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SEBI Assistant Manager Phase I Practice Test

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SEBI Assistant Manager Phase I Practice Test

shape Introduction

Phase I Examination is important to qualify for the Phase II Examination. SEBI Assistant Manager Phase I Practice & Mock Test section allows candidates to practice the learned material to ensure the candidate understands the pattern of the exam and the expected questions that would appear in the actual test.


shape Pattern

Stream Tests No. of
Questions
Maximum Marks Version Duration
General, Legal,
Information
Technology and
Engineering
General Awareness 40 40 Bilingual i.e.
Hindi and
English except
English Language.
120 minutes
English Language 40 40
Quantitative Aptitude 40 40
Test of Reasoning 40 40
Awareness about
Securities Market
40 40
Total 200 200


shape Syllabus

[Click Here] for SEBI Assistant Manager Phase I Syllabus


shape Samples

1. India has invited Pakistan to visit sites of the Pakal Dul and Lower Kalnal hydro-electric projects on which river?

    A. Yamuna
    B. Chenab
    C. Jhelum
    D. None of the above


Answer – Option B


2. The 115th meeting of the India-Pakistan Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) was held where?

    A. Lahore
    B. Islamabad
    C. Istanbul
    D. None of the above


Answer – Option A


3. National Trust Centre would be created for certifying devices and applications for machine-to-machine communication by which commission?

    A. Telephone Commission
    B. Maritime Commission
    C. Military Commission
    D. None of the above


Answer – Option A


4. SBI Hikes Benchmark Lending Rate By how much?

    A. 0.2 %
    B. 0.4%
    C. 0.3%
    D. None of the above


Answer – Option A


5. GDP growth soars to how much in first quarter?

    A. 8.2 %
    B. 8.5%
    C. 7.68%
    D. None of the above


Answer – Option A


6. Who wrote the famous book – ‘We the people’?

    A. T.N.Kaul
    B. J.R.D. Tata
    C. Khushwant Singh
    D. Nani Palkhivala


Answer – Option D


7. Who is the author of the book ‘Forbidden Verses’?

    A. Salman RushDie
    B. Abu Nuwas
    C. Ms. Taslima Nasrin
    D. D.H. Lawrence


Answer – Option B


8. Which of the following books has been written by Vikram Seth?

    A. My God Died Young
    B. Islamic Bomb
    C. Look Back in Anger
    D. A Suitable Boy


Answer – Option D


9. Who wrote the line: ‘ A thing of beauty is a joy forever’?

    A. John Keats
    B. Robert Browing
    C. P.B.Shelley
    D. William Wordsworth


Answer – Option B


10. The Battle of Plassey was fought in

    A. 1757
    B. 1782
    C. 1748
    D. 1764


Answer – Option A


11. The territory of Porus who offered strong resistance to Alexander was situated between the rivers of

    A. Sutlej and Beas
    B. Jhelum and Chenab
    C. Ravi and Chenab
    D. Ganga and Yamuna


Answer – Option B


12. Tripitakas are sacred books of

    A. Buddhists
    B. Hindus
    C. Jains
    D. None of the above


Answer – Option A


13. The trident-shaped symbol of Buddhism does not represent

    A. Nirvana
    B. Sangha
    C. Buddha
    D. Dhamma


Answer – Option A


14. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is on the river

    A. Ganga
    B. Cauvery
    C. Narmada
    D. Godavari


Answer – Option D


15. The percentage of irrigated land in India is about

    A. 45
    B. 65
    C. 35
    D. 25


Answer – Option C


16. The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is

    A. north of Tropic of Cancer
    B. south of the Equator
    C. south of the Capricorn
    D. north of the Equator


Answer – Option D


17. The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called

    A. the Palghat gap
    B. the Bhorghat pass
    C. the Thalgat pass
    D. the Bolan pass


Answer – Option A


18. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India, is known as

    A. Ganga
    B. Indus
    C. Brahmaputra
    D. Mahanadi


Answer – Option C


19. The Salal Project is on the river

    A. Chenab
    B. Jhelum
    C. Ravi
    D. Sutlej


Answer – Option A


20. The only zone in the country that produces gold is also rich in iron is

    A. North-eastern zone
    B. North-western zone
    C. Southern zone
    D. None of the above


Answer – Option C


21. The Parliament of India cannot be regarded as a sovereign body because

    A. it can legislate only on subjects entrusted to the Centre by the Constitution
    B. it has to operate within the limits prescribed by the Constitution
    C. the Supreme Court can declare laws passed by parliament as unconstitutional if they contravene the provisions of the Constitution
    D. All of the above


Answer – Option D


22. The name of the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi islands was changed to Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in

    A. 1970
    B. 1971
    C. 1972
    D. 1973


Answer – Option D


23. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by

    A. the people
    B. Lok Sabha
    C. elected members of the legislative assembly
    D. elected members of the legislative council


Answer – Option C


24. The members of the panchayat are

    A. nominated by the district officer
    B. the electorates of the respective territorial constituencies
    C. nominated by local self-government minister of the state
    D. nominated by the block development organization


Answer – Option B


25. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the

    A. Parliament
    B. Supreme Court
    C. High courts
    D. Election Commission


Answer – Option C


26. The present Lok Sabha is the

    A. 14th Lok Sabha
    B. 15th Lok Sabha
    C. 16th Lok Sabha
    D. 17th Lok Sabha


Answer – Option D


27. Development expenditure of the Central government does not include

    A. defence expenditure
    B. expenditure on economic services
    C. expenditure on social and community services
    D. grant to states


Answer – Option A


28. ICICI is the name of a

    A. chemical industry
    B. bureau
    C. corporation
    D. financial institution


Answer – Option D


29. Gilt-edged market means

    A. bullion market
    B. market of government securities
    C. market of guns
    D. market of pure metals


Answer – Option B


30. In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest foreign direct investment inflows into India?

    A. Chemicals other than fertilizers
    B. Services sector
    C. Food processing
    D. Telecommunication


Answer – Option D


31. The ratio of width of our National flag to its length is

    A. 3:5
    B. 2:3
    C. 2:4
    D. 2:4


Answer – Option B


32. Rabindranath Tagore’s ‘Jana Gana Mana’ has been adopted as India’s National Anthem. How many stanzas of the said song were adopted?

    A. Only the first stanza
    B. The whole song
    C. Third and Fourth stanza
    D. First and Second stanza


Answer – Option A


33. ‘Natya – Shastra’ the main source of India’s classical dances was written by

    A. Nara Muni
    B. Bharat Muni
    C. Abhinav Gupt
    D. Tandu Muni


Answer – Option B


34. ‘Dandia’ is a popular dance of

    A. Punjab
    B. Gujarat
    C. Tamil Nadu
    D. Maharashtra


Answer – Option B


35. The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from

    A. Rigveda
    B. Satpath Brahmana
    C. Mundak Upanishad
    D. Ramayana


Answer – Option C


36. Who was the first Indian to win the World Amateur Billiards title?

    A. Geet Sethi
    B. Wilson Jones
    C. Michael Ferreira
    D. Manoj Kothari


Answer – Option B


37. Former Australian captain Mark Taylor has had several nicknames over his playing career. Which of the following was NOT one of them?

