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SSC CGL Tier-II Practice/Mock test

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SSC CGL Tier-II Practice/Mock test

shape Introduction

Tier-II Examination is important to qualify for the Descriptive test of the recruitment process. SSC CGL Tier-II Practice Test section allows candidates to practice the learned material to ensure the candidate understands the pattern of the exam and the expected questions that would appear in the actual test.

shape Pattern

Subjects Questions Marks Duration Time Negative Marking
Quantitative Ability 100 200 2 Hours 0.50
English Language 200 200 2 Hours 0.25
Statistics 100 200 2 Hours 0.50
Finance & Economics 40(Finance & Accounts)
60 (Economics & Governance)
200 2 Hours 0.50
Total 500 800 8 Hours


shape Samples

1. Twenty one times of a positive number is less than its square by 100. The value of the positive number is
A. 25
B. 26
C. 42
D. 41
Answer: A

2. Two pipes of length 1.5 m and 1.2 m are to be cut into equal pieces without leaving any extra length of pipes. The greatest length of the pipe pieces of same size which can be cut from these two lengths will be
A. 0.13 m
B. 0.4 m
C. 0.3 m
D. 0.41 m
Answer: C

3. A General of an Army wants to create a formation of square from 36562 army men. After arrangement, he found some army men remained unused. Then the number of such army men remained unused was
A. 36
B. 65
C. 81
D. 97
Answer: C

4. The smallest number, which should be added to 756896 so as to obtain a multiple of 11, is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

5. A boy found the answer for the question “Subtract the sum of 1/4 and 1/5 from unity and express the answer in decimals” as 0.45. The percentage of error in his answer was
A. (100/11) %
B. 50%
C. 10%
D. (200/11)%
Answer: D

6. What is the ratio of average number of females from the organisations A, B and C to the average number of males from the organisations C, D and E?
A. 42 : 41
B. 41 : 42
C. 40 : 41
D. 41 : 40
Answer: A

7. Males from organisations A and B together form what percent of total number of males from organisations C, D and E together?
A. 78.04%
B. 87.44%
C. 47.08%
D. 74.08%
Correct Answer: A

8. What is the ratio of the number of females from the organisations B and C to the number of males from the organisations D and E?
A. 12 : 11
B. 12 : 15
C. 11 : 15
D. 15 : 11
Answer: D

9. By how much percentage is the average number of females from all the organisations together is more than the number of males in organization ‘D’?
A. 30%
B. 38%
C. 40%
D. 45%
Answer: C

10. The value of the expression 2(sin6θ+cos6θ)-3(sin4θ+cos4θ)+1 is
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
Answer: B

Directions (1-3): In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

1. They will (A)/ leave the office at six and (B)/ reach at home by seven. (C)/ No error (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

2. The new lecturer (A)/ seems to be very popular with (B)/ most of the class. (C)/ No error (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

3. The museum’s revolving doors (A)/ stopped the crooks (B)/ as they jam half way round. (C)/ No error (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

Directions (4-6): Read the following passage carefully and choose the most appropriate answer to the question out of the four alternatives.
In short, to write a good letter you must approach the job in the lightest and most casual way. You must be personal, not abstract. You must not say, ‘This is too small a thing to put down’. You must say, ‘This is just the sort of small thing we talk about at home. If I tell them this they will see me, as it were they’ll hear my voice, they’ll know what I’m talking about’. That is the purpose of a letter. Carlyle had the trick to perfection. He is writing from Scotsbrig to his brother Alec in Canada and he begins talking about his mother. Good old Mother, he says, ‘she is even now sitting at my back, trying at another table to write you a small word with her own hand; the first time she has tried such a thing for a year past. It is Saturday night, after dark; we are in the east room in a hard, dry evening with a bright fire to our two selves; Jenny and her Barns are ‘scouring up things’ in the other end of the house; and below stairs the winter operations of the farm go on, in a subdued tone; you can conceive the scene! How simple it is and yet how perfect. Can not you see Alec reading it in his far-off home and his eyes moistening at the picture of his old mother sitting and writing her last message to him on earth?

