# SBI CLERK Mains Practice Set | Model Paper 3

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# SBI CLERK Mains Practice Set | Model Paper 3

### Introduction

Career in Banking is one of the most lucrative and most sought after careers. In India, Bank Recruitment Exams are primarily conducted for recruitment of Probationary Officers, Clerks & Specialist Officers. India currently[2019] has 93 commercial and 27 public sector banks out of which 19 are nationalized and 6 are SBI and its associate banks and rest two are IDBI Bank and Bharatiya Mahila Bank, which are categorized as other public sector banks. Recruitment for Bank Probationary Officers, Management Trainees, Clerks and for various other posts generally follow a 3 step recruitment process: Preliminary Exam + Mains Exam + Interview & Group Discussion. The article SBI CLERK Mains Practice Set presents a practice set for the most sought after SBI CLERK recruitment. Until the year 2013, All Public Sector Banks used to conduct their own entrance test, GDs and Personal Interview for recruiting candidates. However, after 2014, IBPS started conducting recruitment Tests for 12 PSU Banks. IBPS holds a separate entrance test for recruitment.

Mains exams are very important to clear every government sector or bank related recruitment process in India. Only those candidates who are selected in the Mains round are allowed to move further up in the recruitment process. The marks obtained in the Mains exams are considered for the final merit list. Mains exams usually consist of 4 sections, with 155 questions with a time duration of 3 hours. Mains exams most certainly have negative marking.

### Quiz

1. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘I > L’ as well as ‘M > K’ definitely true?
I > J > K ? L < N = M

A. >
B. <
C. <
D. =
E. Either < or <

2. Which of the following symbols should be placed in theblank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such amanner that ‘S > P’ definitely holds true but ‘S = P’ does nothold true?
P_Q _R_S

A. >, >, >
B. <, =, <
C. >, <. <
D. <, <, <
E. None of these

3. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘P < F’ be definitely false?

A. F = B > P < M
B. P > B > M = F
C. P < B < F < M
D. B < P < M < F
E. None of these

Directions (Qs. 4-8) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Representatives from eight different Banks viz.. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circular table facing the center but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is from a different Bank viz. UCO Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Bank of Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, Punjab National Bank, Bank of India and Dena Bank.

F sits second to the right of the representative from Canara Bank. A representative from Bank of India is an immediate neighbor of the representative from Canara Bank. Two people sit between the representative of Bank of India and B, C and E are immediate Time : 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 200 neighbors of each other. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbor of either B or the representative from Canara Bank. A representative from Bank of Maharashtra sits second to the right of D. D is neither the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India. G and the representative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbors of each other. B is not the representative of UCO Bank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce.

H sits third to the left of the representative from Dena Bank. A representative from Punjab National Bank sits second to the left of the representative from Syndicate Bank.

4. Who amongst the following sit exactly between B and a representative from Bank of India?

A. A and the representative from UCO Bank
B. F and G
C. H and the representative from Bank of Maharashtra
D. H and G
E. Representatives from Syndicate Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce

5. Who amongst the following is the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce?

A. A
B. C
C. H
D. G
E. D

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A. H – UCO Bank
B. A – Canara Bank
C. D – Bank of Maharashtra
D. E -Syndicate Bank
E. F – Punjab National Bank

7. Who amongst the following sits second to the left of B?

A. C
B. H
C. The representative from Canara Bank
D. The representative from Punjab National Bank

8. Which of the following is true with respect to the givenseating arrangement?

A. B is the representative from Bank of Maharashtra.
B. C sits second to the right of H.
C. The representative from Dena Bank sits to the immediate left of the representative from UCO Bank.
D. A sits second to the right of the representative from Bank of India.
E. The representatives from Bank of Maharashtra and syndicate Bank are immediate neighbors of each other

Directions (Qs. 9- 11) : A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:

Input : Put pocket hand watch he for them .
Step I: Put for the watches hand pocket them.
Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them.
Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them.
Step IV: Put pocket hand watch him for them.

And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow

9. If step III of a given input be ‘fly sky birds my su fur say’, what is the seventh step of the input?

A. fly sky birds my su fur say
B. fly birds sky my fur su say
C. fly fur su my birds sky say
D. fly su fur my sky birds say
E. None of these

10. If step VII of input is ‘slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi’, what is step V of that input?

A. slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi
B. slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
C. slow dhurwa ran pat dig hak vi
D. slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi
E. None of these

11. Given the following :
Input: Ana dhir raj ran san rah ajiWhat step will be the following arrangement?
Arrangement : Ana san rah ran dhir raj aji

A. IV
B. V
C. VI
D. VIII
E. None of these

Directions (Qs. 12-15) : Study following statements and answer the questions:

Seven students Priya, Ankit, Raman, Sunil, Tony, Deepak and Vicky take a series of tests. No two students get similar marks. Vicky always scores more than Priya. Priya always scores more than Ankit. Each time either Raman scores the highest and Tony gets the least, or alternatively Sunil scores the highest and Deepak or Ankit scores the least.

12. If Sunil is ranked sixth and Ankit is ranked fifth, which of the following can be true?

A. Vicky is ranked first or fourth
B. Raman is ranked second or third
C. Tony is ranked fourth or fifth
D. Deepak is ranked third or forth
E. None of these

13. If Raman gets the highest, Vicky should be ranked not lower than:

A. Second
B. Third
C. Forth
D. Fifth
E. None of these

14. If Raman is ranked second and Ankit is ranked first, which of the following must be true?

A. Sunil is ranked third
B. Tony is ranked third
C. Priya is ranked sixth
D. All are true
E. None of these

15. If sunil is ranked second, which of the following can be true?

A. Deepak gets more than Vicky
B. Vicky gets more than Sunil
C. Priya gets more than Raman
D. Priya gets more than Vicky
E. None of these

Directions (Qs. 16-20) : In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered Iand II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer A if only conclusion I follows;
Give answer B if only conclusion II follows;
Give answer C if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows;
Give answer D if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows;
Give answer E if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow;

16. Statements : Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
Conclusions:

I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

(17-18):
17. Statements: All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions:

I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is a force.

18. Statements: All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions:

I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.

