Directions Q (1 - 5): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’. ‘P © Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’. ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’. ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’. ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, for conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true? Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I is true. (b) if only conclusion II is true (c) if either conclusion I or II is true (d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true (e) if both conclusion I and II are true
1. Statements: B # F, F $ H, H © K Conclusions: I. H @ B II. K $ B
2. Statements: H @ T, T © N, N $ W Conclusions: I. N $ H II. W $ H
3. Statements: H $ F, F % M, M © J Conclusions: I. J $ F II. M © H
4. Statements: M $ T, T % R, M © N Conclusions: I. M $ R II. N $ T
5. Statements: D $ T, T % B, B @ F Conclusions: I. D # T II. D @ F
Directions Q (6 - 10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions based on it.
Amit, Bunty, Reena, Veena and Dolly were selected for prizes because of their excellent performance in annual examination conducted by school 'X'. On this occasion their parents were also invited by the school authority. Brajesh, Jayant, Manoj, Ritesh and Vinod were the fathers of the individuals but not necessarily in the same order. Anju, Babita, Punam, Rita and Vinita were the mothers of the individuals but not necessarily in the same order. Among the children only two are males. The first letter of the name of any parent was not the same as the first letter of the name of their child. The same was true of spouses also. The first letter of the name of Dolly’s father was the same as that of Reena’s mother. Similarly, Dolly’s mother’s name started with the first letter of Reena's father's name. Brajesh and Manoj were not the fathers of Veena and Amit respectively. The first letter of Bunty’s mother was the same as the first letter of the name of Veena’s father. Anju is not Dolly’s mother. Jayant is the husband of Punam. Reena’s performance was best among all; that is why her mother Babita praised her.
6. Who among the following is the father of Amit?

A. Can’t say B. Jayant C. Manoj D. Vinod E. None of these

7. Who among the following is the son of Rita?

A. Can’t say B. Amit C. Bunty D. Either Amit or Bunty E. None of these

8. Father’s name of Reena is?

A. Can't say B. Vinod C. Brajesh D. Either Vinod or Brajesh E. None of these

9. Which of the following couples is correctly matched?

A. Jayant, Rita B. Manoj, Punam C. Vinod, Babita D. Ritesh Vinita E. Brajesh, Anju

10. Which of the following pairs is related in the same way as ‘CAVE’ and ‘HILL?

A. OAR: BOAT B. CAVITY: TOOTH C. ROOF: HOUSE D. SHOE: SOCKS E. None of these

Directions Q (11 - 16):
A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:
Input: and band land hand hind lack job
Step I: hind and band lack land hand job
Step II: hind band land job and lack hand
Step III: hind and lack band hand land job
Step IV: land band and job hand lack hind
Step V: hand land band lack and job hind
Step VI: hand band and hind land lack job and so on.
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input or vice versa in the following questions.
11. Input: do we he is it at all. Which of the following steps would be “all we he is do at it”?

A. It is not possible to get the above step B. Step VI C. Step IX D. Step X E. None of these

12. If Step IV of an input is "he is to do what her observe", which of the following would definitely be the input?

A. to is he what observe her do B. he is to what observe her do C. is he to what observe her do D. Can't say E. None of these

13. If Step III of an input is “when then men can how are you” what would be step VII of the input?

A. then can are when you men how B. how are men can you then when C. you then can men are when how D. how can then men are when you E. None of these

14. Input: stejpan mesic is the president of Croatia. Which of the following will be step VIII for this input?

A. the mesic stejpan president is of Croatia B. the is of mesic Croatia stejpan president C. stejpan mesic is president Croatia of the D. the stejpan mesic of is president Croatia E. None of these

15. If Step V of an input is "will you hit centuries three again at", what will be the middle three words of step VII?

A. will you hit B. you hit centuries C. hit centuries three D. centuries three again E. None of these

16. If step II of an input is "has started new BSC batches for PO", what will be Step VI of the input?

A. new PO for started BSC batches has B. PO new for started BSC batches has C. PO new started for batches BSC has D. PO started batches has new for BSC E. None of these

Directions Q (17 - 18): In each of these questions, a statement is given, followed by two Conclusions. Mark your answer as
(a) if only conclusion I follows; (b) if only conclusion II follows; (c) if either conclusion I or II follows and (d) if both conclusions I & II follows. (d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
17. Statement: Morning walks are good for health.
Conclusions: I. All healthy people go for morning walks. II. Evening walks are harmful.
18. Statement: The best way to escape from a problem is to solve it
Conclusions: I. Your life will be dull if you don’t face a problem II. To escape from problems, you should always have some solutions with you.
Directions Q (19 - 21): In each of the questions below, there are two or three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow (s) from the given statements.
19. Statement: Some singers are rockers. All rockers are westerners.
Conclusions: I. Some rockers are singers. II. Some westerners are rockers. III. Some singers are westerners. IV. Some singers are not westerners.

A. I, II, and III follow B. I, II and IV follow C. II, III and IV follow D. I, III and IV follow E. None follows

20. Statement: No Indian is an Asian. Some Americans are Indians.
Conclusions: I. Some Indians are not Asians. II. Some Asians are not Americans. III. Some Americans are not Asians. IV. All Americans are Asians.

A. Either III or IV follows B. Either I or II follows C. I and III follow D. Either II or III follows E. None follows

21. Statement: Some charts are darts. All darts are carts. Some carts are smarts.
Conclusions: I. Some charts are carts. II. Some carts are darts. C. Some darts are smarts. IV. Some smarts are charts.

A. Only I and II follow B. Only II and III follows C. I and II follow D. I, III and IV follow E. None follows

Directions Q (22 - 23): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
The standard of education in private schools is much better than Municipal and Zila Parishad-run schools.
(A) The Municipal and Zila Parishad should make serious efforts to improve standard of their schools. (B) All Municipal and Zila Parishad schools should be closed immediately. (C) Government should raise the standard of education in Municipal and Zila Parishad run schools. (D) Private schools charge high amount fees for imparting education. (E) Private sector works better than government sector almost in all areas.
22. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be the conclusion which logically follows the given information?