    A. Tubby
    B. Stodge
    C. Helium Bat
    D. Stumpy


Answer – Option D


38. Which was the 1st non Test playing country to beat India in an international match?

    A. Canada
    B. Sri Lanka
    C. Zimbabwe
    D. East Africa


Answer – Option B


39. Track and field star Carl Lewis won how many gold medals at the 1984 Olympic games?

    A. Two
    B. Three
    C. Four
    D. Eight


Answer – Option A


40. Who is the first Indian woman to win an Asian Games gold in 400m run?

    A. M.L.Valsamma
    B. P.T.Usha
    C. Kamaljit Sandhu
    D. K.Malleshwari


Answer – Option C

Direction(1-10):So let us pose the question differently — who suffers in the absence of a Uniform Civil Code? Is it Muslim women, victims of polygamy and triple talaq, as Hindutvavadi wisdom has it? But for decades, feminist legal practice has successfully used both the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 — that is available to all Indian citizens regardless of religious identity — as well as the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, to deal with polygamy and triple talaq, and to obtain maintenance, child custody and rights to matrimonial home for countless Muslim women. In addition, feminist legal activists have used the landmark Shamim Ara v. State of U.P. (2002) ruling to buttress their claim that arbitrary triple talaq is invalid.
Moreover, polygamy is not exclusive to Muslims. Hindu men are polygamous too, except that because polygamy is legally banned in Hindu law, subsequent wives have no legal standing and no protection under the law. Under Sharia law, on the contrary, subsequent wives have rights and husbands have obligations towards them. If gender justice is the value we espouse, rather than monogamy per se, we would be thinking about how to protect “wives” in the patriarchal institution of marriage. “Wives” are produced through the institution of compulsory heterosexual marriage, the basis of which is the sexual division of labour. This institution is sustained by the productive and reproductive labour of women, and almost all women are exclusively trained to be wives alone.
Thus, when a marriage fails to fulfil its patriarchal promise of security in return for that labour, all that most women are left with is the capacity for unskilled labour. Or they remain trapped in marriage with children to provide for, while men marry again, legally or otherwise, producing still more dependent, exploited wives and children for whom they take no responsibility. If gender justice is the point of legal reforms, the centrality and power of the compulsory heterosexual, patriarchal marriage, and the damage it can do to women, is what must be mitigated. This would mean recognising the reality of multiple “wives” as a common practice across communities, and the protection of the rights of all women in such relationships.In this sense, recent Supreme Court rulings that have granted rights to second wives in Hindumarriages dilute the legal standing of monogamy for Hindus but empower women.
A survey conducted by the Bharatiya Muslim Mahila Andolan, a significant voice in the debate, found that more than 90 per cent of Muslim women in India want a ban on “triple talaq” and polygamy in Muslim Personal Law. That is, the demand is made within the framework of codifying Muslim Personal Law, not in favour of a Uniform Civil Code, partly because there is no clarity on what a uniform code would look like, but also because the demand comes from clearly Hindutvavadi quarters which have shown that both women and minorities are expendable for them.

1. What according to the passage founded in a survey conducted by the Bharatiya Muslim Mahila Andolan?

    A. polygamy is not only exclusive to Muslims
    B. “Wives” are produced through the institution of compulsory heterosexual marriage, the basis
    C. more than 90 per cent of Muslim women in India want a ban on “triple talaq” and polygamy
    D. Both A and B


Answer – Option C

Explanation – more than 90 per cent of Muslim women in India want a ban on “triple talaq” and polygamy
in Muslim Personal Law


2. Which among the following is TRUE according to the passage given above?

    A. feminist legal activists have used the landmark Shamim Ara v. State of U.P. (2012) ruling to buttress their claim that arbitrary triple talaq is invalid
    B. Domestic Violence Act, 2006 that is available to all Indian citizens regardless of religious
    identity
    C. polygamy is legally banned in Hindu law
    D. Both A and B


Answer – Option C

Explanation – polygamy is legally banned in Hindu law


3. What is the recent Supreme Court rule?

    A. Under Sharia law, on the contrary, subsequent wives have rights and husbands have
    obligations towards them
    B. granted rights to second wives in Hindu marriages dilute the legal standing of monogamy for Hindus but empower women
    C. when a marriage fails to fulfil its patriarchal promise of security in return for that labour, all that most women are left with is the capacity for unskilled labour
    D. Both A and C.


Answer – Option B

Explanation – granted rights to second wives in Hindu marriages dilute the legal standing of monogamy for Hindus but empower women


4. Which of the following is/are true regarding Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986?

    A. it deal with polygamy and triple talaq
    B. wives have no legal standing and no protection under the law
    C. and to obtain maintenance child custody and rights to matrimonial home for countless
    Muslim women
    D. both A and C


Answer – Option D

Explanation – both A and C


5. Which of the following would be a suitable title of the passage?

    A. The real issue of gender justice
    B. Lessons from the Goa experience
    C. A stick to beat Muslims with
    D. It isn’t about women


Answer – Option A

Explanation – The real issue of gender justice


6. Which among the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word “subsequent”?

    A. previous
    B. former
    C. earlier
    D. consequent


Answer – Option D

Explanation – consequent – following as a result or effect.


7. Which among the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word “buttress”?

    A. stanchion
    B. shore
    C. weaken
    D. underpinning


Answer – Option C

Explanation – weaken – make or become weaker in power, resolve, or physical strength.


8. Which among the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word “arbitrary”?

    A. reasonable
    B. approximate
    C. reasoned
    D. circumspect


Answer – Option B

Explanation – circumspect


9. Which among the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word “exploited”?

    A. easily
    B. Apply
    C. Employ
    D. noncommercial


Answer – Option D

Explanation – noncommercial – not having a commercial objective; not intended to make a profit.


10. Which among the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word “dilute”?

    A. deliquesce
    B. concentrate
    C. strengthen
    D. thicken


Answer – Option A

Explanation – deliquesce – (of organic matter) become liquid, typically during decomposition.


11. I. Students soon grow _______ of listening to a parade of historical facts
II. He has laid out all his strength and is _______.
III. To attempt to perform the double act is instead to __________ between the two.


    A. weary , oscillate
    B. distracted , reeling
    C. addled , floored
    D. baffled , mislead


Answer – Option A

Explanation – Weary – feeling or showing extreme tiredness
Oscillate- move or swing back and forth in a regular rhythm


12. I. The athlete will have one final ______ before retirement
II. He had a / an _______ with his neighbour’s wife
III. Our horses plodded down the muddy _____.


    A. comical , freaky
    B. witty , screwy
    C. droll , goofy
    D. fling , track


Answer – Option D

Explanation – Fling-throw or hurl forcefully
Track-a rough path or road


13. The Andaman and Nicobar islands ……………………………… terra nullius, or empty space wherein government would not inscribe their authority.

    A. has been historically treated as
    B. was historically been treated as
    C. have historically been treated as
    D. ad historically being treated as


Answer – Option C

Explanation – have historically been treated as is the best suited option


14. After falling consistently against the US Dollar for most of the year, the Rupee ……………………………. at the year-end.

    A. would have managed to gain some ground
    B. had managed to gaining some ground
    C. has been managing for gaining some ground
    D. has managed to gain some ground


Answer – Option D

Explanation – has managed to gain some ground is the best suited alternative


15. It is a known fact that Indian states with a better Human Development Index ………………………………… voter turnouts.

    A. were tending to have
    B. tends to have
    C. has been tends to have
    D. tend to have


Answer – Option D

Explanation – tend to have is the best suited alternative


16. A well-functioning bond market ………………………………………. expectations of all bond market participants are incorporated into the bond price.

    A. had led to efficient pricing of credit risk when
    B. can lead to efficient pricing of credit risk as
    C. has been leading to efficient pricing of credit risk when
    D. would lead to efficient pricing of credit risk while


Answer – Option B

Explanation – can lead to efficient pricing of credit risk as is the best suited alternative


17.Nature

    A. eternal
    B. debase
    C. aspect
    D. accord


Answer – Option C

Explanation – Nature – the basic or inherent features, character, or qualities of something


Direction (18-22): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the following questions.
A. Because the story isn’t dying.
B. Chanda Kochhar’s current term as ICICI Bank CEO runs till March 31, 2019.
C. That means a bluechip business brand, a stock market-listed major bank will have to ride out 300-plus daily news cycles when investigators and investors will both be asking questions.
D. That the ICICI board initially cleared Kochhar and issued public statements of stout support for the CEO are seeming less relevant every day.
E. It’s evolving into new life forms every 2-3 days.
F. So, there are 300 plus daily news cycles between now and Kochhar’s regulation term end.
G. Is that really a smart strategy?

18. Which is the Fourth sentence after Rearrangement?

    A. E
    B. F
    C. C
    D. G


Answer – Option D


19. Which is the First sentence after Rearrangement?

    A. F
    B. A
    C. E
    D. B


Answer – Option D


20. Which is the Fifth sentence after Rearrangement?

    A. C
    B. A
    C. D
    D. F


Answer – Option D


21. Which is the Second sentence after Rearrangement?

    A. F
    B. D
    C. B
    D. A


Answer – Option A


22. Which is the Third sentence after Rearrangement?

    A. D
    B. C
    C. A
    D. B


Answer – Option B


23. With borrowing costs set of rise and global trade tensions adding / to uncertainties in India’s exporters who are yet to capitalise / on the rupee weakness, policymakers will need / to eschew populism and stick at policy prudence if the tenuous momentum / is to be sustained.

    A. With borrowing costs set of rise and global trade tensions adding
    B. to uncertainties in India’s exporters who are yet to capitalise
    C. on the rupee weakness, policymakers will need
    D. to eschew populism and stick at policy prudence if the tenuous momentum


Answer – Option C

Explanation – In 1 , replace ‘of’ with ‘off’
In 2 , replace ‘in’ with ‘for’
In 4 , replace ‘at’ with ‘to’


24. It is ironical that in spite for using toxic chemicals, / producers in the conventional non-organic / sector do not had to spend to / guarantee compliance with foods / safety regulatory requirements.