(19-20):
19. Statements: No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions:

I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.

20. Statements: No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions:

I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics

Directions (Qs. 21-24): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and —

Give answer A if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question

Give answer B if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question

Give answer C if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question

Give answer D if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer E if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question

21. Among six people P, Q, R, S, T, and V each life on a different floor of a six-story building having six floors number done to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the topmost floor?

(I) There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live. P lives on an even numbered floor.
(II) T does not live on an even numbered floor. Q lives on an even numbered floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor.
(III) S lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R’s floor.

22. There are six letters W, A, R, S, N, and E. Is ‘ANSWER’ the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only?

(I) E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E.
(II) R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S.
(III) Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A are not placed immediately next to W.

23. Point D is in which direction with respect to Point B?

(I) Point A is to the west of Point B. Point C is to the north of Point B. Point D is to the south of Point C.
(II) Point G is to the south of Point D. Point G is 4 m from Point B. Point D is 9 m from Point B.
(III) Point A is to the west of Point B. Point B is exactly midway between Points A and E. Point F is to the south of Point E. Point D is to the west of Point F.

24. How is ‘one’ coded in the code language ?

(I) ‘one of its kind’ is coded as ‘zo pi ko fe’ and ‘in kind and cash’ is coded as ‘ga, to ru ko’
(II) Its point for origin’ is coded as ‘ba le fe mi’ and ‘make a point clear’ is coded as ‘yu si mi de’
(III) ‘make money and cash’ is coded as ‘to mi ru hy’ and ‘money of various kind’ is coded as ‘qu ko zo hy’.

25. It has been reported in many leading newspapers that the current year’s monsoon may be below the expected level as many parts of the country are still not getting adequate rainfall. Which of the following can be a possible fall out of the above situation?

A. People from those affected areas with less rainfall may migrate to urban areas.
B. Govt. may announce an ex-gratia payment to all the farmers affected in these areas.
C. Govt. may declare these areas as drought affected areas
D. People may blame the govt. and agitate for not getting adequate water for cultivation.
E. None of these.

26. The condition of the roads in the city has deteriorated considerably during the first two months of monsoon and most of the roads have developed big potholes. Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause?

A. The municipal corporation had repaired all the roads in the city before the onset of monsoon with good quality material.
B. A large number of people have developed spine related injuries after regularly commuting long distances by road within the city.
C. The municipal corporation has been careful in choosing the contractors for repairing roads in the past.
E. None of these

27. Ethologists, people who study animal behavior, have traditionally divided an organism’s actions into two categories: learned behavior (based on experience) and instinctive behavior (based on genotype). Some current scholars reject this distinction, claiming that all behavior is a predictable interaction of experience and genotype. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the arguments made in the sentence above?

A. All organisms with identical genotypes and identical experience sometimes respond differently in different situations.
B. All organisms with different genotypes and identical experience always respond identically in identical situations.
C. All organisms with similar genotypes and similar experience always respond differently in identical situations.
D. All organisms with identical genotypes and identical experience always respond identically in identical situations.
E. All organisms with identical genotypes and different experience always respond identically in identical situations.

28. When income tax rates are reduced, there is an increase in taxable income and an increase in taxable income results in increased total income tax revenues for the government. Which of the following is analogous to the argument
above in terms of its logical features?

A. If the city municipal corporation increases taxes on a property by 1%, it will raise tax revenues, which can further be used for garbage disposal management.
B. The Leader of the opposition at the Parliament argued that a restriction on the import of Chinese manufacturing products will increase the sales of Indian manufacturing products.
D. The balance of payment of a country will improve if the country reduces its imports and increases exports.
E. Citizens earning more than  15 lakhs per annum pay at an increased tax rate of 40%. Citizens earning less than  1 lakh per annum can be exempted from paying income taxes without decreasing the revenues of the Income Tax Department.

Directions (Qs. 29-31): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
India’s national bird does not have a safe sanctuary in the nation’s capital itself. Last week about a dozen of them were brutally killed in some parts of the city and such killing have been going on for last couple of months.
(A) Killing of national bird should be declared as treason.
(B) Poachers should be banned from entering forests.
(C) Nation’s interest should be kept above all and no action should be taken towards such trivial issues.
(D) The government has not implemented strict rules and laws for saving national heritage.
(E) India’s national bird will be included in the list of endangered animals in future.

29. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be a negative course of action which is not admirable?

A. Only (A)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (D)
E. Both (A) and (B)

30. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) may the possible cause of this brutal killing of India’s national bird?

A. Only (A)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (D)
D. Only (C)
E. None of these

31. Which of the following among (A), (B), (D) and (E) may be the effect of this brutal killing?

A. Only (A)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (D)
D. Only (E)
E. Both (A) and (E)

Directions (32-35) : In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures if the sequence were continued ?

32.

33.
34.
35.
36. __________ allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited from another location.

A. General-purpose applications
B. Microsoft Outlook
C. Web-hosted technology
D. Office Live
E. None of these

37. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the printed page ?

A. Vertical justifying
C. Dual centering
D. Horizontal centering
E. Vertical centering

38. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet ?

A. chat
B. instant messaging
C. instantiates
D. electronic mail
E. None of these

39. What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a text document ?

A. Word processing
C. Web design
D. Database management
E. Presentation generation

40. Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of both __________ data, including full motion video, high-speed Internet access, and videoconferencing.

A. video data and information
B. voice and non voice
C. music and video
D. video and audio
E. None of these

41. __________ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN packets to every port on the server using fake IP addresses.

A. Cyborgaming crime
B. Memory shaving
C. Syn flooding
D. Software piracy
E. None of these

42. Which of these is a point-and-draw device?

A. mouse
B. scanner
C. printer
D. CD-ROM
E. Keyboard

43. The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the __________.

A. cell location
B. cell position
D. cell coordinates
E. cell contents

44. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a __________.

A. procedural language
B. structures
C. natural language
D. command language
E. programming language

45. A detailed written description of the programming cycleand the program, along with the test results and a printout of the program is called __________.

A. documentation
B. output
C. reporting
D. spec sheets
E. Directory

Solutions: For Q(1-45)

1.

Explanation:

On putting sign (=) in place of question mark (?)
I > J > K = L L and M > K

2.

