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SSC MTS General Awareness

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SSC MTS General Awareness

shape Introduction

  • The SSC MTS General Awareness section in Computer Based Examination contains 25 questions with 25 Maximum Marks (Each question carry 1 Mark).

  • There will be negative marking and 0.25 marks shall be deducted for each wrong answer.

shape Pattern

SSC MTS Paper-I - Computer Based Examination Pattern:
  • The examination duration and number of questions for Computer Based Examination are indicated below:
    Dates of Computer Based Examination (Tier-I) Part Subject (Not in sequence) Number of Questions/ Maximum Marks Time Duration (For all four Parts)
    02-08-2019 to 06-09-2019 I General English 25/ 25 90 Minutes (120 Minutes for candidates eligible for scribes)
    II General Intelligence & Reasoning 25/ 25
    III Numerical Aptitude 25/ 25
    IV General Awareness 25/ 25

  • Paper-I will consist of Objective Type, Multiple choice questions only. The questions will be set both in English & Hindi for Part-II, III & IV.

  • The examination duration will be 120 Minutes for eligible PwBD candidates accompanied with Scribe.

  • Answer Keys, in due course after the Computer Based Examination, will be placed on the website of the Commission (https://ssc.nic.in). Any representation regarding answer keys received within the time limit fixed by the Commission at the time of uploading of the answer keys will be scrutinized and the decision of the Commission in this regard will be final. No representation regarding Answer keys shall be entertained, afterwards.

  • Marks scored by candidates in Paper-I will be normalized by using the formula published by the Commission through Notice No: 1-1/2018-P&P-I dated 07-02-2019 and such normalized scores will be used to determine final merit and cut-off marks.

shape Syllabus

[Click Here] for SSC MTS General Awareness syllabus.

shape Samples

Sports
1. The first Asian team which is to win a Test series in South Africa.
    A. Singapore B. Bangladesh C. Nepal D. Sri Lanka

Answers: Option (D)
Explanation: Sri Lanka cricket team became the first Asian side to win a Test series in South Africa after winning the series by 2-0. This was Sri Lanka's sixth series in South Africa and their first win. Kusal Perera was given the Man of the Series award. Before Sri Lanka, only Australia and England have defeated South Africa in a Test series at home.
2. Which film won the Best Foreign Film in Oscar 2019?
    A. Shoplifters B. Cold War C. Roma D. Capernaum

Answers: Option (C)
Explanation: Mexico's "Roma" is the winner of the best foreign language film at the Oscars.
3. Which country has won the team event at the first Mallakhamb World Championship 2019?
    A. Singapore B. Norway C. England D. India

Answers: Option (D)
Explanation: India emerged as winners in the team event of First Mallakhamb World Championship was held in Shivaji Park in central Mumbai in which India became the winner. This sport involves athletes performing various yogic and gymnastic poses while hanging from a rope or on a pole. 15 countries participated in the event- Spain, Germany, Czech Republic, Italy, USA, Iran, Norway, England, France, Malaysia, Singapore, Japan, Vietnam, Bahrain, and India.
4. Which cricket team clinches The Irani Cup Title in Nagpur?
    A. Jharkhand cricket team B. Mumbai cricket team C. Vidarbha cricket team D. Karnataka cricket team

Answers: Option (C)
Explanation: Vidarbha became the only 3rd team in Indian Domestic Cricket history after Bombay and Karnataka to defend their Irani cup titles at Jamtha Stadium in Nagpur by defeating rest of India. Vidarbha chased a target of 280 runs on the day and young Karnewar was the Player of the match.
5. Who won the 9th Hockey India Senior Women National Championship (B Division) held in Hisar, Haryana?
    A. Railways B. Sports Authority of India C. Hockey Jharkhand D. Hockey Haryana