A. Only (A) B. Only (B) C. Only (C) D. Only (D) E. Both (A) and (B)

23. Which of the following among (A), (C), (D) and (E) may be the reason behind the better standard of education in private schools?

A. Only (A) B. Only (C) C. Only (D) D. Only (E) E. Both (D) and (E)

Directions Q (24 - 28): Each of the questions below consists of a questions and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and — Give an answer
24. How many stations are there while going from station ‘X’ to station ‘Y’?
I. Station ‘G’ precedes station ‘Y’ and station ‘K’ is next station after station ‘X’. II. Station ‘M’ is third from ‘K’ and there are 4 stations between M and Y.

A. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. B. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. C. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. D. if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. E. if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

25. How many books did Dinesh purchase in ‘X’ bookshop?
I. Dinesh wanted to purchase 65 books, but only 45 books were available in shop ‘X’. II. Dinesh selected 37 books but had money to purchase 27 books and asked for some credit to which the shop- keeper of ‘X’ bookstall did not agree.

A. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. B. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. C. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. D. if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. E. if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

26. If the first day of a month is Thursday, how many days were there in that month?
I. The fourth Sunday happened to be on 25th. II. The last day of the month was the fifth Saturday of that month.

A. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. B. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. C. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. D. if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. E. if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

27. How many girls are taller than Samir in his class?
I. When students of Samir’s class are ranked in descending order of their height, Samir’s rank is 17th from the top among all the students and 12th among boys. II. Samir’s rank from the bottom on the basis of height among boys is 18th and among all students is 29th.

A. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. B. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. C. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. D. if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. E. if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

28. Among Nitin, Amit, Sudesh, Rekha and Sujata, who came last for the programme?
I. Nitin came after Amit but not after Sujata. II. Rekha came after Sujata but not after Sudesh.

A. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. B. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. C. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. D. if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. E. if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

29. “We have formulated a 10-point programme to curb molestation cases against women and we are confident of restricting the eve-teasing cases with the help of our sincere cops.”—Director-General of Police of city 'X'.
Which of the following, if true, would weaken the statement?

A. City 'X' is known among those cities where there are least crime records. B. City 'X' is the most populated city in the world. C. On several occasions women have complained against police cops and have charged them of indulging in eve-teasing. D. Literacy rate of city 'X' is the highest amongst all cities. E. Many NGOs are co-operating with the police forces in ensuring a peaceful life in city 'X'.

30. “Monetary loss can be made good but any loss to the country's culture can never be filled.” — A minister of country X. If the above statement is true, then which of the following has been assumed in the statement?

A. People hanker after money ignoring cultural values. B. One can’t bear monetary loss. C. Traditional culture in country X is degrading day by day. D. It is human nature to hanker after money as well as adopt foreign culture. E. Preserving culture is our utmost duty.

Directions Q (31 - 35): Read the following information to answer the questions:
31. P is sitting on the right of which of the following?

A. Doctor B. His wife C. Politician D. S E. Cannot be determined

32. How is P related to Q?

A. Brother B. Brother-in-law C. Uncle D. Husband E. Cannot be determined

33. Who among the following is unmarried?

A. Professor B. Doctor C. Politician D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

34. Who is the Doctor?

A. S B. Q C. P D. R E. Cannot be determined

35. Who amonst them must be a graduate?

A. P B. Q C. R D. S E. More than One

36. Devices that allow you to put information into the computer:

A. input B. output C. type D. print E. None of these

37. The ___________ key and the _________ key can be used in combination with other keys to perform shortcuts and special tasks.

A. Control, Alf B. Function, toggle C. Delete, Insert D. Caps Lock, Num Lock E. None of these

38. Unsolicited commercial email is commonly known as

A. spam B. junk C. hoaxes D. hypertext E. None of these

39. Text and graphics that have been copied are stored in an area called the

A. Pasteboard B. copyboard C. clipboard D. cuttingboard E. None of these

40. The process of writing out computer instructions is known as

A. assembling B. compiling C. executing D. coding E. None of these

41. _______ is the data that has been organised or presented in a meaningful fashion.

A. A process B. Storage C. Software D. Information E. None of these

42. A _________ is a computer attached to the Internet that runs a special Web server software and can send Web pages out to other computers over the Internet.

A. Web client B. Web system C. Web page D. Web server E. None of these

43. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk called

A. configuration B. download C. storage D. upload E. None of these

44. SMTP, FTP and DNS are applications of the ______ layer.

A. data link B. network C. transport D. application E. None of these

45. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the

A. Digital divide B. Internet divide C. Web divide E. Broadband divide E. None of these

Solutions: For Q(1-45)
For Q(1-5) P % Q means P ≤ Q P © Q means P > Q P # Q means P = Q P $ Q means P < Q P @ Q means P ≥ Q
Q1:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
B # F ⇒ B = F
F $ H ⇒ F < H
H © K ⇒ H > K
Hence, B = F K
Conclusions:
I. H @ B ⇒ H ≥ B (Not true) II. K $ B ⇒ K < B (Not true)
Q2:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
H @ T ⇒ H ≥ T
T © N ⇒ T > N
N $ W ⇒ N < W
Hence, H ≥ T > N < W
Conclusions:
I. N $ H ⇒ N < H (True) II. W $ H ⇒ W < H (Not true)
Q3:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
H $ F ⇒ H < F
F % M ⇒ F ≤ M
M © H ⇒ M > J
Hence, H J
Conclusions:
I. J $ F ⇒ J < F (Not true) II. M © H ⇒ M > H (True)
Q4:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
M $ T ⇒ M < T
T % R ⇒ T ≤ R
M © N ⇒ M > N
Hence, N < M < T ≤ R
Conclusions:
I. M $ R ⇒ M < R (True) II. N $ T ⇒ N < T (True)
Q5:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
D $ T ⇒ D < T
T % B ⇒ T ≤ B
B @ F ⇒ B ≥ F
Hence, D < T ≤ B ≥ F
Conclusions:
I. D # T ⇒ D = T (Not true) II. D @ F ⇒ D < T (Not true)
For Q(6-10):
Q6:
Answer: Option B
Q7:
Answer: Option C
Q8:
Answer: Option B
Q9:
Answer: Option C
Q10:
Answer: Option B
For Q(11-16):
P. If Input is 1 2 3 4 5 6 7, then Step I becomes 5 1 2 6 3 4 7. Q. If Step I is 1 2 3 4 5 6 7, then Step II becomes 1 3 5 7 2 4 6. R. If Step II is 1 2 3 4 5 6 7, then Step III becomes 1 5 6 2 7 3 4. S. If Step III is 1 2 3 4 5 6 7, then Step IV becomes 6 4 2 7 5 3 1.