Explanation:

On putting sign (<, <, <) in place of blank space
P P true
but S = P doesnot hold time.

3.

(4 -8) : According to the question

4.

5.

6.

Explanation:

7.

8.

(9-11):

These questions follow the following steps.

 Original Step I Step II Step III Step IV Step V StepVI 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 6 5 4 3 2 7 1 5 6 4 2 3 7 1 3 2 4 6 5 7 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 6 5 4 3 2 7 1 5 6 4 2 3 7 1 3 2 4 6 5 7 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

9.

Explanation:
Step IV is similar to original statement. Considering step III as original step VII will be the step IV in this output scheme.

10.

Explanation:

 StepVII Step V 1 3 2 4 6 5 7 Slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi 1 6 5 4 3 2 7 Slow hak dig pat ran dhurwavi vi

11.

Explanation:

Arrangement is 1, 5, 6, 4, 2, 3, 7. Hence step VI

12.

Explanation:

Raman scores the highest and Tony gets the least. Vickey always scores more than Priya which in turn scores more than Ankit. If Sunil is ranked sixth and Ankit is ranked fifth then considering above (a) and (c) is ruled out. (b) is also not possible. only (d) is true. Hence (d) is correct option.

13.

Explanation:

From the same conclusion as in the previous question. If Raman gets the highest then Vickey should not be ranked lower than fourth. Hence (c) is the correct option.

14.

Explanation:

There is a logical error in this question. Hence (e) none of these is the correct option.

15.

Explanation:

If we consider Raman, he scores highest and Tony lowest as given. If Sunil gets second then Vickey can’t get more than Sunil. Priya also can’t get more than Raman. Vickey gets more than Priya. Hence (b), (c), (d) can be ruled out. only (a) is true. Hence (a) is the correct option.

16.

Explanation:

Conclusion I: False
Conclusion II: False

(17-18):

17.

Conclusion I: False
Conclusion II: True

18.

Conclusion I: True
Conclusion II: False

(19-20):

19.

Conclusion I: True
Conclusion II: True

20.

Conclusion I: False
Conclusion II: False

21.

Explanation:
From statements I, II and III

Floor Number Person
6 P
5 T
4 R
3 S
2 Q
1 V

22.

Explanation:
From statements I and III

 1 2 3 4 5 6 A S E A N S W E R

23.

Explanation:
From statements I and III

24.

25.

Explanation:

Possible fallout may be drought affected area which is not given in any options.

26.

Explanation:

Option A, C, and D does not explain the effect of given cause. Only option B can be effect of damaged roads.

27.

Explanation:

The argument stated in the information is that all animal actions are a result of an interaction between experiences and genotype. Therefore, if all experiences and genotype are identical, all actions will also be identical. This is mentioned in option D.

28.

Explanation:

Option D is not analogous from any angle. Point of Chinese manufacturing is also not logical in option B. Option C exhibits the analogous relationship. If number of words is high, the text will not be read and when an advertisement text is not read, the product is not sold. Hence, the correct answer is Option C. Note the relationship is inverse in nature.

29.

30.

31.

32.

Explanation:
The movement and other changes in designs can be shown as

33.

Explanation:

In the subsequent figures respectively one, two zero………… curve(s) is/are added and curves move along the line segment and get reversed in each subsequent figure.

34.

Explanation:

In the subsequent figures one design is left intact while other three designs are inverted.

35.

Explanation:

In the subsequent figures the star moves three steps in clockwise direction inside the hexagon after every two figures. The equal sign moves respectively one and two step(s) in clockwise direction along the sides of the hexagon. The design C moves in and out the hexagon in the subsequent figures and moves respectively two and one step(s) in clockwise direction. In other words, this problem is based on the rule (1) = (5) and hence (2) = (6).

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 46-50) : Study the following pie-chart and table carefully and answer the questions given below :
PERCENTAGEWISE DISTRIBUTION OF THE NUMBER OF MOBILE PHONES SOLD BY A SHOPKEEPER DURING SIX MONTHS
Total number of mobile phones sold = 45,000

The respective ratio between the number of mobile phones sold by company A and company B during six months

46. What is the respective ratio between the number of mobile phones sold of company B during July and those sold during December of the same company?

A. 119:145
B. 116:135
C. 119:135
D. 119:130
E. None of these

47. If 35% of the mobile phones sold by company A during November was sold at a discount, how many mobile phones of company A during that month were sold without a discount?

A. 882
B. 1635
C. 1638
D. 885
E. None of these

48. If the shopkeeper earned a profit of 433/- on each mobile phone sold of company B during October, what was his total profit earned on the mobile phones of that company during the same month?

A. Rs. 6,49,900/-
B. Rs. 6,45,900/-
C. Rs. 6,49,400/-
D. Rs. 6,49,500/-
E. None of these

49. The number of mobile phones sold by company A during July is approximately what percent of the number of mobile phones sold by company A during December?

A. 110
B. 140
C. 150
D. 105
E. 130

50. What is the total number of mobile phones sold by company B during August and September together?

A. 10,000
B. 15,000
C. 10,500
D. 9,500
E. None of these

Directions (Qs. 51-55) : Study the following information and answer the questions that follow :
The graph given below represents the production (In tonnes) and sales (In tonnes) of company a from 2010-2015

The table given below represents the respective ratio of the production (in tonnes) of Company A to the production (in tonnes) of Company B, and the respective ratio of the sales (in tonnes) of Company A to the sales (in tonnes) of Company B.

51. What is the approximate percentage increase in the production of Company A (in tonnes) from the year 2013 to the production of Company A (in tonnes) in the year 2014?

A. 18
B. 38
C. 23
D. 27
E. 32

52. The sales of Company A in the year 2013 was approximately what percent of the production of Company A in the same year?

A. 65
B. 73
C. 79
D. 83
E. 69

53. What is the average production of Company B (in tonnes) from the year 2010 to the year 2015?

A. 574
B. 649
C. 675
D. 593
E. 618

54. What is the respective ratio of the total production (intones) of Company A to the total sales (in tonnes) of Company A?

