Computer Awareness - SPLessons

UGC NET Computer Science Quiz

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5 Steps - 3 Clicks

UGC NET Computer Science Quiz

shape Introduction

A Computer is a device that can be instructed to carry out sequences of arithmetic or logical operations automatically via computer programming“. Computers follow a generalized set of operations termed as programs. The programs enable the computers to perform an extremely wide range of tasks. Computers are now ubiquitous and are being used in every field of work. Thus, basic knowledge of computers and ability to operate a computer is now crucial for all job aspirants. UGC NET Computer Science Quiz Practice Sets lists some of the important questions for preparation of Computer Science module for University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test.


Computer Awareness also known as Computer Aptitude is one of the prominent sections in various recruitment related competitive exams in India such as IBPS PO, Clerk, SSC CGL, SBI PO, NIACL Assistant, NICL AO, IBPS RRB, Railways, Civil Services, UGC NET, etc.. UGC NET Computer Science Quiz Practice Sets lists some of the important questions for preparation of Computer Science module for University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test. The most significant topics to be learnt for Computer Awareness module are as follows:


  1. History of Computers
  2. Computer Fundamentals
  3. Parts of a Computer System
  4. Data Processing Cycle of a Computer
  5. Computer Languages
  6. Input Devices & Output Devices
  7. Operating Systems
  8. Database Management Systems
  9. Microsoft Office
  10. Keyboard Shortcuts
  11. File Extensions
  12. Networking and Internet
  13. Computer Viruses
  14. Important Abbreviations


shape Quiz

Q1. A _________ is used to direct and dispatch data packets between different networks.

    (a) Connection
    (b) Bridge
    (c) Gateway
    (d) Router


Answer: (d)

Explanation: A router is used to route data packets between different networks. It reads the information in each packet to tell where it is going. If it is destined for an immediate network it has access to, it will strip the outer packet (IP packet for example), readdress the packet to the proper Ethernet address, and transmit it on that network.


Q2. What is the number of function keys on a keyboard?

    (a) 15
    (b) 12
    (c) 11
    (d) 16


Answer: (b)

Explanation: A function key is a key on a computer or terminal keyboard which can be programmed so as to cause an operating system command interpreter or application program to perform certain actions.


Q3. Which among the following is also known as Number cruncher?

    (a) Minicomputer
    (b) Supercomputer
    (c) Microcomputer
    (d) Mainframe computer


Answer: (b)

Explanation: Supercomputers are designed to be excellent number crunchers.


Q4. A key that will erase information from the computer’s memory and characters on the screen:

    (a) Edit
    (b) Delete key
    (c) Dummy out
    (d) Trust key


Answer: (b)

Explanation: Delete key is used to delete data.


Q5. What is an ad hoc query?

    (a) Pre-planned question
    (b) Pre-scheduled question
    (c) Spur-of-the-moment question
    (d) A question that will not return any results


Answer: (c)

Explanation: An Ad-Hoc Query is a query that cannot be determined prior to the moment the query is issued. It is created in order to get information when a need arises and it consists of dynamically constructed SQL which is usually constructed by desktop-resident query tools.


Q6. IBM was provided software for PC DOS by which of the following company?

    (a) Microsoft
    (b) Sony
    (c) Google
    (d) Apple


Answer: (a)

Explanation: Microsoft provided Operating System to IBM PC DOS.


Q7. Keyboards, scanners, and microphones are examples of __________.

    (a) software programs
    (b) input devices
    (c) output devices
    (d) utilities


Answer: (b)

Explanation: They all are input devices.


Q8. An application where only one user accesses the database at a given time is an example of a(n) _______ _.

    (a) single-user database application
    (b) multiuser database application
    (c) e-commerce database application
    (d) data mining database application


Answer: (a)

Explanation: The single-user mode allows only one connection to a database at a given moment in time.


Q9. Which of the following files acts as the loader for Windows?

    (a) WIN.EXE
    (b) DOSX.EXE
    (c) WIN.COM
    (d) WIN32.COM


Answer: (c)

Explanation: WIN.COM is the executable file used to load versions of Windows that run from DOS. In Windows 3.1 and its predecessors, it is executed either manually from the DOS prompt or as a line in AUTOEXEC.BAT.