Again, rules P, Q, R and S are used to get steps V, VI, VII and VIII respectively. The process continues for steps IX, X, .... For the sake of convenience, we assign a letter for each word of the Input: and-A, band - B, land - C, hand - D, hind - E, lack - F, job - G
Q11:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Input: do we he is it at all
A B C D E F G
Given step: all we he is do at it
G B C D A F E
Now, see the chart. Letters assigned for step X match with the letters obtained for the given step.
Q12:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Step IV: he is to do what her observe C BA G D F E
Input: A BCD E F G to is he what observe her do
Q13:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Step III: when then men can how are you E A F B D C G
Step VII: D C F B G A E how are men can you then when
Q14:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Input: stejpan mesic is the president of Croatia A B C D E F G
Step VIII: A B C E G F D Stejpan mesic is president Croatia of the
Q15:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Step V: will you hit centuries three again at D C B F A G E
Step VII: D C F B G A E will you centuries hit again three at
Q16:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Step II: has started new BSC batches for PO E B C G A F D
Step VI: D B A E C F G
PO started batches has new for BSC
Q17:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
This statement does not mention anything about healthy people. Neither does it mention about evening walks. Hence none of the conclusions follows.
Q18:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The given statement does not tell anything about life. It only tells about problems and the way to escape from them. Hence conclusion II follows.
Q19:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
As positive premises give only positive conclusions.
So,
Q20:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
As no Indian is an Asian and some being part of all, so statement 1 Follows. Those some Americans who are Indian are not Asians.

Q21:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
There is no correlation among darts and smarts or smarts and charts.

Q22:
Answer: Option E
Q23:
Answer: Option C
Q24:
Answer: Option E
Q25:
Answer: Option B
Q26:
Answer: Option B
Q27:
Answer: Option A
Q28:
Answer: Option E
Q29:
Answer: Option C
Q30:
Answer: Option E
Q31:
Answer: Option E
Q32:
Answer: Option B
Q33:
Answer: Option B
Q34:
Answer: Option B
Q35:
Answer: Option E
Q36:
Answer: Option A
Q37:
Answer: Option A
Q38:
Answer: Option A
Q39:
Answer: Option C
Q40:
Answer: Option D
Q41:
Answer: Option D
Q42:
Answer: Option D
Q43:
Answer: Option D
Q44:
Answer: Option D
Q45:
Answer: Option A

Directions Q (46 - 50): These questions are based on the table and information given below.
There are 6 refineries, 7 depots, and 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF, and BG. The depots are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG. The districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH ad AAI. Table A gives the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B gives the cost of transporting one unit from depot to a district.


46. What is the least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to any district?

A. 95.2 B. 0 C. 205.7 D. 284.5 E. None of these

47. What is the least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to the district AAB?

A. 0 B. 284.5 C. 95.2 D. 294.8 E. None of these

48. What is the least cost of sending one unit from refinery BB to any district?

A. 284.5 B. 311.1 C. 451.1 D. 297.5 E. None of these

49. What is the least cost of sending petrol from refinery BB to district AAA?

A. 765.6 B. 1137.3 C. 1154.3 D. 1174.8 E. None of these

50. How many possible ways are there for sending petrol from any refinery to any district?

A. 63 B. 42 C. 54 D. 378 E. None of these

Directions Q (51 - 55): Study the following raph and table to answer the questions that follow.


51. What is the number of people of City C in the year 1990 who are below poverty line?

A. 18.6 lakh B. 21.6 lakh C. 22.5 lakh D. 116 1akh E. None of these

52. What is the total population of city 'A', B and 'C' in year 2000 which is above poverty line?

A. 72 lakh B. 90 lakh C. 96 lakh D. 6 E. None of these

53. The number of people of City C in year 1950 who are below poverty line is what percentage of the number of people of City A in year 1990 which are below poverty line?

A. 72.5% B. 52% C. 41.25% D. 31.25% E. 27.75%

54. IWhat is the average number of people of city A, B and C in year 1980 which are below poverty line?

A. 12.8 lakh B. 13.6 lakh C. 14.5 lakh D. 15.6 lakh E. None of these

55. The number of people of City A in year 1970 who are below poverty line is how much % more than the number of people of City B in the year 1970 who are below poverty line?

A. 12.5% B. 15% C. 17.5% D. 20% E. 22.5%

Directions Q (56 - 60): Read the information carefully and answer the questions below to it.
Three dealers 'A', 'B' and 'C sold a total number of 1200 computer systems (both laptop and desktop) in a month. The number of desktops sold by Dealer 'A' is 10% of the total number of systems sold by all three dealers and the total number of systems sold by Dealer 'B' is 415, which is 210 more than the number of laptops sold by Dealer 'A'. The number of laptops sold by Dealer 'B' is 200% of the number of desktops sold by Dealer 'A' number of laptops sold by Dealer-C is 125% of the number of laptops sold by Dealer-B.
56. What is the total number of desktops sold by Dealer C?