A. 81 : 64
B. 64 : 55
C. 71 : 81
D. 71 : 55
E. 81 : 55

55. What is the respective ratio of production of Company B (in tonnes) in the year 2015 to the production of Company B (in tonnes) in the year 2012?

A. 2 : 5
B. 4 : 5
C. 3 : 4
D. 3 : 5
E. 1 : 4

Directions (Qs. 56-60) :Study the following pie-chart and answer the questions given below:
Preferences of students among six beverages in terms of degree of angle in the pie-chart Total no. of students = 6800

56. The number of students who prefer Beverage C is approximately what percent of the number of students who prefer Beverage D?

A. 7
B. 12
C. 18
D. 22
E. 29

57. How many students prefer Beverage B and Beverage E together?

A. 2312
B. 2313
C. 2315
D. 2318
E. None of these

58. What is the difference between the total number of students who prefer Beverage A and C together and the total number of students who prefer Beverage D and F together?

A. 959
B. 955
C. 952
D. 954
E. None of these

59. The number of students who prefer Beverage E and F together is what percent of the total number of students?

A. 18
B. 14
C. 26
D. 24
E. None of these

60. What is the respective ratio between the number of students who prefer Beverage F and the number of students who prefer Beverage A?

A. 3: 11
B. 3: 13
C. 6: 11
D. 5: 11
E. None of these

Directions (Qs. 61-65) : Study the following graph and answer the questions given below :
No. of students (in thousands) who opted for three different specializations during the given five years in a university

61. The total number of students who opted for Mathematics in the years 2011 and 2014 together is approximately what percent of the total number of students who opted for all three subjects in the same years?

A. 38
B. 28
C. 42
D. 32
E. 48

62. Out of the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects, in the year 2015, 38% were girls. How many boys opted for Mathematics in the same year?

A. 1322
B. 1332
C. 1312
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

63. What is the respective ratio between the number of students who opted for English in the years 2012 and 2014 together and the number of students who opted for Hindi in the year 2011 and 2015 together?

A. 11: 5
B. 12: 7
C. 11: 7
D. 12: 5
E. None of these

64. If the total number of students in the university in the year 2013 was 455030, then, the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects were approximately what percent of the total students?

A. 19
B. 9
C. 12
D. 5
E. 23

65. What is the total number of students who opted for Hindi and who opted for Mathematics in the years 2012, 2013 and 2014 together?

A. 97000
B. 93000
C. 85000
D. 96000
E. None of these

Directions (Q. 66-70) : Study the following Pie-chart carefully and answer the questions given below. The survey conducted on 10500 people to find out various Professionals in the town and percentage of Female Professionals amongst them Various Professionals = 10500

66. What is the ratio of the male Engineers and Designers to the same-occupation female professionals in the town?

A. 41: 44
B. 55: 53
C. 31: 35
D. 44: 35
E. None of these

67. The total number of Lawyers in town is approximately what percent of the total number of Doctors in the town?

A. 95
B. 98
C. 90
D. 85
E. 81

68. What is the difference between the total number of male and female professionals in the town?

A. 1284
B. 1134
C. 1054
D. 1164
E. None of these

69. Female Doctors are what percent of the female Teachers in the town?

A. 42
B. 28
C. 15
D. 35
E. None of these

70. What is the ratio of the number of male Architects to the number of male Teachers in the town?

A. 11: 5
B. 3: 2
C. 5: 11
D. 2: 3
E. None of these

Directions (Q.71-75): Study the following Pie-chart carefully and answer the questions given below: A survey conducted on 5800 villagers staying in various villages and having various favourite fruits. Favorite Fruits

71. Mango is the favorite fruit of 50% of the people from village C. People having their favorite fruit as mango from village C form approximately what percent of the people having their favorite fruit as mango from all the villages together?

A. 48
B. 53
C. 61
D. 57
E. 45

72. 20% of the people from village D have a banana as their favorite fruit and 12% of the people from the same village have guava as their favorite fruit. How many people from that village like other fruits?

A. 764
B. 896
C. 874
D. 968
E. None of these

73. How many people in all have custard as their favorite fruit?

A. 850
B. 864
C. 870
D. 812
E. None of these

74. 50% of the people from village B have a banana as their favorite fruit. How many people from other villages have the same favorite fruit?

A. 1160
B. 551
C. 1020
D. 609
E. None of these

75. What is the total number of people having their favorite fruit as apple and grapes together?

A. 1334
B. 1286
C. 1300
D. 1420
E. None of these

Directions (Qs. 76-80) : Study the table carefully to answer the following questions.
Classification of 100 Students Based on the Marks Obtained by them in Physics and Chemistry in an Examination

Subject Marks out of 50
40 and above 30 and above 20 and above 10 and above 0 and above
Physics 9 32 80 92 100
Chemistry 4 21 66 81 100
Average (Aggregate) 7 27 73 87 100

76. What is the difference between the number of students passed with 30 as cut-off marks in Chemistry and those passed with 30 as cut-off marks in aggregate?

A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6

77. If at least 60% marks in Physics are required for pursuing higher studies in Physics, how many students will be eligible to pursue higher studies in Physics?

A.27
B.32
C.34
D.41

78. The percentage of the number of students getting at least 60% marks in Chemistry over those getting at least 40% marks in aggregate, is approximate?

A.21%
B.27%
C.29%
D.31%

79. The number of students scoring less than 40% marks in aggregate is?

A.13
B.19
C.20
D.27

80. If it is known that at least 23 students were eligible for a Symposium on Chemistry, then the minimum qualifying marks in Chemistry for eligibility to Symposium would lie in the range?

A.40-45
B.30-40
C.20-30
D.Below 20

Solutions: For Q(46-80)

Month Total number of Mobiles Sold Total Number of Mobiles Sold of Company A Total Number of Mobiles Sold of Company B
July 7650 4080 3570
August 9900 4400 5500
September 11250 6750 4500
October 3600 2100 1500
November 5400 2520 2880
December 7200 3150 4050

46.

Explanation:

Number of mobiles sold of company B in July = 3570 Number of mobiles sold of company B in December = 4050 Required Ratio = 3570 : 4050 = 119 : 135

47.