    A. It is ironical that in spite for using toxic chemicals,
    B. producers in the conventional non-organic
    C. sector do not had to spend to
    D. guarantee compliance with foods


Answer – Option B

Explanation – In 1 , replace ‘for’ with ‘of’
In 3 , replace ‘had’ with ‘have’
In 4 , replace ‘foods’ with ‘food’


25. Couplet : sonnet : limerick

    A. prose
    B. songs
    C. lyrics
    D. poetry


Answer – Option D


26. Kerosene : petrol : diesel

    A. firewood
    B. engine
    C. fuel
    D. coal


Answer – Option C


27. Fly : bee : ant

    A. cockroach
    B. spider
    C. termite
    D. insect


Answer – Option D


28. Which of the following five words is wrongly spelt?

    A. neonatal
    B. widespread
    C. predominant
    D. mainstrem


Answer – Option D

Explanation – The correct spelling of the word is ‘Mainstream’. It means the ideas, attitudes, or activities that are shared by most people and regarded as normal or conventional.


29. Which of the following five words is wrongly spelt?

    A. divergience
    B. cumbersome
    C. cumbrous
    D. enormous


Answer – Option A

Explanation – The correct spelling of the word is ‘Divergence’. It means the process or state of diverging


30. Which of the following five words is wrongly spelt?

    A. braced
    B. Plaguied
    C. invigorating
    D. rejuvenated


Answer – Option B

Explanation – The correct spelling of the word is ‘Plagued’. It means cause continual trouble or distress to.


31. A. venom
B. abysmal
C. bottomless
D. antipathy


    A. B – A
    B. C – A
    C. B – C
    D. B – D


Answer – Option C

Explanation – B – C both are synonyms.
Abysmal – extremely bad; appalling.


32. A. Candid
B. cunning
C. surge
D. patron


    A. B – A
    B. C – A
    C. C – B
    D. B – D


Answer – Option A

Explanation – B – A both are Antonyms.
Candid – truthful and straightforward; frank.
Cunning – having or showing skill in achieving one’s ends by deceit or evasion.


33. A. laconic
B. concise
C. obscene
D. indecent


    A. B – A
    B. C – A
    C. C – B
    D. B – D


Answer – Option D

Explanation – A – B are synonyms.
laconic – (of a person, speech, or style of writing) using very few words.
Concise – giving a lot of information clearly and in a few words; brief but comprehensive.

Directions (34-37): Five statements given below, labeled as a,b,c,d and e. Among these, four statements are in logical error and form coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options choose the option that doesn’t fit into the theme of the passage.

34. A. Midnight has an eerie and slightly occult hold on our imaginations.
B. It is the hour when magic is supposed to take place, when the old falls away and a new day arrives with one twitch of a clock’s minute-hand.
C. It is not feasible for India to progress through the 21st century with 19th-century administrative systems.
D. Midnight also has a sinister ring to it – it is the ‘witching hour’ when bad things happen, or when the knock on the door heralds the assassin or the secret police or the gang of abductors.
E. Or, as Eliot wrote, midnight’s lunar incantations “Dissolve the floors of memory/And all its clear relations,/Its divisions and precisions”.

Answer – Option c

Explanation – Only sentence C. is different from other sentences which talks about the Administrative reforms: Rebolting the steel frame hence, correct answer will be option third.


35. A. Not only is there no one-to-one relationship between interest rates and investment, demonetisation has already done what a rate cut could hope to achieve.
B. Indeed, it has done what repeated signals from RBI have failed to do.
C. Add to this the fact that the US Fed is poised to raise rates at least once, if not twice, this year, liquidity is still surplus,
D. there are signs of asset price bubbles in some asset markets, and the case for a rate cut becomes much weaker.
E. But because it is using economic diplomacy to make more friends or at least transactional acquaintances.

Answer – Option E


36. A. Despite the positive propaganda, a lot of misinformation about GST is swirling in markets and homes.
B. Shops are trying to cash in with pre-GST clearance sales, although they can claim ‘transition credits’ on tax they have already paid on their inventories when GST kicks in.
C. Registered businesses are living in fear of having to file three GST returns a month, but Jaitley says after the first lot are loaded on the GST Network, the technology platform, two of the three returns will be ‘self-populating’ and require little work.
D. It is also a means to break walls between different government agencies and enable best practices being shared.
E. Most of all, there is fear that GST will raise prices across the board.

Answer – Option D

Explanation – only forth statement is different than others which talks about Administrative reforms: Rebolting the steel frame


37. A. Of course, the government loses no opportunity to paint things in political colours, rather than with the broad brush of public good. Now they say there are reforms, but no job creation.
B. At a long Q&A on Tuesday, Jaitley complained that critics will not cease cavilling. “I think some people like to create controversies,” he said.
C. “In 2014 they complained that our reforms are incremental, not big-bang. That argument has been demolished by big-bang reforms like GST, demonetization and the insolvency and bankruptcy law.
D. The third reform has been the creation of an immense sense of competitive spirit among states and districts by ranking them, and increasingly selecting them for projects through a challenge method.
E. ” He said a lot of jobs are being created outside the formal sector, as in self-employment.

Answer – Option D

Explanation – only forth statement is different than others which talks about competitive spirit among states and districts while other statements talk about GST.


38. This surface feels smooth.

    A. This surface is felt smooth
    B. This surface is smooth when it is felt
    C. This surface when felt is smooth
    D. This surface is smooth as felt


Answer – Option A


39. Our task had been completed before sunset.

    A. We completed our task before sunset.
    B. We have completed our task before sunset
    C. We complete our task before sunset.
    D. We had completed our task before sunset.


Answer – Option D


40. Why do you tell a lie?

    A. Why a lie told by you?
    B. Why is a lie be told by you?
    C. Why is a lie told by you?
    D. Why is a lite being told you?


Answer – Option C

1. Simplify the given question and identify what value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the questions given below? 40% of (\(\frac {20}{4}\)× ?) = 48

    A. 20
    B. 24
    C. 28
    D. 32


Answer – Option B


2. A batsman scored 110 runs which included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes. What percent of his total score did he make by running between the wickets?

    A. 45%
    B. 45\(\frac {5}{11}\)%
    C.54\(\frac {6}{11}\)%
    D.55%


Answer – Option B

Explanation –Number of runs made by running = 110 – (3 x 4 + 8 x 6)
= 110 – (60)
= 50.
Required percentage = \(\frac {5}{110\)X100 % = 45\(\frac {5}{11}\)%


3. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:

    A. 39, 30
    B. 41, 32
    C. 42, 33
    D. 43, 34


Answer – Option C

Explanation – Let their marks be (x + 9) and x.
Then, x + 9 = \(\frac {56}{100}\) (x + 9 + x)
25(x + 9) = 14(2x + 9)
=> 3x = 99
=> x = 33
So, their marks are 42 and 33.


4. What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit’s digit?

    A. 1
    B. 14
    C. 20
    D. 21


Answer – Option C

Explanation – Clearly, the numbers which have 1 or 9 in the unit’s digit, have squares that end in the digit 1. Such numbers from 1 to 70 are 1, 9, 11, 19, 21, 29, 31, 39, 41, 49, 51, 59, 61, 69.
Number of such number =14
Required percentage = \(\frac {14}{70}\) X 100% = 20%.


5. A man buys a cycle for Rs. 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. What is the selling price of the cycle?

    A. Rs. 1090
    B. Rs. 1160
    C. Rs. 1190
    D. Rs. 1202


Answer – Option C

Explanation – S.P. = 85% of Rs. 1400 = Rs \(\frac {85}{100}\)x 1400% = Rs. 1190


6. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity of water to be further added is:

    A. 20 litres
    B. 30 litres
    C. 40 litres
    D. 60 litres


Answer – Option D

Explanation – Quantity of milk = 60 X \(\frac {2}{3}\)litres = 40 litres
Quantity of water in it = (60- 40) litres = 20 litres.
New ratio = 1 : 2
Let quantity of water to be added further be x litres.
Then, milk : water = \(\frac {40}{20 + X}\)
Now; \(\frac {40}{20 + x}\) = \(\frac {1}{2}\)
20 + x = 80
=> x = 60.
=> Quantity of water to be added = 60 litres.