A. 120 B. 140 C. 160 D. 175 E. 180

57. What is the total number of laptops sold by all three dealers?

A. 645 B. 725 C. 730 D. 745 E. 750

58. The number of desktops sold by Dealer A is what percentage of the number of laptops sold by Dealer C?

A. 40% B. 50% C. 60% D. 70% E. 80%

59. What is the ratio of the number of desktops sold by Dealer B to the number of laptops sold by Dealer C?

A. 4:7 B. 5:9 C. 5:11 D. 7:12 E. 8:15

60. What is the difference between the number of desktops sold by Dealer 'B' and 'C' together and the number of total computer systems (both desktop and laptop) sold by Dealer A?

A. 50 B. 40 C. 30 D. 20 E. 10

Directions Q (61 - 65): In the given table the information about the number of candidates appeared in an examination, the number of candidates qualified in the examination, % of girls among total appeared candidates and % of boys among qualified candidates is given.

61. What is the total number of girls qualified from city A?

A. 504 B. 564 C. 594 D. 614 E. 634

62. What is the difference between the number of girls appeared from city D and the number of boys appeared from city F?

A. 613 B. 687 C. 746 D. 797 E. None of these

63. What is the ratio of the number of boys qualified from C to the number of girls qualified from 'E'?

A. 4:5 B. 6:5 C. 7:8 D. 10:9 E. 11:11

64. What is the difference between the total number of boys appeared and the total number of girls qualified from all six cities?

A. 39750 B. 40800 C. 41766 D. 42843 E. 43177

65. Total number of girls qualified from all six cities is what percentage of the total number of qualified candidates (Answer in approximate value)?

A. 43% B. 47% C. 53% D. 57% E. 45%

Directions Q (66 - 70): Following table represents the number of primary school teachers and the percentage of female teachers among them in four different years.

66. What is the total number of female teachers in the year 2010?

A. 32614 B. 33553 C. 29986 D. 39754 E. 27262

67. What is the difference between the total number of female teachers and the total number of male teachers in the year 1980?

A. 674 B. 676 C. 678 D. 680 E. 682

68. Total number of female teachers of City A in 2000 is what percentage more than the total number of female teachers of City F in the year 1980?

A. 8.33% B. 9.35% C. 10.38% D. 7.33% E. 6.38%

69. Total number of male teachers of City B in the year 1990 is what percentage of the total number of female teachers of City C in l990?

A. 72% B. 80% C. 100% D. 120% E. 125%

70. What is the ratio of the total number of female teachers of City A in the year 2000 to the total number of female teacher of City B in the year 2010?

A. 4:7 B. 12:17 C. 13:18 D. 21:34 E. 26:35

71. A certain amount of money deposited in a bank grows up to Rs. 10580 in two years and up to `12167 in three years. If the interest is compounded annually, what is the rate of interest?

A. 8% pa B. 12% pa C. 15% pa D. 18% pa E. 20% pa

72. The population of a city increases at the rate of 15% per annum. If the present population of the city is 32 lakh, what will be its population after three years?

A. 46.4 lakh B. 48.668 lakh C. 49.24 lakh D. 45.484 lakh E. None of these

73. The present ages of A, B and C are in the ratio of 2:5 :10* The present ages of B, C and D are the ratio of 4 :8 :13, what is the ratio of the present ages of A, B, C and D?

A. 2:8:10:13 B. 12:30:60:91 C. 8:20:40:65 D. 4:5:10:13 E. None of these

74. A square room is surrounded by a veranda of width 4 metres. If the area of the veranda is 320 sq m then what is the area of the room?

A. 196sqm B. 256sqm C. 324sqm D. 400sqm E. 484sqm

75. A man can swim 72 km upstream and 54 km downstream in 9 hours. Also, he can swim 84 km upstream and 90 km downstream in 12 hours. What is the speed of the man in still water?

A. 9 kmph B. 12 kmph C. 15 kmph D. 18kmph E. 21 kmph

Directions Q (76 - 80): Study the given pie-chart and table and answer the following questions.

Percentage distribution of total TV viewers (in prime time) among different TV channels.

Percentage of urban TV viewers of these channels (Total number of TV viewers is 12 lakh)

76. What is the total number of TV viewers from urban areas for all the channels??

A. 721780 B. 786486 C. 811920 D. 824864 E. None of these

77. What is the average number of TV viewers from rural areas for all the channels??

A. 62178 B. 64680 C. 66370 D. 68484 E. None of these

78. Total number of rural viewers of Sony TV is what percentage of the total number of urban viewers of the same channel?

A. 51.68% B. 52278% C. 53.846% D. 54.272% E. None of these

79. Total number of Sahara TV viewers from urban areas is what percentage more than the total number of rural viewers of SAB TV?

A. 61.24% B. 62.83% C. 63.58% D. 64.57% E. None of these

80. What is the ratio of the total number of rural viewers of Zee TV to the total number of urban viewers of Star TV?

A. 7:23 B. 8:21 C. 9:25 D. 11:32 E. None of these

Solutions: For Q(81-115)
Q46:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The least cost of sending one unit is 0 as it is obvious from table A & B that

Q47:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
From table A & table B BC ⟶ AC , Cost = 0 which is minimum & AC ⟶ AAB , Cost = 284.5 BC ⟶ AAB, Cost = 0 + 284.5 = 284.5 also we have BD ⟶ AE , Cost = 0 which is minimum AE ⟶ AAB, Cost = 95.2 which is least BD ⟶ AAB , Cost = 0 + 95.2 = 95.2 Hence least cost from any refinery to AAB = 95.2
Q48:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Cost from BB ⟶ AB = 311.1 which is least Cost from AB ⟶ AAG = 0 which is also least so least cost from BB ⟶ AAG = 311.1+ 0 = 311.1
Q49:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Least cost from BB to AAA would be on the route BB ⟶ AC ⟶ AAA = 451.1 + 314.5 = 765.6
Q50:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
There are 6 refineries, 7 depot, 9 districts. So total ways from refinery to district = 6 × 7 × 9 = 378
Q(51 - 55):
Venn-Diagram for questions