Explanation:

Total mobiles sold by company A during November = 2520 Total mobiles sold by this company at discount = 35% of 2520 = 882 Total mobiles sold by company A without discount = 2520 – 882 = 1638

48.

Explanation:

Mobile phones sold of company B during October = 1500 Total profit earned on the mobile phones = (433 × 1500) =  6,49,500

49.

Explanation:

Number of mobile phones sold of company A during July = 4080 Number of mobile phones sold by company A during December = 3150 Required percentage $$\frac{4080}{3150}$$*100 = 129.5

50.

Explanation:

Mobile phones sold of company B during August = 5500 Mobile phones sold of company B during September = 4500 Total number of mobile phones = 5500 + 4500 = 10,000

51.

Explanation:

Percentage increase $$\frac{700-550}{550}$$*100 = 27.2

52.

Explanation:

Percent of production =
$$\frac{400}{550}$$*100 = 72.72

53.

Explanation:

Year Production of B
2010 600
2011 700
2012 800
2013 600
2014 650
2015 700

= $$\frac{600+700+800+600+650+700}{6}$$ = 675

54.

Explanation:
Total production of company A = 4050
Total sales of company A = 2750
Required ratio 4050 : 2750 = 81 : 55

55.

Explanation:
Required ratio = production of B in the year 2010 : Production of B in the year 2012 = 600 : 800 = 3 : 4

56.

Explanation:
Required percentage

$$\frac{14.4}{122.4}$$ *100 = 11.765 (12%) Approx

57.

Explanation:
Required Number = $$\frac{57.6+64.8}{360}$$ *6800 =$$\frac{122.4}{360}$$ *6800 = 2312

58.

Explanation:
Required difference = $$\frac{( 79.2+14.4)-(122.4+21.6 )}{360}$$ *6800 = $$\frac{93.6-144.0}{360}$$ *6800 = 952

59.

Explanation:
Required percentage = $$\frac{64.8+21.6}{360}$$ *100 = $$\frac{86.4}{360}$$ *100 = 24%

60.

Explanation:
Required Ratio = 21.6: 79.2 = 3:11

61.

Explanation:
$$\frac{15000+30000}{5000+35000+15000+25000+30000+30000}$$ *100 = $$\frac{45000}{140000}$$ *100 = 32.14=32%(Approx)

62.

Explanation:

In 2015,

Total number of girls = (20 + 20 + 15)$$\frac{38}{100}$$ *1000 = $$\frac{55*38*100}{100}$$ *100 = 17100

Total number of boys = 45000 – 17100 = 27900
Total number of boys who opted for Mathematics

27900 * $$\frac{5}{45}$$ *100 = 3100

63.

Explanation:

Required Ratio = ( 25 + 30) : (5 + 20) = 55 : 25 = 11 : 5

64.

Explanation:

Required Percentage = $$\frac{(15+10+15)*1000}{455030}$$ *100 = $$\frac{(40)*1000}{455030}$$ *100 = 8.79 (9%) Approx

65.

Explanation:

Required total number of students
= (5 + 35 + 15 + 15 + 20 + 5) * 1000
= 95 * 1000 = 95000

66.

Explanation:

Male Engineers + Male Designers
40% of (18% of 10500) + 65% of (16% of 10500)
Female Engineers + Female Designers
= 60% of (18% of 10500) + 35% of (16% of 10500)
Required ratio = (40 × 18)
+ (65 × 16) : (60 × 18 + 35 × 16)
= (720 + 1040) : (1080 + 560)
= 1760 : 1640 = 44 : 41

67.

Explanation:

Required % = $$\frac{19}{21}$$ *100 = 90%

68.

Explanation:

% of female professionals =
[20% of 21% + 60% of 18% + 40% of 11% + 80% of 15% + 40% of 19% + 35% of 16%]

= $$\frac{1}{100}$$[420 + 1080 + 440 +1200 + 760 + 560]%
= $$\frac{4460}{100}$$% = 44.6%
% of male professionals
= 100% – 44.6% = 55.4%
Required diff
= (55.4 – 44.6)% of 10500
= 10.8% of 10500 = 10.8 × 105 = 1134

69.

Explanation:

Required % =
$$\frac{20*21}{ 80*15}$$ *100
=$$\frac{420}{ 12}$$
= 35%

70.

Explanation:

Required ratio = $$\frac{60*11}{ 20*15}$$ = 11: 5

71.

Explanation:

No of persons from village C = 32% of 5800 = 1856
From village C 50% of 1856 = 928 persons favourite fruit is mango.
28% of 5800 = 1624 people’s favourite fruit is mango

Required % = $$\frac{928}{ 1624}$$*100 = 57%

72.

Explanation:

People in village D = 25% of 5800
= 1450
Required no. of people
= {100 – (20 + 12)}% of 1450
= 68% of 1450 = 986

73.

Explanation:

Required no. = 15% of 5800 = 870

74.

Explanation:

Required no.
= 20% of 5800 – (50% of 21% of 5800)
= 1160 – 609 = 551

75.

Explanation:

Required no. = (12 + 11)% of 5800
= 23% of 5800 = 1334

76.

Explanation:

Required difference
= (No. of students scoring 30 and above marks in Chemistry) – (Number of students scoring 30 and above marks in aggregate)
= 27 – 21
= 6.

77.

Explanation:

We have 60% of 50 =$$\frac{60}{100}$$*50 = 30
Required numbe r= No. of students scoring 30 and above marks in Physics = 32

78.

Explanation:

Number of students getting at least 60% marks in Chemistry
= Number of students getting 30 and above marks in Chemistry
= 21.
Number of students getting at least 40% marks in aggregate
= Number of students getting 20 and above marks in aggregate
= 73.

Required percentage
$$\frac{21}{73}$$*100
= 28.77%
= 29%.

79.

Explanation:

We have 40% of 50 =$$\frac{40}{100}$$*50 = 20

Therefore Required number

= Number of students scoring less than 20 marks in aggregate

= 100 – Number of students scoring 20 and above marks in aggregate

= 100 – 73

= 27.

80.

Explanation:
Since 66 students get 20 and above marks in Chemistry and out of these 21 students get 30 and above marks, therefore to select top 35 students in Chemistry, the qualifying marks should lie in the range 20-30.