7. If Rs. 782 be divided into three parts, proportional to \(\frac {1}{2}\)\(\frac {2}{3}\)\(\frac {3}{4}\)then the first part is:

    A. Rs. 182
    B. Rs. 190
    C. Rs. 196
    D. Rs. 204


Answer – Option D

Explanation – Given ratio = \(\frac {1}{2}\)\(\frac {2}{3}\)\(\frac {3}{4}\)= 6 : 8 : 9.
1st part = Rs.782.X \(\frac {6}{23}\) = Rs. 204


8. A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that A would invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and C, Rs. 10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit.

    A. Rs. 1900
    B. Rs. 2660
    C. Rs. 2800
    D. Rs. 2840


Answer – Option B

Explanation – For managing, A received = 5% of Rs. 7400 = Rs. 370.
Balance = Rs. (7400 – 370) = Rs. 7030.
Ratio of their investments = (6500 x 6) : (8400 x 5) : (10000 x 3)
= 39000 : 42000 : 30000
= 13 : 14 : 10
B’s share = Rs. 7030 X \(\frac {14}{37}\)= Rs. 2660.


9. Ravi, Gagan and Nitin are running a business firm in partnership. What is Gagan’s share in the profit earned by them?
I. Ravi, Gagan and Nitin invested the amounts in the ratio of 2 : 4 : 7.
II. Nitin’s share in the profit is Rs. 8750.


    A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
    B. Both I and II are necessary to answer
    C. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
    D. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer


Answer – Option B

Explanation – Let us name Ravi, Gagan and Nitin by R, G and N respectively.
I. R : G : N = 2 : 4 : 7.
II. N = 8750..
From I and II, we get:
When N = 7, then G = 4.
When N = 8750, then G = \(\frac {4}{7}\) X 8750 = 5000.7
Thus, both I and II are needed to get the answer.


10. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?

    A. 6.25
    B. 6.5
    C. 6.75
    D. 7


Answer – Option A

Explanation – Required run rate = \(\frac {282 – (3.2 x 10)}{40}\) = \(\frac {250}{40}\) = 6.25


11. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?

    A. Rs. 4991
    B. Rs. 5992
    C. Rs. 9855
    D. 7854


Answer – Option B


12. Veena has to pay Rs. 2460 to Sita, 5 Months later at 6% SI per annum, and Gita has to pay Sita the same amount at 7.5% SI per annum after certain months. If both took the same amount of loan from Sita then Gita paid loan after how many months?

    A. 3 Months
    B. 4 Months
    C. 6 Months
    D. 12 Months


Answer –Option B

Explanation – 2460= p + p x 6 x \(\frac{5}{12}\)x 100
p = 2400
Now Gita
2460 = 2400+2400 x 7.5 x \(\frac{x}{12}\) x 100
x = 4


13. If 2994 ÷ 14.5 = 172, then 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = ?

    A. 0.172
    B. 4325
    C. 4475
    D. 4675


Answer –Option C

Explanation – \(\frac{29.94}{1.45}\) = \(\frac{299.4}{14.5}\) 299.4
= (\(\frac{29.94}{1.45}\) x \(\frac{1}{10}\))[ Here, Substitute 172 in the place of 2994/14.5\(\frac{2994}{14.5}\) ]
= \(\frac{172}{10}\)
= 17.2


14. Show That\(\frac{.009}{?}\) ?

    A. .0009
    B. .09
    C. .9
    D. 9


Answer –Option C

Explanation – Let \(\frac{.009}{X}\) = .01;Then x = \(\frac{.009}{.01}\) = \(\frac{.9}{1}\) = .9


15. 3889 + 12.952 – ? = 3854.002

    A. 47.095
    B. 47.752
    C. 47.932
    D. 47.95


Answer –Option D

Explanation –
Let 3889 + 12.952 – x = 3854.002.
Then x = (3889 + 12.952) – 3854.002
= 3901.952 – 3854.002
= 47.95.


16. 0.002 x 0.5 = ?

    A. 0.0001
    B. 0.001
    C. 0.01
    D. 0.1


Answer –Option B

Explanation – 2 x 5 = 10.
Sum of decimal places = 4
0.002 x 0.5 = 0.001


17. The six digit number 54321A is divisible by 9 where A is a single digit whole number. Find A.

    A. 0
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 3


Answer – Option D

Explanation – A number is divisible by 9, when the sum of its digits is divisible by 9. Here, 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 + A = 15 + A should be divisible by 9. Therefore, A = 3 gives 15+ 3 = 18 as the sum of digits, which is divisible by 9. So, answer is option D.


18. The product of 40 odd numbers is

    A. even
    B. odd
    C. 625
    D. Can’t say


Answer – Option

Explanation –The product of 40 odd numbers will give an odd number. So answer is option B.


19. Find the greatest three number which is multiple of 7

    A. 993
    B. 994
    C. 995
    D. None of these


Answer – Option C

Explanation –Greatest three digits number = 999. When 999 is divided by 7, the remainder will be 5. Required number= 999 – 5 = 994.


20. Simplify the expression using BODMAS rule (3/7) of (4/5) of 20 (\({25}^{2}\) – \({24}^{2}\))

    A. 336
    B. 168
    C. 84
    D. None of these


Answer – Option A

Explanation –(3/7) × (4/5) of 20 (625 – 576)⇒ (3/7) × (4/5) × 20 × 49 =336


21. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?

    A. Sunday
    B. Saturday
    C. Friday
    D. Wednesday


Answer – Option C

Explanation – On 31st December, 2005 it was Saturday.
Number of odd days from the year 2006 to the year 2009 = (1 + 1 + 2 + 1) = 5 days.
=> On 31st December 2009, it was Thursday.
Thus, on 1st Jan, 2010 it is Friday.


22. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

    A. Wednesday
    B. Saturday
    C. Tuesday
    D. Thursday


Answer – Option B

Explanation – Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days.
So, after 63 days, it will be Monday.
After 61 days, it will be Saturday.


23. Which of the following is not a leap year?

    A. 700
    B. 800
    C. 1200
    D. 2000


Answer – Option A

Explanation – The century divisible by 400 is a leap year.
The year 700 is not a leap year.


24. January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What day of the week lies on Jan 1, 2009?

    A. Monday
    B. Wednesday
    C. Thursday
    D. Sunday


Answer – Option C

Explanation – The year 2008 is a leap year. So, it has 2 odd days.
1st day of the year 2008 is Tuesday (Given)
So, 1st day of the year 2009 is 2 days beyond Tuesday.
Hence, it will be Thursday.


25. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?

    A. Rs. 4991
    B. Rs. 5991
    C. Rs. 6001
    D. Rs. 6001


Answer – Option A

Explanation – Total sale for 5 months = Rs. (6435 + 6927 + 6855 + 7230 + 6562) = Rs. 34009.
Required sale = Rs. [ (6500 x 6) – 34009 ]
=> Rs. (39000 – 34009)
=> Rs. 4991.


26. The average weight of 8 person’s increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?

    A. 76 kg
    B. 76.5 kg
    C. 85 kg
    D. None of these


Answer – Option C

Explanation – Total weight increased = (8 x 2.5) kg = 20 kg.
Weight of new person = (65 + 20) kg = 85 kg.


27. The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 26 years old and the wicket keeper is 3 years older. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining players is one year less than the average age of the whole team. What is the average age of the team?

    A. 23 years
    B. 24 years
    C. 25 years
    D. None of these


Answer – Option A

Explanation – Let the average age of the whole team by x years.
=> 11x – (26 + 29) = 9(x -1)
=> 11x – 9x = 46
=> 2x = 46
=> x = 23.
So, average age of the team is 23 years.


28. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

    A. 9
    B. 10
    C. 12
    D. 20


Answer – Option B

Explanation – Due to stoppages, it covers 9 km less.
Time taken to cover 9 km = \(\frac {9}{54}\) X 60min = 10 min


29. In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer. If Abhay doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than Sameer. Abhay’s speed is:

    A. 5 kmph
    B. 6 kmph
    C. 6.25 kmph
    D. 7.5 kmph


Answer – Option

Explanation – Let Abhay’s speed be x km/hr.
Then, \(\frac {30}{X}\) – \(\frac {30}{2X}\) = 3
=> 6x = 30
=> x = 5 km/hr.


30. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 km in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is:

    A. 70 km/hr
    B. 75 km/hr
    C. 84 km/hr
    D. 87.5 km/hr


Answer – Option D

Explanation – Let the speed of two trains be 7x and 8x km/hr.
Then, 8x = \(\frac {400}{4}\) = 100
=> X = \(\frac {100}{8}\) = 12.5
Speed of first train = (7 x 12.5) km/hr = 87.5 km/hr.


31. A man has Rs.480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes that he has ?

    A. 45
    B. 60
    C. 75
    D. 90


Answer – Option D

Explanation – Let number of notes of each denomination be x.
Then x + 5x + 10x = 480
=> 16x = 480
=> x = 30.
Hence, total number of notes = 3x = 90.