Q10. In DHCP, C stands for?

    (a) Centralized
    (b) Centered
    (c) Cut
    (d) Control


Answer: (D)

Explanation: DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Control Protocol.

Q1. What type of web technology creates an online community where people can make statements and others can read and respond to those statements?

    (a) I-Journal
    (b) Podcast
    (c) ASP
    (d) Blog


Answer: (d)

Explanation: A blog is a regularly updated website or web page, typically one run by an individual or small group, that is written in an informal or conversational style.


Q2. Chip is a common nickname for a(n) ______ .

    (a) Transistor
    (b) Semi-conductor
    (c) Resister
    (d) Integrated circuit


Answer: (d)

Explanation: An integrated circuit or monolithic integrated circuit (also referred to as an IC, a chip, or a microchip) is a set of electronic circuits on one small plate (“chip”) of semiconductor material, normally silicon.


Q3. A/(n) ___________ is an object embedded in a web page or email, which unobtrusively (usually invisibly) allows checking that a user has accessed the content.

    (a) email
    (b) virus
    (c) web beacon
    (d) spam


Answer: (c)

Explanation: Common uses of web beacon are email tracking and page tagging for web analytics. Its alternative names are web bug, tracking bug, tag, or page tag.


Q4. Charles Babbage is known to have conceived which of the following earliest Computing machine?

    (a) Analytical engine
    (b) ENIAC
    (c) UNIVAC
    (d) All of the above.


Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Analytical Engine was a proposed mechanical general-purpose computer designed by English mathematician and computer pioneer Charles Babbage. It was first described in 1837 as the successor to Babbage’s difference engine, a design for a mechanical computer.


Q5. What is MP3?

    (a) A mouse
    (b) A Printer
    (c) A Scanner
    (d) A Sound format


Answer: (d)

Explanation: MP3 is an audio coding format for digital audio which uses a form of lossy data compression.


Q6. Functions of keys F1, F2 and F3 are _____________ respectively.

    (a) the activating menu bar, search and
    renaming selected icon
    (b) search, reboot and
    activating menu bar
    (c) activating help, renaming the selected icon
    and search
    (d) reboot, activating help and refresh


Answer: (c)

Explanation: Functions of keys F1, F2 and F3 are activating help, renaming selected icon and search respectively.


Q7. Which of the following describe router functions?

    (a) Packet switching
    (b) Packet filtering
    (c) Internetwork communication
    (d) All of the above


Answer: (d)

Explanation: All of the given options are router functions.


Q8. Which among the following computer network usually spans a city or a large campus?

    (a) LAN
    (b) DAN
    (c) MAN
    (d) WAN


Answer: (c)

Explanation: MAN is an abbreviation for Metropolitan Area Network and is a computer network that usually spans a city or a large campus.


Q9. Name the input device from the given options, that cannot be used to work in MS Office?

    (a) Scanner
    (b) Mouse
    (c) Keyboard
    (d) Joystick


Answer: (d)

Explanation: The joystick is used for gaming purpose and MS Word is a text editing application.


Q10. Which type of virus is generally scripted into common application programs like Excel and Word to infect the other documents and spreads to the other parts when the application is running?

    (a) Macro Viruses
    (b) File infector virus
    (c) Resident Viruses
    (d) Boot virus


Answer: (a)

Explanation: A macro virus is a computer virus that “infects” a Microsoft Word or similar application and causes a sequence of actions to be performed automatically when the application is started or something else triggers it.

Q1. To ‘maximize’ a window means to :

    (a) Fill it to capacity
    (b) Expand it to fit the desktop
    (c) Put only like files inside
    (d) Drag it to the Recycle Bin


Answer: (b)

Explanation: ‘maximize’ a window means expanding it to fit the desktop.


Q2. Which of the following types of the menu shows the further sub-choices?

    (a) Reverse
    (b) Template
    (c) Scrolled
    (d) Pull-down


Answer: (d)

Explanation: Pull down menu shows further sub- choices.


Q3. Which physical layer devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment?