Directions (Qs. 81-85) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

81. The ability of a woman to do well does not ………. on whether it is a man’s world or not, because everyone has his/her own opportunities.
(1) trust (2) depend
(3) reckon (4) live
(5) rest (6) believe

A. (4) and (5)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (1) and (6)
D. (2) and (5)
E. (3) and (4)

82. Drugs worth  3 lakhs were ……… from the apartment by the police.
(1) manufactured (2) ruptured
(3) seized (4) confiscated
(5) bought (6) compared

A. (1) and (4)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (3) and (5)
D. (5) and (6)
E. (3) and (4)

83. An organization ………. to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.
(1) specified (2) inaugurated
(3) committed (4) kicked off
(5) succumbed (6) dedicated

A. (3) and (6)
B. (1) and (5)
C. (3) and (5)
D. (4) and (6)
E. (1) and (3)

84. A man reportedly ………. two passports with the same photograph, but under different names was arrested by the commissioner’s Task Force.
(1) possessing (2) examining
(3) surrendering (4) mastering
(5) holding (6) fixating

A. (2) and (3)
B. (3) and (6)
C. (1) and (5)
D. (1) and (4)
E. (4) and (5)

85. The Hollywood star and the Bollywood heroine are being ……… as the next big onscreen couple.
(1) labeled (2) explained
(3) worshiped (4) touted
(5) exclaimed (6) shouted

A. (2) and (4)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (6)
D. (1) and (4)
E. (3) and (4)

Directions (Qs. 86-90) : Rearrange the following seven sentences(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to from a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about – NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.

(2) Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the pre-specified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.

(3) In most of these books, the authors classify a measurement strategy as either norm-referenced (NRM) or criterion-referenced (CRM).

(4) Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curves distribution.

(5) Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.

(6) CRM, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the thought or learned material.

(7) One of the authors clearly delineates the differences between these two types by focusing on the categories of “test characteristics” and “logistical dimensions.”

86. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

A. 7
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

87. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

88. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 5

89. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6

90. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 7
D. 4
E. 5

Directions (Qs. 91-100) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Greenhouse gases are only (91) of the story when it comes to global warming. Changes to one part of the climate system can (92) additional changes to the way the planet absorbs or reflects energy. These secondary changes are (93)climate feedback’s, and they could more than double the amount of warming caused by carbon dioxide alone. The primary feedback is (94)to snow and ice, water vapor, clouds, and the carbon cycle. The best (95) feedback comes from melting snow and ice in the Northern Hemisphere. Warming temperatures are already (96) a growing percentage of Arctic sea ice, exposing dark ocean water during the (97) sunlight of summer. Snow cover on land is also (98) in many areas. In the (99) of snow and ice, these areas go from having bright, sunlight-reflecting surfaces that cool the planet to having dark, sunlight-absorbing surfaces that (100) more energy into the Earth system and cause more warming.

91.

A. whole
B. part
C. material
D. issue
E. most

92.

A. raise
B. brings
C. refer
D. stop
E. cause

93.

A. sensed
B. called
C. nothing
D. but
E. term

94.

A. due
B. results
C. reason
D. those
E. because

95.

A. done
B. known
C. ruled
D. bestowed
E. said

96.

A. mastering
B. sending
C. melting
D. calming
E. increasing

97.

A. make-shift
B. ceasing
C. troubled
D. perpetual
E. absent

98.

A. dwindling
B. manufactured
C. descending
D. generating
E. supplied

99.

A. progress
B. reduced
C. existence
D. midst
E. absence

100.

A. repel
B. waft
C. monitor
D. bring
E. access

Directions (Qs. 101-107) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In many countries, a combustible mixture of authoritarianism, unemployment and youth has given rise to disaffection with strongmen rulers which has in turn spill over into uprising. Young people in these countries are far better educated than their parents were. In 1990 the average Egyptian had 4.4 years of schooling; by 2010 the figure had risen to 7.1 years. Could it be that education, by making people less willing to put up with restrictions on freedom and more willing to question authority, promotes democratization. Ideas about the links between education, Income and democracy are at the heart of what social scientists have long studied. Since then plenty of economists and political scientists have looked for statistical evidence of a causal link between education and democratization. Many have pointed to the strong correlation that exists between levels of education and measures like the pluralism of party politics and the existence of civil liberties. The patterns are similar when income and democracy are considered. There are outliers, of course – until recently, many Arab countries managed to combine energy-based wealth and decent education with undemocratic political systems. But some deduce from the overall picture that as China and other authoritarian states get more educated and richer, their people will agitate for greater political freedom, culminating in a shift to a more democratic form of government

This apparently reasonable intuition is shakier than it seems. Critics of the hypothesis point out that correlation is hardly causation. The general trend over the past half century may have been towards rising living standards, a wider spread of basic education and more democracy, but it is entirely possible that this is being by another variable. Even if the correlation were not spurious, it would be difficult to know which way causation ran. Does more education lead to greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary school whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship with similar students in schools which received no such financial aid. Previous studies has shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it significantly increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study the authors tried to see how the extra schooling had affected the political and social attitudes of the women in question. Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies, more education does not always mean either more active political participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often express disdain for the messiness of democracy, yearning for the kind of government that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, railway lines and bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.

101. Which of the following most aptly describes the central theme of the passage?

A. Democratic nations are richer and have a better track record of educating their citizens.
B. Education does not necessarily lead to greater enthusiasm for a democratic form of government
C. Educated societies with an autocratic form of government enjoy a better quality of life than democracies.
D. Citizens can fulfill their personal aspirations only under a democratic form of government.
E. Democracy makes citizens more intolerant as it does not restrict personal freedoms

102. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word PROMOTES given in bold as used in the passage?

B. Prefers
C. Recommends
E. Publicizes

103. What conclusion can be drawn from the statistics cited about Egypt’s education system?

A. Job prospects have been on the rise in Egypt in recent times.
B. Authoritarian leaders have played a vital role in reforming Egypt’s education system.
C. Egypt has one of the youngest and best-educated demographics in the world.
D. Egypt is likely to be a successful vibrant democracy.
E. There has been a rise in education levels in Egypt in recent times.