32. If a – b = 3 and \({a}^{2}\) + \({b}^{2}\) = 29, find the value of ab.

    A. 10
    B. 12
    C. 15
    D. 18


Answer – Option A

Explanation – 2ab = \({(a}^{2}\) + \({b}^{2)}\) – \({(a-b)}^{2}\)
=> 29 – 9 = 20
=> ab = 10.


33. The sum of first five prime numbers is:

    A. 11
    B. 18
    C. 26
    D. 28


Answer – Option D

Explanation – Required sum = (2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11) = 28.
Note: 1 is not a prime number.


34. The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the smaller, we get 6 as quotient and the 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number ?

    A. 240
    B. 270
    C. 295
    D. 360


Answer – Option B

Explanation – Let the smaller number be x. Then larger number = (x + 1365).
=> x + 1365 = 6x + 15
=> 5x = 1350
=> x = 270
Smaller number = 270.

Directions (35 – 40):The following pie chart shows the amount of subscriptions generated for India Bonds from different categories of investors.


35. In the corporate sector, approximately how many degrees should be there in the central angle ?

    A. 121
    B. 120
    C. 122
    D. 124


Answer – Option C

Explanation – 34 x 3.6 = 122.4 (since 1% = 3.6 degrees)


36. If the investment by NRI’s are Rs 4,000 crore, then the investments by corporate houses and FII’s together is:

    A. 24,000 crore
    B. 24,363 crore
    C. 25,423 crore
    D. 25,643 crore


Answer – Option B

Explanation – (67/11) x 4000 = 24 363.6364


37. What percentage of the total investment is coming from FII’s and NRI’s ?

    A. 33%
    B. 11%
    C. 44%
    D. 22%


Answer – Option C

Explanation – (33 + 11) = 44


38. If the total investment other than by FII and corporate houses is Rs 335,000 crore, then the investment by NRI’s and Offshore funds will be (approximately) ?

    A. 274,100
    B. 285,600
    C. 293,000
    D. Cannot be determined


Answer – Option A

Explanation – Investment other than NRI and corporate houses is 33% = 335000. Also, investment by offshore funds and NRI’s is equal to 27%.
Hence, 27 x 335,000/33 = 274 090.909


39. If the total investment flows from FII’s were to be doubled in the next year and the investment flows from all other sources had remained constant at their existing levels for this year, then what would be the proportion of FII investment in the total investment into India Bonds next year (in US $ millions) ?

    A. 40 %
    B. 50 %
    C. 60 %
    D. 70 %


Answer – Option B

Explanation – FII’s currently account for 33 out of 100.
If their value is doubled and all other investments are kept constant then their new value would be 66 out of 133 = approximately equal to 50%


40. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:

    A.145°
    B.150°
    C.155°
    D. 160°


Answer – Option C

Explanation – Angle traced by hour hand in 12 hrs = 360°.
Angle traced by hour hand in 5 hrs 10 min. i.e.\(\frac {31}{6}\) Hrs = \(\frac {360}{12}\) x
\(\frac {31}{6}\) = 155°

1. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?

    A. Sunday
    B. Saturday
    C. Friday
    D. Friday


Answer – Option C

Explanation –
On 31st December, 2005 it was Saturday.
Number of odd days from the year 2006 to the year 2009 = (1 + 1 + 2 + 1) = 5 days.
In 31st December 2009, it was Thursday.
Thus, on 1st Jan 2010 it is Friday.


2. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

    A. Wednesday
    B. Saturday
    C. Tuesday
    D. Thursday


Answer – Option B

Explanation –
Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days.

So, after 63 days, it will be Monday.

After 61 days, it will be Saturday.


3. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:

    A. 2014
    B. 2016
    C. 2017
    D. 2018


Answer – Option D

Explanation –
Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd day.

Year : 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017

Odd day : 1 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1

Sum = 14 odd days 0 odd days.

Calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the year 2007.


4. Amit Khanna, born on 5th june, 1973 has done his post-graduation in Marketing Management with first class. He has secured 50 % marks in the written Test. He has been working in an organisation as a Marketing Officer for the last four years.

    A. be a graduate with at least 50 % marks.
    B. have secured atleast 40 % marks in the written test
    C. not be less than 24 years and more than 29 years as on 10th October, 1997.
    D. should have work experience of at least two years as an officer.


Answer – Option A


5. Rohit Verma, has been working in an organisation as officer for the last ten years. His date of birth is 17th February, 1964. He has secured 60% marks in the degree examination and 40% marks in the written test.

    A. be a graduate with at least 50 % marks.
    B. have secured atleast 40 % marks in the written test.
    C. not be less than 24 years and more than 29 years as on 10th October, 1997.
    D. should have work experience of at least two years as an officer.


Answer – Option C


6. Manju sharma is a first class graduate and has done a diploma in Marketing Management. She has secured 50% marks in the written test. She was 23 years old as on 5th September, 1996.

    A. be a graduate with at least 50 % marks.
    B. have secured atleast 40 % marks in the written test.
    C. have secured atleast 40 % marks in the written test.
    D. should have work experience of at least two years as an officer.


Answer – Option D


7. A’s mother is the only daughter of B’s father. How is B’s husband related to A?

    A. Uncle
    B. Brother
    C. Father
    D. Grandfather


Answer – Option C


8. A is brother of B, B is the son of C, D is C’s father then what is A of D?

    A. Brother
    B. Son
    C. Grandson
    D. Grandfather


Answer – Option C


9. A is the father of C and D is son of B. E is brother of A. If C is sister of D, how is B related to E?

    A. Brother
    B. Sister
    C. Brother-in-law
    D. Sister-in-law


Answer – Option D


10. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C?

    A. Father
    B. Brother
    C. Grandfather
    D. Uncle


Answer – Option D


11. Choose the word which is least like the others word in a group

    A. Chemistry
    B. Geography
    C. Zoology
    D. Botany


Answer – Option B


12. Choose the word which is least like the others word in a group?

    A. Mechanic
    B. Engineer
    C. Mason
    D. Blacksmith E. Architect


Answer – Option A


13. Choose the word which is least like the others word in a group?

    A. Zinc
    B. Aluminium
    C. Copper
    D. Mercury E. Iron


Answer – Option D


14. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman?

    A. Nephew
    B. Uncle
    C. Son
    D. Cousin


Answer – Option D


15. A man said to a lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt”. How is that lady related to that man?

    A. Daughter
    B. Grand-daughter
    C. Mother
    D. Sister


Answer – Option D


16. If X is brother of the son of Y’s son, how is X related to Y?

    A. Son
    B. Brother
    C. Cousin
    D. Grand-Son


Answer – Option D


17. If B says that his mother is the only daughter of A’s mother, how is A related to B?

    A. Son
    B. Grandfather
    C. Uncle
    D. Brother


Answer – Option C


18. If FISH is written as EHRG in a certain code, how would JUNGLE be written in that code?

    A. ITMFKD
    B. ITNFKD
    C. KVOHMF
    D. TIMFKD


Answer – Option A


19. In a certain code, TWINKLE is written as SVHOJKD, then how would FILTERS be written in the same code?

    A. EHKSDQR
    B. EHKUDQR
    C. EGKUDQR
    D. GJMSFST


Answer – Option B


20. How many such 5s are there in the following number sequence each of which is immediately preceded by 3 or 4 but not immediately followed by 8 or 9?
3 5 9 5 4 5 5 3 5 8 4 5 6 7 3 5 7 5 5 4 5 2 3 5 1 0


    A. None
    B. Three
    C. Four
    D. Five


Answer – Option D


21. Rohan ranks seventh from the top and twenty-sixth from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class?

    A. 31
    B. 32
    C. 33
    D. 34


Answer – Option B


22. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, … What number should come next?

    A. 7
    B. 10
    C. 12
    D. 13


Answer – Option B

Explanation –
This is a simple alternating addition and subtraction series. In the first pattern, 3 is added; in the second, 2 is subtracted.


23. Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, … What number should come next?

    A. 20
    B. 22
    C. 23
    D. 26


Answer – Option B


24. Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, … What number should come next?

    A. 22
    B. 24
    C. 25
    D. 26


Answer – Option C


25. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Vishal’s shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?

    A. East
    B. West
    C. North
    D. South


Answer – Option C

Explanation –


26. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M. ?

    A. South-East
    B. South
    C. North
    D. West


Answer – Option D

Explanation –


27. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

    A. Chicken
    B. Snake
    C. Swan
    D. Crocodile


Answer – Option A

Explanation – All except Chicken can live in water.