4. Abstract’ in the passage means
A. a summary
B. not paying attention
C. concrete
D. not having a physical reality
Answer: D

5. The recipient of your letter should ________.
A. use a lot of imagination.
B. know what you are talking about
C. get distracted when reading your letter
D. find it difficult to understand your letter
Answer: B

6. Carlyle’s mother was ________.
A. a regular letter writer
B. not confident at letter writing
C. always eager to write letters to Alec
D. old and enjoyed writing letters
Answer: B

Directions (7-9): In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.
It so haappens that_____ siblings sing one of_____invariably has a less_____ vocal prowess even though______ have a similarly commendable ____base.

7. It so happens that ______
A. how
B. when
C. if
D. why
Answer: B

8. siblings sing one of _______
A. they
B. their
C. those
D. them
Answer: D

9. invariably has a less _____
A. tuned
B. high
C. potent
D. wide
Answer: C

Directions (10-11): In the following question, a sentence/ a part of sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is required, choose “No Improvement” option.

10. To emend a piece of writing means to remove mistakes from it.
A. amend
B. edit
C. rephrase
D. No improvement
Answer: D

11. If I were you I’d kill him.
A. I will kill
B. I should kill
C. I must kill
D. No improvement
Answer: D

Directions (12-14): In the following question, a sentence / a part of sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is required, choose “No Improvement” option.

12. He was a hopeless doctor if ever I saw one.
A. if I ever saw
B. if I saw
C. if I see
D. No improvement
Answer: D

13. If I would have known the truth I would have admitted it.
A. had known
B. have known
C. know
D. No improvement
Answer: A

14. Members usually meet in one another’s homes.
A. anothers’s
B. each another’s
C. every other’s
D. No improvement
Answer: D

Directions (15-16): In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

15. They found him lying dead on the roadside.
A. The roadside found him lying dead.
B. He was lying dead found by the roadside.
C. Lying by the roadside, he was found dead.
D. He was found lying dead by the roadside.
Answer: D

16. Scientists generally believe that small islands would sink.
A. Small islands will sink is generally believed by scientists.
B. There is a general belief that small islands would sink.
C. Small islands are believed to sink by scientists.
D. It is generally believed by scientists that small islands would sink.
Answer: D

Directions (17-18): In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

17. The belief that everyone is equal and should have the same right and opportunities.
A. Altruistic
B. Egoistic
C. Egalitarian
D. Octogenarian
Answer: C

18. Irresistible craving for alcoholic drinks
A. Pyromania
B. Dipsomania
C. Megalomania
D. Kleptomania
Answer: B

Directions (19-20): In the following question the 1st and the last part of the sentence/passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence/ passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence/passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct.

1. There was nobody in the market at that time of the night.
P. Added to that it had been raining incessantly.
Q. The night was darker than usual.
R. All shops were closed.
S. The atmosphere was heavy.
6. The stars disappeared from the sky and it made the night heavier.
Answer: B

2. The fame of Bacon as a creative writer rests mainly on his essays.
P. The term is derived from ‘essai’.
Q. It may be perhaps desirable to write something on ‘Essay’.
R. ‘Essai’ means experiment, attempt.
S. The essay covers an enormous range of composition.
6. In style the essay is often self revelatory and illustrative.
Answer: B
1. There are 35 students in a hostel. If the number of students increases by 7, the expenses of the hostel increases by Rs. 42 per day while the average expenditure per head diminishes by Re. 1. The original expenditure of the hostel is:
A. Rs. 380
B. Rs. 420
C. Rs. 490
D. Rs. 510
Answer: B

2. If 4,5,6,6,6,6,6,6,6,7 be a random sample from a Poisson population with parameter λ, then an unbiased estimate of λ is:
A. 4.2
B. 5
C. 5.8
D. 6
Answer: C

3. The coefficient of correlation between two variables X and Y is 0.48. The covariance is 36. The variance of X is 16. The standard deviation of Y is:
A. 10.15
B. 13.32
C. 16.5
D. 18.75
Answer: D