Q51:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Reqd Ans = 36 x [latex]\frac{60}{100}[/latex] = 21.6 lakh
Q52:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Total = 60 × 0.5 + 48 × 0.75 + 50 × 0.6
= 30 + 36 +30 = 96 lakh
Q53:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
C – 1950 = 10 × 0.8 = 8 lakh,
A – 1990 = 40 × 0.64 = 25.6 lakh
Avg = [latex]\frac{8}{25.6}[/latex]
Q54:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
∴Reqd Ans = [latex]\frac{32 × 0.6 + 30 × 0.4 + 25 × 0.66}{3}[/latex]
[latex]\frac{19.2 + 12 + 16.5}{3}[/latex]
[latex]\frac{47.7}{3}[/latex] = 15.9 lakh
Q55:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
City - A = 24 × .6 = 14.4 lakh, City -B = 25 × .48 = 12 lakh
∴ Reqd Ans = [latex]\frac{14.4 × 12}{12}[/latex] x 100 = [latex]\frac{240}{12}[/latex] = 20%
Q(56 -60):
Q56:
Answer: Option C
Q57:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(205 + 240 + 300 = 745)
Q58:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Ans: [latex]\frac{120}{300}[/latex] x 100 = 40%
Q59:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Ratio = [latex]\frac{175}{300}[/latex] = [latex]\frac{7}{12}[/latex] = 7 :12
Q60:
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Diff = (175 + 160) - (120 + 205) = 335 – 325 = 10
Q61:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Number of girls = [latex]\frac{100 - 67}{100}[/latex] x 1800 = 594
Q62:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Girls-D = 15600 x [latex]\frac{55}{100}[/latex] = 8580
Q63:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
⇒Boys-C = 1680 x [latex]\frac{40}{100}[/latex] = 672
⇒Girls - E = 1120 x [latex]\frac{(100 - 50)}{100}[/latex] = 560 ∴ Ratio = 6 : 5
Q64:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Total boys appeared
= 12300 × 0.63 + 11500 × 0.52 + 16400 × 0.57 + 15600 × 0.45 +17000 × 0.49 + 18100 × 0.43
= 7749 + 5980 + 9348 + 7020 + 8330 + 7783 = 46210
Similarly, total girls qualified = 4444
Diff = 46210 – 4444 = 41766
Q65:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Total qualified candidates = 9450
Total qualified girls = 4444
⇒Reqd. Ans =[latex]\frac{4444}{9450}[/latex] x 100 = 47.026 ≅ 47%
Q66:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Total No. = 11200 × 0.48 + 10500 × 0.5 + 13200 × 0.45 + 9600 × 0.48 + 13200 × 0.55 + 11900 × 0.6 + 9500 × 0.44 = 39754
Q67:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Total no. of females = 27938 Total no. of males = 27262 ∴ Difference = 27938 – 27262 = 676
Q68:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
[latex]{Female}_{F=1980}[/latex] = 7500 × 0.48 = 3600
[latex]{Female}_{A=2000}[/latex]= 9750 × 0.4 = 3900 ∴ Req. % = [latex]\frac{3900 - 3600}{3600}[/latex] x 100 = 8.33%
Q69:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
[latex]{male}_{1990}[/latex]= 8200 × 0.48 = 3936
[latex]{Female}_{1990}[/latex]= 9600 × 0.41 = 3936 Req. % = [latex]\frac{3936 - 3936}{3600}[/latex] x 100 = 100%
Q70:
Answer: Option E
Q71:
Answer: Option C
Q72:
Answer: Option B
Q73:
Answer: Option C
Q74:
Answer: Option B
Q75:
Answer: Option C
Q76:
Answer: Option C
Q77:
Answer: Option B
Q78:
Answer: Option C
Q79:
Answer: Option D
Q80:
Answer: Option B

Directions(81-86): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Thinking of what education might look like in the next decade, one quickly realizes that the trends in technology are leaving a large number of our students behind. Today is an age of exponential change. New and ever-improving technologies are popping up every day and in every corner of society.
Educating the best and the brightest in this brave new world will take a new and improved educational paradigm. Allowing our educational tools to age in the corner of the classroom will be the mistake that may cost us our future. Throwing away masses of children to inequitable access will ensure that we languish at the bottom of the global pool of employable workers for decades to come.
Technology will shape in a way we educate students in the next decade. A user is not simply a person who uses. For the student, being a user should involve using the latest technology in a free and autonomous manner. This new-found freedom will allow the student to become an active participant in his/her education instead of a passive passenger. In our current technological society, being a user also means being tracked. Tracking a student means having the ability to target education towards weaknesses and strengths. The ability to accurately customize curricula to the individual has been the holy grail of educational philosophy for many years. This golden age of technological development may soon enable this dream to become a reality.
Current educational curricula and individual assessment is arbitrary at best. Accurately assessing a student can only be achieved by using modern tracking and database technologies. Imagine a world where every child has a tablet computer with ready access to the internet. Further, imagine that every student can access all the knowledge of humankind freely at any moment in time. Continue to imagine a world where a misspelled word brings up a spelling challenge application instead of an auto correction. Try to contemplate what it would mean for a teacher to have a database of every misspelled word, every misunderstood concept or every missed, equation for each of their students. Try to envision a teacher with the ability to customize the experience of the individual “user” with minimal effort. Imagine the curriculum being automatically targeted to the user through an intuitive educational platform that knows all strengths and each unique weakness. In the last few hundred years, most individuals would consider an education as something you receive. You often hear the question asked, “Where did you receive your education?” As we proceed through the next decade, education will slowly move away from reception and toward being custom designed for the individual user. New technology will not only allow us to receive an education, but also develop an education. The question we might ask in ten years, “How did you develop your education?” The question of where will still be important, but the how of the matter will be the focus that defines the individual.
To make this a reality we will need a standardized platform from which to develop a student's unique education. This standardized platform will allow us to tailor a custom curriculum that will be matched to talents, interests and life goals. For the educator, a standardized platform will create a way to assist the student in discovering a true purpose in life through a unique educational experience. The basics of reading, writing and arithmetic will not be taught as much as they will be discovered and used. Learning will become a reciprocal experience between the teacher, the student and the machine.
Under a standardized platform, each of these three participants will have a role to play. The teacher will be the facilitator, assisting the development of the curriculum and inspiring the direction the student takes. The student will be the user, gathering resources, skills and knowledge in an efficient and measured sequence. The machine will do the work of data gathering and analysis, which will assist the teacher and student in refining the curriculum. This data gathering work of the machine will also free the teacher from the burden of record-keeping and tedious tasks that currently distract from the real job of teaching and learning.
Under a standardized system, grade level will be far less important. Achievement and progression will be measured by accomplishment and intelligence as a benchmark for success. The question of failure or success will be irrelevant and replaced with a standard and consistent measurement of potential and overall intelligence. Information will no longer be missed but continually rehearsed and monitored for retention by the machine. Tasks such as data tracking, reporting and record keeping are currently accomplished manually. These tasks could easily be delegated to an intuitive database. Developing a standard to follow would eliminate these tasks and free the teacher to do their main job of teaching students.
The next decade may mark the moment in history when all are granted equal access to technology. Access to quality education will only be gained through investment and universal standardization of this technology. If we continue to divert wealth towards fruitless goals and corporate greed, this opportunity will be lost or hopelessly delayed
81. According to the author, which of the following will be the benefit(s) of introducing a standardized technological platform? A. Potential of a child will take precedence over the grades he/she scores. B. Improving the educational syllabus would become easier. C. Teachers would be able to devote more time to teaching