28. hoose the word which is different from the rest.

    A. Kiwi
    B. Eagle
    C. Emu
    D. Ostrich


Answer – Option B

Explanation – All except Eagle are flightless birds.


29. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

    A. Rigveda
    B. Yajurveda
    C. Atharvaveda
    D. Ayurveda


Answer – Option D

Explanation – All except Ayurveda are names of holy scriptures, the four Vedas. Ayurveda is a branch of medicine.


30. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

    A. Curd
    B. Butter
    C. Oil
    D. Cheese


Answer – Option C

Explanation – All except Oil are products obtained from milk.


31. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ?

    A. A
    B. X
    C. S
    D. Z


Answer – Option B

Explanation – The seating arrangement is as follows:


32. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting ?

    A. Between B and D
    B. Between B and C
    C. Between E and D
    D. Between C and E


Answer – Option B

Explanation –


33. An institute organised a fete and 1/5 of the girls and 1/8 of the boys participated in the same. What fraction of the total number of students took part in the fete ?

    A. 2/13
    B. 13/40
    C. Data inadequate
    D. None of these


Answer – Option C


34. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, “If you give me three cards, you will have as many as E has and if I give you three cards, you will have as many as D has.” A and B together have 10 cards more than what D and E together have. If B has two cards more than what C has and the total number of cards be 133, how many cards does B have ?

    A. 22
    B. 23
    C. 25
    D. 35


Answer – Option C

Explanation – Clearly, we have :
B-3 = E …(i)
B + 3 = D …(ii)
A+B = D + E+10 …(iii)
B = C + 2 …(iv)
A+B + C + D + E= 133 …(v)
From (i) and (ii), we have : 2 B = D + E …(vi)
From (iii) and (vi), we have : A = B + 10 …(vii)
Using (iv), (vi) and (vii) in (v), we get:
(B + 10) + B + (B – 2) + 2B = 133 5B = 125 B = 25.


35. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2, 3 or 4 in a pack, I am left with one sweet. If I keep 5 in a pack, I am left with none. What is the minimum number of sweets I have to pack and distribute ?

    A. 25
    B. 35
    C. 45
    D. 33


Answer – Option A

Explanation – Clearly, the required number would be such that it leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 2, 3 or 4 and no remainder when divided by 5. Such a number is 25.


36. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ?

    A. 35
    B. 45
    C. 33
    D. 54


Answer – Option A

Explanation – The pattern is – 21, – 19, – 17, – 15,…..
So, missing term = 48 – 13 = 35.


37. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, “He is the son of the only son of my mother.” How is Suresh related to that boy?

    A. Brother
    B. Uncle
    C. Cousin
    D. Father


Answer – Option D

Explanation – The boy in the photograph is the only son of the son of Suresh’s mother i.e., the son of Suresh. Hence, Suresh is the father of boy.


38. Introducing a boy, a girl said, “He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle.” How is the boy related to the girl?

    A. Brother
    B. Nephew
    C. Uncle
    D. Son-in-law


Answer – Option A

Explanation – The father of the boy’s uncle → the grandfather of the boy and daughter of the grandfather → sister of father.


39. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.


    A.
    B.
    C.
    D.


Answer – Option

Explanation – The figure may be labelled as shown.

The simplest triangles are AHG, AIG, AIB, JFE, CJE and CED i.e. 6 in number.
The triangles composed of two components each are ABG, CFE, ACJ and EGI i.e. 4 in number.
The triangles composed of three components each are ACE, AGE and CFD i.e. 3 in number.
There is only one triangle i.e. AHE composed of four components.
Therefore, There are 6 + 4 + 3 + 1 = 14 triangles in the given figure.


40. _ a _ b _ abaa _ bab _ abb

    A. aaabb
    B. babab
    C. ababb
    D. babba


Answer – Option D

Explanation –The series is baa/bba/baa/bba/baa/bb. Thus, the pattern baa/bba is repeated.

1. Which if the following is not true of about Money Market

    A. It is a market for short term loans
    B. The maturity period is anywhere between a day and a year
    C. Treasury Bills are not a component of Money Market
    D. Central Banks take part in Money Market


Answer – Option C


2. FEMA stands for

    A. Foreign Exchange Money Act
    B. Future Exchange Money Act
    C. Future Exchange Management Act
    D. Foreign Exchange Management Act


Answer – Option D


3. The value of Indian Forex Reserves as of September 2018 was

    A. 399.2Billion
    B. 400.1Billion
    C.402.2Billion
    D. 403.2Billion


Answer – Option A


4. The Finance Commission of India is established as per which Article of the Indian Constitution

    A. Art 124
    B. Art 356
    C. Art 324
    D. Art 280


Answer – Option D


5. Euronext is the Stock Exchange of

    A. The United Kingdom
    B. France
    C. European Union
    D. None of the Above


Answer – Option C


6. SEBI stands for –

    A. Securities and E-commerce Board of India
    B. Stock Exchange Board of India
    C. Securities and Exchange Board of India
    D. None of the Above


Answer – Option C


7. Which company among the following would be buying a share in the IDBI Bank?

    A. LIC
    B. ONGC
    C. SBI
    D. NTPC


Answer – Option A


8. Currently which country in talks with the IMF for an economic bailout –

    A. India
    B. Pakistan
    C. North Korea
    D. Sri Lanka


Answer – Option B


9. The recently recommended merger of Bank of Baroda, Dena Bank and Vijaya Bank if done will make it the –

    A. d Largest Bank in India
    B. Largest Bank in India
    C. 3rd Largest Bank in India
    D. None of the Above


Answer – Option C


10. The BSE-SENSEX comprises of the Stock of how many companies

    A. 30
    B. 20
    C. 10
    D. 40


Answer – Option A


11. What is the Tenure of the Chairman of SEBI

    A. 2 years
    B. 3 years
    C. 5 years
    D. Not Fixed


Answer – Option D


12. As per the Time Value of Money, the Value of Money in Hand is ________ the value of Money in Future

    A. Lesser than
    B. Greater than
    C. Same as
    D. Not related to


Answer – Option B


13. In which type of Bonds does the issuer has the option of reducing the tenor of the security?

    A. Puttable Bonds
    B. Callable Bonds
    C. Zero Coupon Bonds
    D. Floating Rate Bonds


Answer – Option C


14. The IMF currently has

    A. 189 Members
    B. 200 Members
    C. 180 Members
    D. 280 Menbers


Answer – Option A


15. What is the full form of NPS ?

Answer National Pension Scheme


16. NBFC deals in?

Answer – Providing Banking Services


17. Who is the author of the book My years with Rajiv and Sonia ?

Answer – R D Pardhan


18. The Mutual funds in India follow accounting standards laid by ?

Answer – SEBI


19. Interest on savings account is calculated on which basis?

Answer – Dialy Basis


20. What is the full form of IFSC ?

Answer – Indian Financial System code


21. SBI launched minor a/c for childern above 10 years named as ?

Answer – Pehil udan


22. Mutual funds regulated by ?

Answer – Securities and Exchange Board of india


23. Full form of GSLV ?

Answer – Geo – Synochorous Launch vehicle


24. HDFC erdo is which type of company ?

Answer – General Insurrance Company


20. SEBI is which kind of body?

Answer – Marketing Regulated Body


21. There are how many digits in MICR ?

Answer – Nine Character or Digits


22. BSBDA stands for ?

Answer – Basic Savings Bank deposit account


23. RBI established and nationalized in ?

Answer – Established 1935,.Natonalized in 1949


24. Cheque is a ___ instrument ?

Answer – Negotiable


25. Full Form of ATM ?

Answer – Auttomated Teller Machine


26. IFSC code consist of _____ character ?

Answer – Eleven


27. CRISIL is a ?

Answer – Credit Rating agency


28. Headquarter of Allahabad Bank is ?

Answer – Kolkata


29. The extended date for pre-2005 bank notes ?

Answer – 31st Dec 2015


30. Who is the president of BRICS Bank ?

Answer – K V Kamath


31. Banking Ombudsman is appointed by:

Answer – RBI


32. Name of Union Territory which as recently presented a tax free budget of Rs. 6,100 crore for the union territory:

Answer – Puducheery


33. Maximum age for retirement for MD/CEO of all private banks is:

Answer – 70years


34. ‘Financial Exclusion’ is:

Answer – Lack of Access to Financial Services


35. Vijay Mallya as ‘Willful Defaulter’ is declared by:

Answer – United Bank of India


36. Mutual Funds are regulated by:

Answer – Securities and Exchange Board of India


37. To solve the problems of Balance of Payments of member countries is function of:

Answer – IMF


38. Which term is not associated with banking operations:

Answer – Equator


39. U.T.I. officially changed into:

Answer – Axis Bank


40. Regulatory Authority for Regional Rural Bank is of:

Answer – RBI and NABARD

shape Phase 2


Securities Market

1. Which among the following is the oldest Public Sector Bank of India?

    A. Punjab National Bank
    B. Central Bank of India
    C. Allahabad Bank
    D. Bank of Baroda


Answer – Option C


2. When was SEBI constituted?

    A. April, 1988
    B. March, 1982
    C.July, 1992
    D. Dec. 1974


Answer – Option A

Explanation – SEBI was established on the April 12, 1988. It was constituted as a non statutory body through a resolution of the government of India.