Answers: Option (B)
Explanation: Sports Authority of India Won 9th Hockey India Senior Women National Championship (B Division) held in Hisar, Haryana. They defeated Hockey Chandigarh by 4-1 in the final. In 9th Hockey India Junior Women National Championship (A-division) Hockey Jharkhand beat Hockey Haryana for 2-1 in the final. The event concluded at Kollam Hockey Stadium, Kerala. Steel Plant Sports Board beat UCO Bank for 1-0 and secured third place in the match. Sarabdeep Kaur was the line scorer for Chandigarh in the final. 9th Hockey India Senior Women National Championship 2019 (A Division) is scheduled to be held from 8th to 18th February in Hisar, Haryana.
History
1. The system of Dual Government during the latter half of the 18th century AD is associated with the name of
    A. Clive B. Cornwallis C. Warren Hastings D. William Bentinck

Answers: Option (A)
2. 'The Vedas contain all the truth was interpreted by
    A. Swami Vivekananda B. Swami Dayananda C. Raja Rammohan Roy D. None of the above

Answers: Option (B)
3. The term Samanta, meaning a feudatory from the sixth century AD, originally meant a
    A. slave B. cultivator C. neighbour D. foreigner

Answers: Option (C)
4. To evolve a peaceful settlement of the conflict between India and China, which of the following non-aligned Afro-Asian nations participated in a conference held in December 1962?
    A. Burma (now Myanmar), Cambodia, Indonesia and UAR B. Burma, Sri Lanka, Cambodia and Indonesia C. Burma, Indonesia, Ghana and Sri Lanka D. All of the above

Answers: Option (D)
5. Tulsidas, the author of Ramcharitmanas, was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?
    A. Akbar B. Humayun C. Shahjahan D. Sher Shah Suri

Answers: Option (A)
Culture
1. Who composed the famous song 'Sare Jahan SeAchha'?
    A. Jaidev B. Mohammad Iqbal C. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay D. Rabindranath Tagore

Answers: Option (B)
2. In which of the following festivals are boat races a special feature?
    A. Onam B. Rongali Bihu C. Navratri D. Pongal

Answers: Option (A)
3. Kalachakra ceremony is associated with which of the following ceremonies?
    A. Hinduism B. Buddhism C. Jainism D. Islam

Answers: Option (B)
4. Which of the following places is famous for Chikankari work, which is a traditional art of embroidery?
    A. Lucknow B. Hyderabad C. Jaipur D. Mysore

Answers: Option (A)
Explanation: Lucknow, in Uttar Pradesh (India), is the centre of chikankari, a skill of more than 200 years old. It literally means 'embroidery'. It was originally done with a white thread on a white cloth, hence the name 'white embroidery'. Now, it is done on a variety of fabrics and in a spectrum of colours.
5. The National Song of India was composed by
    A. Rabindranath Tagore B. Bankim Chandra Chatterji C. Iqbal D. Jai Shankar Prasad

Answers: Option (B)
Geography
1. Which of the following state is not crossed by the Tropic of Cancer?
    A. Rajasthan B. Chhattisgarh C. Odisha D. Tripura

Answers: Option (C)
2. Which is the easternmost longitude of India?
    A. 97° 25' E B. 77° 6' E C. 68° 7' E D. 82° 32' E

Answers: Option (C)
3. Which of the following country have a common frontier with the Indian State like Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim?
    A. China B. Nepal C. Bhutan D. Myanmar

Answers: Option (B)
4. Which of the following Union Territories of India will best suited for summer vacation, if you choose Kavarati to visit?
    A. Pondicherry B. Andaman and Nicobar C. Lakshadweep D. Diu and Daman

Answers: Option (C)
5. Which of the following the country does not share a land boundary with India?
    A. Bhutan B. Bangladesh C. Tajikistan D. Nepal

Answers: Option (C)
Economic
1. To eradicate the problem of poverty, Twenty Point Economic Programme was launched for the first time in India on:
    A. 7th July, 1971 B. 7th July, 1975 C. 26th January, 1951 D. 15th August, 1983

Answers: Option (B)
2. _____unemployment may result when some workers are temporarily out of work while changing job
    A. Seasonal B. Frictional C. Disguised D. Technical

Answers: Option (B)
3. Which among below is the economic effect of population pressure in India?
    A. The higher burden of unproductive consumers on total population B. Disintegration of family C. Overcrowding of cities D. Ecological degradation