A. Only C B. All (A), (B) and (C) C. Only (B) and (C) D. Only (A) and (B) E. Only (A)

82. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage? A. In the presence of technology each student would require constant monitoring by other individuals to maximize learning. B. Educational philosophy is based on the belief of tailoring educational syllabus to individual student capability. C. The author visualizes that each student 'will have access to technology in the future.

A. Only (A) and (B) B. Only (B) C. Only (C) D. Only (B) and (C) E. All (A), (B) and (C)

83. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?’

A. Technology - A Welcome Relief to Teachers B. Revamping the Educational Sector - An Impossible Future C. Education - Arbitrary But a Reality D. Technology and the Economy E. Technology - Reshaping the Future of Education

84. How, according to the author, will the perception towards education change over the next decade?

A. Where an individual gets his education will gain increasing importance B. Education will be viewed as a prerogative of the elite only C. Creativity in an individual will be regarded as needless D. The importance of education will decline E. None of these

85. What does the author mean by the term “tracking a student”

A. Analyzing the strengths and weaknesses of a student and designing an educational syllabus accordingly B. Assessing whether a student is paying due attention to the existing curriculum offered by an institute of learning C. Analyzing the positives and negatives of an educational institute and modifying it suitably to cater to industrial requirements D. Following a student to the educational institute that he visits frequently in order to estimate the time he spends there E. None of these

86. According to the author, why is the current education provided not satisfactory?

A. The teachers providing education are not qualified enough to emphasize on quality B. Quality of education provided is not uniform across the globe and individual assessment is subjective C. The educational sector is fraught with corrupt practices and thus does not produce the desired result D. The education system is not guided by technology and hence the pace of learning is slow E. There are too many schools in the country which cannot be monitored effectively

Directions(87-88): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
87. RECIPROCAL’

A. interactive B. unresponsive C. reverse D. regular E. inverse

88. PARADIGM?

A. change B. shift C. future D. model E. diagnosis

Directions(89-90): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
89. INEQUITABLE?

A. abundant B. complete C. unequal D. fair E. sufficient

90. LANGUISH?

A. ripen B. hasten C. flourish D. weaken E. climb

Directions(91-93): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
91. What goes into making a marriage can only be ________ by trial and error and couples are best left to ________ out what works

A. discovered, translate B. regulated, find C. learnt, figure D. seen, thrash E. experienced, judge

92. The producer is known to ________ with new stars and fresh talent, and though there have been a few hits and misses, this filmmaker totally ________ for the new breed.

A. try, demands B. experiment, vouches C. sign, goes D. produce, promises E. work, supports

93. The Government stated that it had the ________ right to use as much force as was necessary to regain control of areas by ________ terrorists.

A. free, marked B. practical, left C. fundamental, infest D. basic, undertaken E. legitimate, dominated

Directions(94-97): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (A) However, many people may not be aware of the numerous other areas where it has been applied. (B) Today, even, those who have little knowledge about the production of virtual reality are now most likely aware of its use in video games. (C) Similarly, medical students have substituted a cadaver for a fiberglass mold of a body and a headset when training to perform surgery. (D) Virtual reality was an unfamiliar concept to many people till the early 90's. (E) Introducing virtual reality to the real world, thus, has already proven to be beneficial for every industry it encounters. For example, astronaut trainees have recently used virtual reality to simulate a trip to space.
94. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement

A. E B. F C. A D. D E. B

95. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

96. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

97. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement

A. B B. C C. D D. E E. F

98. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

Directions(99-101): In each of these sentences, parts of the sentence are numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). One of these parts has some error in it. The error may be either of spelling or grammar or wrong word or unnecessary word etc. The letter of the part that contains the error is the answer
99.

A. The roll B. of the institute is to provide technical support to other institutions and to constantly monitor C. their facilities D. and performance E. No error

100.

A. The competitive B. edge for survival C. lays D. in the effective use of information technology E. No error

101.