3. Which of the following statement is NOT correct about the SEBI?

    A. At present it is a non statutory body
    B. At present it is a statutory body
    C. It got statutory powers by an ordinance in 1992
    D. SEBI is managed by 6 members


Answer – Option A

Explanation – At present it is a statutory body; which got statutory status and powers by an ordinance in Jan. 1992


4. Who is the current chairman of the SEBI?r

    A. U.K. Sinha
    B. Ajay Tyagi
    C. T.S.Vijayan
    D. A. K. Mathur


Answer – Option B

Explanation – Ajay Tyagi appointed new chairman of SEBI; to take charge on March 1, 2017.He is 9th chairman of the SEBI.


5. Who of the following never became chairman of the SEBI?

    A. C. B. Bhave
    B. M. Damodaran
    C. D. R. Mehta
    D. Ashok Ganguly


Answer – Option D

Explanation – Ashok Ganguly never appointed as the chairman of the SEBI while rest of the persons mentioned in the options have been appointed as the chairman.


6. Which of the following words does not belong to the stock exchange?

    A. NAV
    B. NSE
    C. IPO
    D. KPO


Answer – Option D

Explanation – The KPO’s full form is Knowledge Process Outsourcing; while rests of the words are related to the security market.


7. Where is the headquarter of the SEBI?

    A. Delhi
    B. Bengaluru
    C. Chennai
    D. Chennai


Answer – Option D

Explanation – The headquarter of the SEBI is situated in the Mumbai, Maharashtra.


8. Chairman of the SEBI is appointed for ………

    A. For maximum 3 years
    B. For maximum 6 years
    C. For maximum 5 years
    D. Tenure not fixed


Answer – Option D

Explanation – The chairman of the SEBI is made for a period not exceeding five years, or till the age of 65 years or until further orders.


9. How many companies are included in the SENSEX?

    A. 30
    B. 45
    C. 65
    D. 32


Answer – Option A

Explanation – The S&P BSE SENSEX (S&P Bombay Stock Exchange Sensitive Index) also called the BSE 30 or simply the SENSEX. These 30 companies are big and renowned companies of their sector.


10. Which of the following is responsible for the fluctuations in the SENSEX?

    A. Rain
    B. Monetary policy
    C. Political instability
    D. All of the above


Answer – Option D

Explanation – SENSEX fluctuates due to very small reasons. That is why it is known as sensitive index as well. SENSEX fluctuates due to forecasting of good weather, any political decision by the central government and any change in the government policy.


11. The Finance Commission of India is established as per which Article of the Indian Constitution

    A. Art 124
    B. Art 356
    C. Art 324
    D. Art 280


Answer – Option D


12. Euronext is the Stock Exchange of

    A. The United Kingdom
    B. France
    C. European Union
    D. None of the Above


Answer – Option C


<strong13. SEBI stands for –

    A. Securities and E-commerce Board of India
    B. Stock Exchange Board of India
    C. Securities and Exchange Board of India
    D. None of the Above


Answer – Option C


14. Which company among the following would be buying a share in the IDBI Bank?

    A. LIC
    B. ONGC
    C. SBI
    D. NTPC


Answer – Option A


<strong15. Currently which country in talks with the IMF for an economic bailout –

    A. India
    B. Pakistan
    C. North Korea
    D. Sri Lanka


Answer – Option B


16. The recently recommended merger of Bank of Baroda, Dena Bank and Vijaya Bank if done will make it the –

    A. d Largest Bank in India
    B. Largest Bank in India
    C. 3rd Largest Bank in India
    D. None of the Above


Answer – Option C


17. The BSE-SENSEX comprises of the Stock of how many companies

    A. 30
    B. 20
    C. 10
    D. 40


Answer – Option A


18. What is the Tenure of the Chairman of SEBI

    A. 2 years
    B. 3 years
    C. 5 years
    D. Not Fixed


Answer – Option D


19. Which of the following statements is correct?

    A. FTSE-100 is a stock exchange of London, which monitors European market activities
    B. Nikkei is related to Singapore Stock Exchange
    C. MIDDEX belongs to Japan
    D. BSE does not belong to SENSEX


Answer – Option A

Explanation – FTSE-100 is a stock exchange of London, which monitors the activities of the European security market.


20. The transaction cost of trading of financial instruments in centralized market is classified as

    A. flexible costs
    B. low transaction costs
    C. high transaction costs
    D. constant costs


Answer – Option B


21. In primary markets, the property of shares which made it easy to sell newly issued security is considered as

    A. increased liquidity
    B. decreased liquidity
    C. money flow
    D. large funds


Answer – Option A


22. The money market where debt and stocks are traded and maturity period is more than a year is classified as

    A. shorter term markets
    B. capital markets
    C. counter markets
    D. long-term markets


Answer – Option B


23. The type of market in which securities with less than one year maturity are traded, is classified as

    A. money market
    B. capital market
    C. transaction market
    D. global market


Answer – Option A


24. In capital markets, the major suppliers of trading instruments are

    A. government and corporations
    B. liquid corporations
    C. instrumental corporations
    D. manufacturing corporations


Answer – Option A


25. The rate of return on a bond held to maturity is known as its:

    A. duration.
    B. interest yield.
    C. redemption yield.
    D. present value.


Answer – Option C


26. The MRTP commission was replaced by which commission ?

    A. Competition Commission of India
    B. Finance Commission
    C. Nanavati-Shah commission
    D. .National Statistical Commission


Answer – Option A

Explanation – The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 [MRTP Act] repealed and is replaced by the Competition Act, 2002, with effect from 01st September, 2009


27. MRTP Act was enacted in which year ?

    A. 1997
    B. 1969
    C. 1996
    D. 1970


Answer – Option B

Explanation – On the basis of recommendation of Dutt Committee, MRTP Act was enacted in 1969 to ensure that concentration of economic power in hands of few rich. The act was there to prohibit monopolistic and restrictive trade practices.


28. The minimum number of people involved in the exchange marketing is _____________

    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 5


Answer – Option B

Explanation – A marketing exchange is what happens any time two or more people trade goods or services. In marketing theory, every exchange is supposed to produce “utility,”


29. Which of the following center is also known as ‘decision-making units’ (DMUs) ?

    A. Marketing Center
    B. Shopping Center
    C. Sales Center
    D. Buying Center


Answer – Option D

Explanation – A buying center brings together “all those members of an organization who become involved in the buying process for a particular product or service”.Buying centers are also known as ‘decision-making units’ (DMUs)


30. In which type of exchange, only two parties are involved ?

    A. Restricted Exchanges
    B. Generalized Exchanges
    C. Complex Exchanges
    D. Complex Exchanges


Answer – Option A

Explanation – Simple or “restricted” exchanges are those in which there are only two parties to the exchange. Restricted exchanges are one-on-one relationships, so both parties must receive approximately equal utility if the exchange is to be repeated.


31. Market segmentation as the subdivision of a market into homogeneous subjects of customer’ said by whom ?

    A. Dirk Morschett
    B. Thomas Rudolph
    C. Philip Kotler
    D. American Marketing Association


Answer – Option C

Explanation –Marketing Guru Philip Kotler defines market segmentation as the subdivision of a market into homogeneous subjects of customers


32. MRP stands for

    A. Manufacturing Resource Planning
    B. Manufacturing Resource Process
    C. Making Retail Product
    D. Material Resource Planning


Answer – Option A

Explanation – Manufacturing resource planning (MRP II) is defined as a method for the effective planning of all resources of a manufacturing company.


33. Money market instruments are generally used for Liquidity adjustments, considering this
statement to be true. Who are the users mostly?