Answers: Option (A)
4. Which among the following may be considered as a significant cause of low agriculture productivity in India?
    A. Defective tenancy reforms B. Lack of enthusiasm among farmers C. Conservative social systems D. Absence of agricultural inputs to raise productivity

Answers: Option (A)
5. What have been the reasons for deficit in India’s Balance of Trade in the past?
    A. Very large rise in imports B. Modest growth in exports C. High cost and low-quality production D. All of the above

Answers: Option (D)
General Polity
1. When was Central Vigilance Commission established?
    A. 1964 B. 2005 C. 1972 D. 1988

Answers: Option (A)
2. Which committee recommended the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission?
    A. Sarkariya Committee B. Santhanam Committee C. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee D. Narshingham Committee

Answers: Option (B)
3. Who is the current Central Vigilance Commissioner?
    A. Ranjit Sinha B. T.M. Bhasin C. Arvind Mayaram D. K.V.Chaudhary

Answers: Option (D)
4. Who appoints the Central Vigilance Commissioner?
    A. President B. President, after obtaining the recommendation from a committee consisting of Prime Minister of India, Home Minister and Leader of opposition C. Prime Minister, Home Minister and Chief Justice of India D. President, after having a consultation with Chief Election Commissioner of India

Answers: Option (B)
5. Who has the power to remove Central Vigilance Commissioner and other Vigilance commissioners?
    A. President & Supreme Court B. Chief Justice of Supreme Court C. President on the recommendation of Election Commission. D. Prime Minister, Home Minister and Chief Justice of India

Answers: Option (A)
Indian Constitution
1. Who said that the preamble is the keynote to the constitution?
    A. Earnest Barker B. B.R. Ambedkar C. K.M. Munshi D. Jawahar Lal Nehru

Answers: Option (A)
2. Which feature of Indian constitution is not taken from the American constitution?
    A. Preamble B. Single citizenship C. Judicial Review D. Fundamental Rights

Answers: Option (B)
3. Procedure for the amendment of the constitution is taken the form:
    A. USA B. Russia C. South Africa D. Canada

Answers: Option (C)
4. The concept of the Federal System in Indian constitution is taken from:
    A. Ireland B. Australia C. Germany D. Canada

Answers: Option (D)
5. Which of the following statement is true regarding the Indian constitution?
    A. Lawmaking procedure is taken from Britain B. Concept of single citizenship is taken from the United Kingdom C. Concept of judicial review is taken from Canada D. Appointment of the governor in different states is taken from Australia

Answers: Option (B)
Scientific Research
1. What is the process of intake of nutrients by an organism as well as the utilisation of these nutrients by the organisms called?
    A. Nutrition B. Photosynthesis C. Chloroplasts D. Digestion

Answers: Option (A)
2. The mode of nutrition in which an organism makes its own food from the simple inorganic material like carbon dioxide and water present in the surrounding is called:
    A. Heterotrophic nutrition B. Saprotrophic nutrition C. Autotrophic nutrition D. Holozoic nutrition

Answers: Option (C)
3. What is the mode of nutrition called in which organisms cannot make its own food from simple inorganic material and depends on other organisms for its food?
    A. Autotrophic nutrition B. Heterotrophic nutrition C. Parasitic nutrition D. Holozoic nutrition

Answers: Option (B)
4. When an organism obtains its food from decaying organic matter of dead plants, dead animals and rotten bread, etc., it is called:
    A. Parasitic nutrition B. Autotrophic nutrition C. Holozoic nutrition D. Saprotrophic nutrition

Answers: Option (D)
5. The nutrition in which an organism derives its food from the body of another living organism without killing it, it’s called:
    A. Saprotrophic nutrition B. Parasitic nutrition C. Holozoic nutrition D. Autotrophic nutrition

Answers: Option (B)

SSC MTS – Related Information
SSC MTS – Reasoning - Study Guide
SSC MTS – English Language - Study Guide
SSC MTS – Quantitative Aptitude - Study Guide