A. The most popular B. method adopted C. by an organisation to communicate D. job vacancies to the public is through advertisement. E. No error

Directions(102-111): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Prior to independence the healthcare sector in India was in a (102) with a large number of deaths and rampant spread of infectious diseases. After independence the Government of India laid (103) on primary healthcare and India has put in sustained efforts to better the healthcare system (104) the country, The government initiative was not enough to meet the demands of a growing population be it in primary, secondary or tertiary healthcare. Alternate sources of finance were critical for the sustainability of the health sector.
Till about 20 years ago, private sector ventures in the healthcare sector (105) of only solo practitioners, small hospitals and nursing homes. The quality of service provided was excellent especially in the hospitals run by charitable trusts and religious foundations. In 1980’s realizing that the government on its own would not be able to (106) for healthcare, the government allowed the entry of private sector to reduce the (107) between supply and demand for healthcare. The establishment of the private sector has resulted in the (108) of opportunities in terms of medical equipment, information technology in health services. BPO, telemedicine and medical tourism.
Large companies and (109) individuals have now started five star hospitals which dominate the space for the high end market. The private sector has made (110) progress, but on the flip side it is also responsible for increasing (111) in the healthcare sector. The private sector should be more socially relevant and effort must be made to make private sector accessible to the weaker sections of society
102.

A. shambles B. failure C. demand D. prosperity E. ruined

103.

A. bricks B. emphasize C. request D. stress E. important

104.

A. through B. through C. sharing D. with E. on

105.

A. made B. comprise C. consisted D. is E. contained

106.

A. cater B. provide C. manage D. survive E. give

107.

A. gap B. position C. distance D. length E. thought

108.

A. reduction B. sea C. cropping D. disabling E. emergence

109.

A. needy B. destitute C. bigger D. affluent E. much

110.

A. slowly B. improve C. many D. improvised E. tremendous

111.

A.speed B. pace C. inequality D. uniformity E. seriousness

Directions(112-113): Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (E), ie ‘None of these’, as the answer.
112. Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for formation of separate States, a recent report __________

A. proved that such agitations result in loss of governmental property B. indicated that the formation of small states does not necessarily improve the economy C. suggested that only large-scale agitations have been effective in bringing out desired change in the past D. recommended dividing large States into smaller ones to improve governance E. None of these

113. Overlooking the fact that water scarcity intensifies during summer, __________.

A. the government issued guidelines to all builders to limit their consumption to acceptable limits B. provision for rainwater harvesting has been made to aid irrigation in drought-prone areas C. the water table did not improve even after receiving normal monsoon in the current year D. many residential areas continue to use swimming pools, wasting large quantities of water E. None of these

Directions(114-115): In each of the following questions four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning.
114. (A) Fallacy (B) Adage (C) Dictum (D) Endorse

A. B - D B. C - D C. B - C D. A - D E. A - B

115. (A) Elevate (B) Frugal (C) Exult (D) Lament

A. C - D B. A - B C. B - C D. B - D E. A - D

Solutions: For Q(81-115)
Q81:
Answer: Option B
Q82:
Answer: Option D
Q83:
Answer: Option E
Q84:
Answer: Option E
Q85:
Answer: Option D
Q86:
Answer: Option D
Q87:
Answer: Option A
Q88:
Answer: Option D
Q89:
Answer: Option D
Q90:
Answer: Option C
Q91:
Answer: Option C
Q92:
Answer: Option B
Q93:
Answer: Option E
Q94:
Answer: Option B
Q95:
Answer: Option D
Q96:
Answer: Option E
Q97:
Answer: Option A
Q98:
Answer: Option C
Q99:
Answer: Option A
Q100:
Answer: Option C
Q101:
Answer: Option C
Q102:
Answer: Option A
Q103:
Answer: Option D
Q104:
Answer: Option B
Q105:
Answer: Option C
Q106:
Answer: Option B
Q107:
Answer: Option A
Q108:
Answer: Option D
Q109:
Answer: Option B
Q110:
Answer: Option E
Q111:
Answer: Option C
Q112:
Answer: Option C
Q113:
Answer: Option D
Q114:
Answer: Option C
Q115:
Answer: Option A

116. Consider the following with respect to Debit Cards: (A) These cards can be used at point of sale centres. (B) Banks earn huge amount as penalties for defaulting payments through these cards. (C) It can be used for normal withdrawals.
Which of the above cannot be feature(s) of a Debit Card?

A. Only (A) B. Only (B) C. Only (C) D. Only (A) and (B) E. Only (B) and (C)

117. Which of the following ministries gives Dada saheb Phalke Award?

A. Ministry of Science of Technology B. Ministry of HR Development C. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting D. Ministry of Finance E. None of these

118. The tax levied on the manufacture or production of goods is called

A. Value Added Tax B. Customs Duty C. Sales Tax D. Excise Duty E. None of these

119. The source(s) of revenue of the state government is/are

A. entertainment tax B. land revenue C. excise duty on intoxicants D. Only (A) and (B) E. All (A), (B) and (C)

120. BAFTA awards are associated with which of the following fields

A. Science and Technology B. Film and Television C. Literature D. Bravery E. None of these

121. Which of the following statements is/are correct about demat accounts in India

A. the term ‘demat’ refers to a dematerialized account for individual Indian citizens to trade in listed stocks or debentures in electronic form. B. A demat account is opened by an investor while registering with an investment broker (or sub-broker). C. A demat account is a type of savings account offered by all the scheduled banks. D. Only (A) and (B) E. Only (A) and (C)

122. Indian Journalists' Association (IJA) in London was set up in

A. May 1947 B. August 1947 C. January 1950 D. September 2000 E. None of these

123. When is World Water Day Celebrated annually

A. 22 March B. 5 March C. 13 March D. 20 March E. None of these

124. In a mature market, challenges are _____

A. Intense B. Weak C. Concentrated D. Deep E. None of these

125. Delivery services offered by restaurants and food chains on phone calls are _____

A. Sales promotion B. Direct marketing C. Publicity D. Personal selling E. None of these

126. ______ is a strength associated with franchising

A. Reduces marketing promotional and administration costs B. Goal conflict does not arise C. Reduces levels of channel conflict within the channel D. Combine the strengths of a large sophisticated marketing-oriented organization with the energy and motivation of a locally owned outlet E. All of the above

127. When firms create retail outlets and producers control purchasing, production and marketing, it creates _____ ?

A. Administered vertical marketing system B. Central vertical marketing system C. Corporate vertical marketing system D. Contractual vertical marketing system E. Franchising