104. In the context of the passage which of the following characterize (s) democracies?
(1) Active participation of the majority of educated citizens in the electoral process.
(2) Fast-paced economic growth and accountability of those in power.

A. All (1), (2) and (3)
B. Only (2) and (3)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (1) and (2)
E. None of these

105. What according to the author has led to uprisings in authoritarian countries?

B. Vast numbers of uneducated and unemployable youth.
C. Frustration with the existing system of governance.
D. Unavailability of natural energy resources like coal and oil.
E. Government’s overambitious plans for development.

106. Which of the following is/are true about China in the context of the passage?
(1) China’s citizens are in favor of a more representative form of government.
(2) China has made huge strides in infrastructure developments.
(3) China is in the midst of a political revolution.

A. None
B. Only (1)
C. Only (1) and (3)
D. Only (2)
E. All (1), (2) and (3)

107. What does the phrase “messiness of democracy” convey in the context of the passage?

A. Democratic nations are chaotic on account of individual freedoms.
B. Most democratic countries frequently have violent revolts among their citizens.
C. The divide between the poor and educated is growing wider in democracies.
D. High levels of pollution on account of the frantic pace of infrastructure development.
E. Resigned acceptance of intrinsic corruption in the education system.

Directions (Qs. 108-111) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error,if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is ‘(e)’. (ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

108. The poll contestants approached (A)/ the commission complaining that the hoardings (B) / violated the code of conduct (C) / and influenced public perception. (D) / No error (E)

109. The country has (A) / adequate laws but problems (B) / arise when these are not (C) / implemented in letter and spirit. (D) / No error (E)

110. The Management feels that (A) / the employees of the organization are (B) / non-productive, and do not want (C) / to work hard. (D) / No error (E)

111. As far as the issue of land encroachment (A) / in villages is concerned, people will (B) / have to make a start from their villages by (C) / sensitizing and educating the villagers about this issue. (D) /. No error (E)

Directions (Qs. 112-115): Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct alternative from (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) which represents all those synonyms.

(1) Cover
(2) Hide
(3) Conceal
(4) Disguise

A. Only (1)
B. Both (2) and (4)
C. Only (2), (3) and (4)
D. Only (1), (2) and (3)
E. All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

113. REGULAR
(1) Present
(2) Common
(3) Indiscriminate
(4) Uniform

A. Only (4)
B. Both (2) and (4)
C. Both (1) and (3)
D. Only (2), (3) and (4)
E. All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

114. LABOUR
(1) Expedite
(2) To move faster
(3) Controlled
(4) Toil

A. Only (4)
B. Both (1) and (3)
C. Both (2), (3) and (4)
D. Only (1), (3) and (4)
E. All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

115. MEAN
(1) Imply
(2) Understand
(3) Average
(4) Characterized by malice

A. Only (3)
B. Both (1) and (4)
C. Only (1), (3) and (4)
D. Only (1), (2) and (4)
E. All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Solutions: For Q(81-115)

81.

Explanation:

Option D is the answer and there are two reasons for it. First one is that from the context of situation independence of women from the man’s world is indicated so some word to show dependency should be used. Depend and Rest both show dependence so these are the answers. Second one is that as blank space is followed by ON a word that connects grammatically so it should be used. Both ‘depend on’ and ‘rest on’ are the correct usage, so it confirms the selection on basis of the first reason. Other options are not logical.

82.

Explanation:

Confiscated – means to officially take something away from somebody, especially as a punishment. Seized definitely fits in the blank therefore option E is correct.

83.

Explanation:

Organization and mission are two words which can be connected with committed or dedicated both the verbs – organizations committed/ dedicated to …..Objectives. Other words like kicked off/inaugurated/ succumbed do not match for objectives of organization.

84.

Explanation:

Holding and Possessing both gives the same meaning and sense to the sentence. Surrendering is inappropriate. Mastering can not be linked with passports. Fixating is also incorrect for the blank space as it gives no logical sense to the sentence. Examining can grammatically fit into the blank but not in the context of passage and would give a different direction to what is being said in the sentence.

85.

Explanation:

‘Next big thing’ is always a projection or a decision based on current situation. It is neither worshipped nor shouted nor explained. Rather next big thing is touted or labeled on basis of projection

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

Explanation:

Option D has plenty of illustrations, references and structure to support it in the passage. Other options like E and B are true but not the central theme of the passage. Option A and C are not true

102.

103.

Explanation:

A rise from the 4% level to 7 % says that there is rise in education in Egypt.

104.

Explanation:

All of the options are mentioned in one or other part of the passage.

105.

Explanation:

First line of the passage is self explanatory.

106.

Explanation:

Only option which can be linked with the passage is 1. Their people will agitate for greater political freedom,
culminating in a shift to a more democratic form of government.

107.

Explanation:

Option A is wrong as this is not intended from the use of this phrase. Last part of passage has this phrase and poor-rich divide has been discussed their in voting pattern or why rich people even educated do not vote. Option D is out of the context. Option E can also be rejected as corruption is not the issue here.

108.

109.

Explanation:

Here, arise when they are not is used.

110.

Explanation:

No error

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

116. Money deposited at a bank that cannot be withdrawn for a preset fixed period of time is known as a?

A. Term deposit
B. Checking Account
C. Savings Bank Deposit
D. No Frills Account
E. Current Deposit

117. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges messages between banks and financial institutions is known as?

A. CHAPS
B. SWIFT
C. NEFT
D. SFMS
E. CHIPS

118. The term ‘Smart Money” refers to __________ .

A. Foreign Currency
B. Internet Banking
C. US Dollars
D. Travelers’ cheques
E. Credit Cards

119. Which one of the following is a retail banking product?

A. Home Loans
B. Working capital finance
C. Corporate term loans
D. Infrastructure financing
E. Export Credit

120. When there is a difference between all receipts and expenditure of the Govt. of India, both capital and revenue, it is called?

A. Revenue Deficit
B. Budgetary Deficit
C. Zero Budgeting
E. Balance of payment problem

121. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Reserve Bank of India ?