4. A random sample of size n is drawn from a population of size N by SRSWOR method. Then the standard error of sample mean will be zero if n is
A. N ­ 1
B. N
C. tending to infinity
D. none of the options
Answer: B

5. When the collected data is grouped with reference to time, we have
A. Quantitative classification
B. Qualitative classification
C. Geographical classification
D. Chronological classifications
Answer: D

6. The correlation coefficient between two variables X and Y is 0.4. The correlation coefficient between 2X and (­Y) will be:
A. 0.4
B. ­0.8
C. ­0.4
D. 0.8
Answer: ­C

7. If a population consists of 10 units and SRSWOR is adopted, the probability of selecting a specified sample of 2 units is:
A. 1/10
B. 1/45
C. 1/90
D. 1/100
Answer: 1/45

8. In simple random sampling of n units from a population of N units the quantity [1­ (n/N)] is called the
A. sampling fraction
B. expansion factor
C. finite population correction factor
D. degrees of freedom
Answer: C

1. Which of the following are major components of the Information Technology Enabled Services (ITES) industry in India
A. IT services and BPO
B. Manufacturing Services
C. Software Products
D. All the options
Answer: D

2. Which of the following is not a function of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
A. Supervising the working of the stock Exchanges
B. Underwriting new Capital Issues
C. Regulating merchant banks and mutual funds
D. Promoting the development of a healthy Capital market
Answer: B

3. The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) has been created under.
A. Reserve Bank of India
C. Ministry of Agriculture
D. Ministry of Rural Development
Answer: B

4. An enterprise­ wise resource planning (ERP) system integrates the organization’s Computerized subsystems and may also provide links to external parties. Identify the advantage of ERP
A. The re­-engineering needed for its implementation should improve business processes
B. Customizing the software to suit the unique needs of the organization of all sizes
C. The comprehensiveness of the system reduces resistance to change
D. It can be installed by organization of all sizes
Answer: A

5. Open market operations are
A. activities of SEBI registered Brokers
B. selling of securities by RBI
C. issue of gilt edged securities by government
D. sale of shares by Foreign Institutional Investors
Answer: B

6. When too much money chases too few goods, the resulting inflation is called.
A. Deflation
B. Demand pull inflation
C. Cost push inflation
D. Stagflation
Answer: B

7. UDAY Stands for
A. Unmukt Deficit Assurance Yojna
B. Ujwal Discom Assurance Yojna
C. Unmukt Discom Assurance Yojna
D. Ujjwal deficit Assurance Yojna
Answer: B

8. Globalisation is a process of increasing economic integration in the world among
A. Trade organisations
B. Social organisations
C. Countries
D. Financial Institutions
Answer: C

9. In the post­reforms period, Foreign Exchange Regulation Act was replaced by
A. Foreign Exchange Management Act.
B. Funds Exchange Management Act.
C. Fiscal Exchange Management Act.
D. Foreign Equity Management Act.
Answer: A

10. Disguised unemployment refers to
A. Persons with no proper jobs.
B. Unemployment of people above to 60 years of age.
C. More persons employed for a job which less persons can accomplish.
D. Unemployment among rural woman.
Answer: C

shape Test

For SSC CGL Practice Test – CLICK HERE

shape Tips

To Prepare SSC CGL Tier-II 2018, there are 4 sections in the Question paper and the candidate needs to be excellent at are – Quantitative Aptitude, English Language, Statistics, Finance and Economics.

  • Make a Study plan and Divide the Easy and Difficult topics. Concentrate on Difficult Subjects. Understand the Difficult Concepts and Practice well.

  • Practice Previous year Question Papers of SSC CGL 2018.

  • The first thing you should do is Solve at least one Mock Test every day.

  • Make a Time Table yourself section-wise.

  • Mock tests will also help you work on the 3 parameters i.e. Time management, Speed and Accuracy.

  • Try different time-management strategies like the ones given below and adopt the one that suits you the best.