    A. Banks
    B. Government
    C. Hospital
    D. Dealers


Answer – Option A

Explanation –Money market instruments are generally used for financing short term liquidity requirements, the
same is used by all scheduled commercial and private banks. A dealer is an intermediary between
the counterparts, called a dealer, announces a bid and an offer rate with the difference between
the two representing a spread, or the dealer’s income


34. Which of the following comprises the domestic debt market in India?
I. Government Securities
II. Private corporate debt
III. PSU bonds
IV. DFIs bonds


    A. I and III
    B. I, II and III
    C. I, II, III and IV
    D. None of these


Answer – Option C

Explanation – The domestic debt market comprises of two main segments, viz., the Government securities and other (mainly corporate) securities comprising private corporate debt, PSU bonds and DFIs bonds.
The government securities market is pre-dominant, while the other segment is not very deep and
liquid


35. Who among the following are the main participants in the securities market?
I. Issuer of securities
II. Investors in securities
III. Intermediaries
IV. The state governments


    A. Only IV
    B. Both I and II
    C. I, II and III
    D. I, II, III and IV


Answer – Option C

Explanation – The securities market essentially has three categories of participants, namely,
the issuers of securities, investors in securities and the intermediaries, such as
merchant bankers, brokers etc. While the corporates and the government raise
resources from the securities market to meet their obligations, it is households
that invest their savings in the securities market


36. Which of the following is the clearing agency for G-secs in India?

    A. CCIL
    B. RBI
    C. SBI
    D. Fema


Answer – Option A

Explanation – The Clearing corporation of India Ltd (CCIL) is the clearing agency for G-Secs. It acts as a Central
Counter Party (CCP) for all transactions in G-Secs by interposing itself between two counterparties.
In effect, during settlement, the CCP becomes the seller to the buyer and buyer to the seller of
the actual transaction. All outright trades undertaken in the OTC market and on the NDS-OM
platform are cleared through the CCIL.


37. There are 2 types of derivatives, futures and options. Which of the following is correct about
Futures contracts?


    A. Futures contracts grant buyers rights and no obligations
    B. In Futures contracts both parties face a lot of risk
    C. It permits the buyer an option to buy call or put
    D. Both 1 and 2


Answer – Option B


38. Commercial Paper is a note in evidence of the _____________of the issuer.

    A. Equity obligation
    B. Debt Obligation
    C. Market Obligation
    D. None of the above


Answer – Option B

Explanation – Commercial Paper is a note in evidence of the debt obligation of the issuer. On issuing commercial paper the debt is transformed into an instrument.
CP is an unsecured promissory note privately placed with investors at a discount rate of face value
determined by market forces.


39. Treasury Bills are short-term (up to one year) borrowing instruments issued by __________


    A. State Government
    B. Union Goverment
    C. President
    D. Governer


Answer – Option B

Explanation – T Bills are issued by the union government. It’s a promise by the Government to pay the stated sum after the expiry of the stated period from the date of issue (less than one year). They are
issued at a discount off the face value and on maturity, the face value is paid to the holder.


40. Which of the following is a power of SEBI?

    A. Regulating the business in stock exchanges only
    B. Regulating the business in other securities markets
    C. Regulating the flow of funds to the various organisations registered with SEBI
    D. Both 1 and 2


Answer – Option D

Explanation – SEBI has no power to regulate the flow of funds to the various organisations registered with SEBI as it is under their own control. SEBI only takes care of fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to securities markets.


41. SEBI has recently approved (August 2018) new KYC norms for Foreign portfolio Investments to
trade in ______


    A. Exchange Currency markets
    B. Primary Markets
    C. Secondary Markets
    D. Commodity Markets


Answer – Option B

Explanation – SEBI has approved a proposal to allow foreign investors to trade in commodity derivatives market,except for sensitive commodities, as well as common application form for the registration of FPIs in the domestic markets. The board has given its nod for amending delisting regulations. Further,
inter-operability of clearing houses for commodities and new methodology to calculate the total
expenses ratio for fund managers have been cleared.


42. What is the name of the screen based electronic order matching system for secondary market
trading in government securities owned by RBI?


    A. GDS-OM
    B. NDS – OM
    C. G-Secs module
    D. e – Biz


Answer – Option D

Explanation – Negotiated dealing system- order matching system NDS-OM is a screen based electronic anonymous order matching system for secondary market trading in Government securities owned
by RBI. Presently the membership of the system is open to entities like Banks, Primary Dealers,
Insurance Companies, Mutual Funds etc. i.e entities who maintain SGL accounts with RBI. These
are Primary Members (PM) of NDS and are permitted by RBI to become members of NDS-OM


43. The minimum net worth stipulated by SEBI for a depository is ________

    A. Rs. 100 crores
    B. Rs. 1000 crore
    C. Rs. 500 crores
    D. None of the above


Answer – Option A

Explanation – The minimum net worth stipulated by SEBI for a depository is Rs.100 crore.
A depository is an organisation which holds securities (like shares, debentures,
bonds, government securities, mutual fund units etc.) of investors in electronic
form at the request of the investors through a registered depository participant. It also provides
services related to transactions in securities.


44. How is the price of a bond calculated?

    A. Sum of present values of all future cashflows
    B. Sum of future values of all future cashflows
    C. Sum of future values of all present cashflows
    D. None of the above


Answer – Option A

Explanation – The price of a bond is nothing but the sum of present value of all future cash flows of the bond. The interest rate used for discounting the cash flows is the Yield to Maturity (YTM).


45. . What can be said about the relationship between the yield and price of a bond?

    A. If the market interest rate levels rise, the price of a bond falls.
    B. If the market interest rate levels fall, the price of a bond rises
    C. The yield of a bond is inversely related to its price
    D. All the above


Answer – Option D


46. Which of the following is referred to as “Duration” of a bond?

    A. The time taken to recover the initial investment in present value terms
    B. The time taken to recover the initial investment in terms of future values.
    C. Either (1) or (3)
    D. Either (1) or (2)


Answer – Option C


47. What does ‘STRIPS’ stand for?

    A. Stock trading and registering interest and payment of stocks
    B. Securities transaction related information portal system.
    C. Separate trading of registered interest and principal of securities.
    D. Stock market related information of payment and negotiation systems.


Answer – Option C


48. What is the name of the market that provides a channel for the sale of new securities?

    A. Primary market
    B. Secondary market
    C. Tertiary Market
    D. ) Either of the above


Answer – Option A

Explanation – The securities market has two interdependent segments: the primary (new
issues) market and the secondary market. The primary market provides the channel for sale of new securities while the secondary market deals in securities previously issued.


49. What is ‘book building’ in an IPO?

    A. A process used to differentiate securities in the market.
    B. A process for efficient lot delivery to the concerned investors.
    C. A process used for efficient price discovery
    D.A process used to differentiate competitors from the organisation


Answer – Option C

Explanation – Book Building is basically a process used in IPOs for efficient price discovery. It is a mechanism where, during the period for which the IPO is open, bids are collected from investors at various prices, which are above or equal to the floor price. The offer price is determined after the bid closing date.


50. . What is ‘ICDR’ in the ICDR regulations as prescribed by SEBI?

    A. Issue of current equity and debt requirements
    B. Issue of capital and disclosure requirements
    C. Issue of convertible debentures raised through equity
    D. Issue of currency derivatives resource


Answer – Option B

Explanation –The SEBI ICDR Regulations lay down guidelines relating to conditions for various kinds of issues including public and rights issue. The ICDR Regulations provide detailed provisions relating to
public issue such as conditions relating to an IPO and Further Public Offer (FPO), conditions relating
to pricing in public offerings, conditions governing promoter’s contribution, restriction on
transferability of promoter’s contribution, minimum offer to public, reservations, manner of
disclosures in offer documents, etc.


shape Test

For SEBI Assistant Manager Phase I Practice Test: [Click Here]

For SEBI Assistant Manager Phase I Mock Test: [Click Here]


shape Tips

To prepare for SEBI Assistant Manager Phase I 2018, the five main subjects that you need to be excellent at are General Awareness, English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, Test of Reasoning and Awareness about Securities Market.

Candidates can crack the exam only with the right approach and correct strategy and can also clear the SEBI Assistant Manager 2018 Phase I examination but remember there is a sectional cut off in SEBI Phase I Examination.

✦ Tip – 1: Go through the syllabus and make sure you haven’t missed anything.

✦ Tip – 2: Solve a few Mock Test papers and analyse your mistakes and weaknesses.

✦ Tip – 3: Divide your attention between every section.

✦ Tip – 4: Go through your notes and important questions. Write down every formula and rule in your syllabus.

✦ Tip – 5: Be prepared with everything.

✦ Tip – 6: Maintain a peaceful environment and confidence.

✦ Tip – 7: Get enough sleep and good food.