A. Fiscal Policy Functions
B. Exchange Control Functions
C. Issuance, Exchange and destruction of currency notes
D. Monetary Authority Functions
E. Supervisory and Control Functions

122. Which of the following is NOT required for opening a bank account ?

A. Identity Proof
C. Recent Photographs
D. Domicile Certificate
E. None of these

123. With reference to a cheque which of the following is the “drawee bank” ?

A. The bank that collects the cheque
B. The payee’s bank
C. The endorsee’s bank
D. The endorser’s bank
E. The bank upon which the cheque is drawn

124. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the business of __________ .

A. All scheduled commercial banks excluding RRBs
B. All scheduled commercial banks including RRBs
C. Only Public Sector Banks
D. All Banking Companies
E. All scheduled banks except private banks

125. Base Rate is the rate below which no Bank can allow their lending to anyone. Who sets up this ‘Base Rate’ for Banks?

A. Individual Banks, Board
B. Ministry of Commerce
C. Ministry of Finance
D. RBI
E. Interest Rate Commission of India

126. What is a Debit Card ?

A. It is a card issued by a Rating Agency
B. It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment even in the absence of any balance in the account
C. It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment if there is balance in the account
D. It is a card which carries prepaid balance
E. It is a card which can be used for making STD calls

B. Book debt
C. Non Performing Asset
D. Out of order accounts
E. Overdrawn accounts

128. By increasing repo rate, the economy may observe the following effects __________.

A. Rate of interest on loans and advances will be costlier
B. Industrial output would be affected to an extent
C. Banks will increase rate of interest on deposits
D. Industry houses may borrow money from foreign countries
E. All of these

129. Which of the following schemes is launched to provide pension to people in unorganized sectors in India ?

A. Swabhiman
B. Jeevan Dhara
C. Jeevan Kalyan
D. ASHA
E. Swavalamban

130. Who is the Author of the Book ‘The Sahara Testament’?

B. Abdul Kalam
C. Rebecca Hunt
D. Victoria Grossack
E. None of these

131. Which Maharatna PSU introduced Voluntary retirement Scheme for female Workers?

A. Coal India Limited
B. NTPC
C. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
D. Steel Authority of India
E. None of these

132. In which country Smog insurance was introduced to tackle air pollution?

A. USA
B. China
C. India
D. Brazil
E. None of these

133. Which of the following taxes is the major source of the income of the Union Government?

A. Fringe Benefit Tax
B. VAT
C. Cash Withdrawal Tax
D. Income Tax
E. Customs and Excise Duty

134 ‘Sensex’ is the index of which of the following stock exchanges?

A. New York Stock Exchange
B. Kolkata Stock Exchange
C. National Stock Exchange (India)
D. Hong Kong Stock Exchange
E. Bombay Stock Exchange

135. Shovna Narayan is associated with which classical dance form of India?

A. Bharatnatyam
B. Kathakali
C. Kuchipudi
D. Kathak
E. None of these

136. What does term ‘bancassurance’ mean?

A. Insurance provided by banking organization
B. Insurance given to bank by central bank
C. Insurance policy giving bank rate interests
D. Insurance assured to public
E. None of these

137. When the price of a substitute of a commodity X falls, then the demand for X

A. Rises
B. Falls
C. Remains unchanged
D. First rises and then falls
E. None of these

138. ‘Lenovo Group Ltd.’ which is a major manufacturer of personal computers is basically a company based in

A. South Korea
B. China
C. Singapore
D. India
E. USA

139. Saraswati Samman is given for excellence in the field of

A. Art and Culture
B. Music
C. Classical Dance
D. Literature
E. None of these

140. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the organisation working for the welfare of the children?

A. CII
B. CIC
C. CRY
D. PAC
E. None of these

141 Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) Demand Draft
(B) Credit Card
(C) Debit Card

A. Only (A)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (B) and (C)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)

142. NREGA stands for

A. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
B. Nuclear Rural Electrification Guarantee Act
C. Natural Resources Employment Guarantee Act
D. All of these
E. None of these

143 Which of the following certainly is an effort in the direction of Financial Inclusion?

A. No-frills Accounts
B. Foreign Currency Accounts
C. Internet Banking
D. Anywhere Banking
E. None of these

144. Insurance cover for bank deposits in our country is provided by

A. SBI
B. Government of India
C. DICGC
D. GIC
E. None of these

145. PAN number is required for all transactions above:

A.  25,000
B.  50,000
C.  1 lakh
D.  10 lakh
E. No such restriction

146 In CAMELS, E stands for what?

A. Equity
B. Earnings
C. Equal
D. Eligibility
E. None of these

147. Which of the following institution is meant for small and medium enterprises?

A. RBI
B. NABARD
C. IFCI
D. SIDBI
E. None of these

148. The commercial paper can be issued by _____?

A. Corporates
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. IDBI
D. Every non-banking company
E. None of the these

149. Commercial papers are normally issued in the multiple of ____ crore.

A. 10
B. 5
C. 15
D. 2
E. None of these

150. Which of the following cannot be called as a debt instrument as referred in the financial transactions?

A. Certificate of deposit
B. Bonds
C. Stocks
D. Commercial papers
E. Debentures

151. Which of the following committee has given its recommendations on “Financial inclusions”?

A. Rakesh Mohan committee
B. Rangarajan committee
C. Sinha committee
E. None of these

152. Which of the following policies of the financial sectors is basically designed to transferring local financial assets into foreign assets freely and at market determined exchange rates?

A. Capital account convertibility
B. Financial deficit management
C. Minimum support price
E. None of these

153. What is the capital expenditure (CAPEX) pegged or the Plan size proposed for the Indian Railways in the Railway Budget 2016-17?

A. 2.2 lakh crore rupees
B. 2.54 lakh crore rupees
C. 1.21 lakh crore rupees
D. 1.28 lakh crore rupees
E. None of these

154. As per the Union Budget 2016-17, how much per cent of FDI will be allowed through FIPB route in marketing of food products produced and manufactured in India?

A. 88%
B. 99%
C. 100%
D. 49%
E. None of these

155. How much amount has been allocated towards recapitalisation of Public Sector Banks?

A. 50,000 crore rupees
B. 20,000 crore rupees
C. 35,000 crore rupees
D. 25,000 crore rupees
E. None of these

Solutions: For Q(116-155)

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