Jayanti Rajdhani
    C. August Kranti Rajdhani
    D. ibrugarh Rajdhani
    E. None of these


151. What is the theme of the Rail Budget 2016-2017?

    A. Reorganize, Restructure Rejuvenate Indian Railways: ‘Chalo, Milkar Kuch Karen’
    B. Chalo, Milkar Kuch Naya Karen: ‘Navinikaran, Sashaktikaran, Shodh aur Vikas’
    C. Nav Arjan, Nav Manak, Nav Sanranchna: ‘Chalo, Milkar Kuch Karen’
    D. Reorganize, Restructure Rejuvenate Indian Railways: ‘Nav Arjan, Nav Manak, Nav Sanranchna’
    E. None of these


152. The world’s first mass dengue vaccination programme has been launched by which country?

    A. Israel
    B. Philippines
    C. United States
    D. Russia
    E. None of these


153. India’s first Aadhaar enabled ATM has been launched by which bank?

    A. State Bank of India
    B. ICICI Bank
    C. DCB Bank
    D. Axis Bank
    E. None of these


154. The National Maritime Day of India is celebrated on which day?

    A. April 3
    B. April 4
    C. April 5
    D. April 6
    E. None of these


155. What is/are the goal(s) of the Rail Budget 2016-2017?

    A. Reserved accommodation on trains available on demand and time tabled freight trains.
    B. High end technology to improve safety record, elimination of all unmanned level crossings and higher average speed of freight trains.
    C. Semi high speed trains running along the golden quadrilateral and zero direct discharge of human waste
    D. All of the above
    E. None of these


Solution: For Q(116-155)

Q116:

Answer: Option C

Q117:

Answer: Option C

Q118:

Answer: Option D

Q119:

Answer: Option B

Q120:

Answer: Option D

Q121:

Answer: Option A

Q122:

Answer: Option C

Q123:

Answer: Option C

Q124:

Answer: Option B

Q125:

Answer: Option D

Q126:

Answer: Option A

Q127:

Answer: Option C

Q128:

Answer: Option C

Q129:

Answer: Option C

Q130:

Answer: Option C

Q131:

Answer: Option B

Q132:

Answer: Option A

Q133:

Answer: Option D

Q134:

Answer: Option C

Q135:

Answer: Option E

Q136:

Answer: Option D

Q137:

Answer: Option D

Q138:

Answer: Option C

Q139:

Answer: Option C

Q140:

Answer: Option B

Q141:

Answer: Option D

Q142:

Answer: Option A

Q143:

Answer: Option D

Q144:

Answer: Option C

Q145:

Answer: Option B

Q146:

Answer: Option B

Q147:

Answer: Option A

Q148:

Answer: Option A

Q149:

Answer: Option B

Q150:

Answer: Option D

Q151:

Answer: Option A

Q152:

Answer: Option B

Q153:

Answer: Option C

Q154:

Answer: Option C

Q155:

Answer: Option D