128. Fiscal policy means:

A. The credit policy B. The planning policy C. The taxation policy D. The expenditure and public debt policy E. None of these

129. Which organisation conducts the functions of a Central Bank in India?

A. State Bank of India B. Central Bank of India C. NABARD D. RBI E. All of them undertake parts of the functions

130. Which one of the following is not a quantitative control method of credit control?

A. Cash reserve Ratio B. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) C. Bank – Rate D. Selective Credit Control E.None of these

131. Which of the following awards is given by UNESCO to those who popularize use of science in life?

A. Booker Prize B. Magsaysay Award C. Kalinga Award D. Kalidas Samman E. None of these

132. When is International Right To Know day observed?

A. 25th Jan. B. 18th Dec. C. 24th Oct. D. 28th Sept. E. None of these

133. State Bank of India was formed in?

A. 1955 B. 1949 C. 1959 D. 1935 E. None of these

134. The proposed ‘Micro-Finance Bill’ is concerned with:

A. Regional Rural Banks B. Co-operative Banks C. NABARD D. All of the above E. None of these

135. ‘Out of My comfort Zone’ is the autobiography of a Cricketer in which he has written the adverse effects of drinking culture of his term. Name the Cricketer.:

A. Imran Khan B. Sanath Jaisurya C. Allan Border D. Steve Waugh E. None of these

136. The word ‘NELP’ is associated with

A. Discovery of Oil and Natural Gas B. National Highways Extension C. Communications D. Space Research E. None of these

137. Companies which generally finance the early-stage, high potential, high risk growth startup companies are _______

A. Micro-Finance companies B. Venture Capital Funds C. Corporate Financing Banks D. Non-Banking Finance Companies E. State Finance Corporations

138. What is the full form of FEMA

A. Foreign Exchange Money Agency B. Foreign Exchange Money Act C. Full Exchange money Agency D. Foreign Exchange Management Act E. None of these

139. Which of the following is not a credit rating agency

A. WADA B. Fitch C. CRISIL D. Moody E. S & P

140. In which year, Indian Rupee was devalued for the first time

A. 1965 B. 1966 C. 1968 D. 1971 E. None of these

141. SEBI was established in the year

A. 1994 B. 1990 C. 1992 D. 1982 E. 1995

142. Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) are financial institution that

A. holds a banking license B. does not hold a banking license C. are government undertaking institutions D. are not government undertaking institutions E. None of these

143. Where is the headquarters of "Society for worldwide Inter bank Financial Telecommunication - SWIFT" situated

A. New York B. Los Angels C. Brussels D. Hague E. None of these

144. Where has National Financial Switch of IDRBT established

A. Mumbai B. New Delhi C. Hyderabad D. Bangalore E. None of these

145. The following is the mechanism of injecting liquidity by RBI to the financial system

A. Reverse Repo B. Hike in CRR C. Hike in interest rate D. Repo E. None of these

146. The following is the mechanism of injecting liquidity by RBI to the financial system

147. Chief of RBI is officially known as

A. President of RBI B. Chief Executive of RBI C. Managing Director (MD) of RBI D. Executive Director of RBI E. Governor of RBI

148. What does SAPTA stand for

A. South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement B. South Asian Post Trade Agreement C. SAARC Preferential Trade Agreement D. SAARC Post Trade Agreement E. None of these

149. Which of the following is not correctly matched

A. Mutual Fund-SEBI B. ULIP-SEBI C. Pension-PFRDA D. Insurance-IRDA E. None of the above

150. Which among the following is a correct statement

A. Cooperative Banks are fully controlled by RBI B. Cooperative Banks are partially controlled by RBI C. Cooperative Banks are not controlled by RBI D. Cooperative Banks are fully controlled by Banking Regulation Act, 1949 E. None of the above is correct

151. "Muhammad Yunus" is associated with Banking Industry and is acclaimed for his contribution in the field of ____

A. Micro-finance B. Technological advancement C. Consumer finance D. Banking Reforms in Bangladesh E. Low-cost housing

152. The Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance was also known as __:

A. Hilton-Young Commission B. Hartog Commission C. Muddiman Committee D. Buttler Commission E. None of these

153. What is the Targeted Operating Ratio for the Indian Railways for the year 2016-17 in the Railway Budget 2016-17?

A. 90% B. 92% C. 91% D. 89% E. None of these

154. ICGS Arnvesh has been commissioned by the Indian Coast Guard in which state?

A. Tamil Nadu B. Kerala C. West Bengal D. Andhra Pradesh E. None of these

155. The World Tuberculosis Day is observed on which date

A. February 10 B. March 24 C. March 28 D. April 5 E. None of these

Solutions: For Q(116-155)
Q116:
Answer: Option B
Q117:
Answer: Option C
Q118:
Answer: Option D
Q119:
Answer: Option E
Q120:
Answer: Option B
Q121:
Answer: Option D
Q122:
Answer: Option A
Q123:
Answer: Option A
Q124:
Answer: Option B
Q125:
Answer: Option C
Q126:
Answer: Option E
Q127:
Answer: Option C
Q128:
Answer: Option D
Q129:
Answer: Option D
Q130:
Answer: Option D
Q131:
Answer: Option C
Q132:
Answer: Option D
Q133:
Answer: Option A
Q134:
Answer: Option D
Q135:
Answer: Option D
Q136:
Answer: Option A
Q137:
Answer: Option B
Q138:
Answer: Option D
Q139:
Answer: Option A
Q140:
Answer: Option B
Q141:
Answer: Option C
Q142:
Answer: Option B
Q143:
Answer: Option C
Q144:
Answer: Option C
Q145:
Answer: Option D
Q146:
Answer: Option D
Q147:
Answer: Option E
Q148:
Answer: Option A
Q149:
Answer: Option B
Q150:
Answer: Option B
Q151:
Answer: Option A
Q152:
Answer: Option A
Q153:
Answer: Option B
Q154:
Answer: Option D
Q155:
Answer: Option B