    1. Switch
    2. NIC
    3. Hub
    4. Repeater
    5. RJ45 transceiver


    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 3
    (c) 3 and 4
    (d) 5 only


Answer: (c)

Explanation: A repeater operates at the physical layer. Its job is to regenerate the signal over the same network before the signal becomes too weak or corrupted so as to extend the length to which the signal can be transmitted over the same network. A hub is basically a multiport repeater. A hub connects multiple wires coming from different branches, for example, the connector in star topology which connects different stations.


Q4.The trackball is an example of a/an:

    (a) Programming device
    (b) Pointing device
    (c) Output device
    (d) Software device


Answer: (b)

Explanation: The trackball is an example of a pointing device (mouse).


Q5. A microcomputer is a small, relatively inexpensive computer with a microprocessor. Which is the first microcomputer?

    (a) Z2
    (b) Titan-1
    (c) MARK-B
    (d) Altair


Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Altair is widely recognized as the spark that ignited the microcomputer revolution as the first commercially successful personal computer.


Q6. Which of the following is the shortcut key combination that can be used to type in bold in MS Excel?

    (a) Ctrl + Down Arrow Key
    (b) Ctrl + 2
    (c) Ctrl + 3
    (d) Ctrl + 4


Answer: (b)

Explanation: Ctrl + 2 is the shortcut key that can be used to type text in bold in Excel.


Q7.Which of the following supports 32- bit processor?

    (a) Windows 2000
    (b) Windows 7
    (c) Windows 8.1
    (d) All of the above


Answer: (d)

Explanation: All of the given options support 32-bit processor


Q8.Which among the following is the largest unit of storage?

    (a) Byte
    (b) Bit
    (c) Bug
    (d) Petabyte


Answer: (d)

Explanation: Petabyte among the given options is the largest unit of storage, Nibble= 4Bits, Byte= 8Bits. 1 Petabyte = 1024 Terabyte


Q9.Which among the following is a language directly understood by CPU?

    (a) Machine
    (b) C
    (c) C++
    (d) Java


Answer: (a)

Explanation: CPU doesn’t understand the C++ language (or any high-level programming language). All the High-level language statements must be translated into machine code before they can be executed.


Q10. What should be used if a company wants to include its company name and logo at the bottom of every page of a brochure?

    (a) Header
    (b) Macro
    (c) Footer
    (d) Footnote


Answer:(c)

Explanation: Headers and footers are pieces of text, or graphics, which appear at the top and bottom of a page. If a company wants to include its company name and logo at the bottom of every page of the brochure then it will use the Footer.

Q1.Which among the following is the time period during which a computer is malfunctioning or not operating correctly due to machine failures?

    (a) Downtime
    (b) Uptime
    (c) Response time
    (d) Runtime


Answer: (a)


Q2. The terms Goodput, Throughput and Maximum throughput are most closely associated with which among the following in computers?

    (a) Bit Rate
    (b) Response Time
    (c) Command Line Interface
    (d) Random memory


Answer: (a)


Q3. The terms Bug and Debugging are generally used in which among the following?

    1. Software
    2. Hardware
    3. Internet Programmes


Select the correct option from the codes given below:

    (a) 1 & 2
    (b) 2 & 3
    (c) 1 & 3
    (d) 1, 2 & 3


Answer: (d)


Q4. As a person working in internet banking environment, why you should be aware of the “Dictionary attack”?

    (a) It is used to inject worms or viruses in the system
    (b) It is used to determine a password
    (c) It is used to access a customer’s account by determining other details
    (d) It is used for stealing info from the Credit Card


Answer: (b)

Q5. The PDF documents are dependent upon which among the following to display the text, fonts, graphics, and other information contained by them?

    1. Application software
    2. Hardware
    3. Operating systems


    (a) Only 1
    (b) 1 & 2
    (c) 1,2 &3
    (d) None of the above


Answer: (d)


Q6.Which among the following is an example of “Card not present transaction” in context with the Credit / Debit Cards?

    (a) A person paying a restaurant bill by giving details of his credit card
    (b) A person making an online purchase using his / her credit card
    (c) A person making a purchase using mobile banking
    (d) Both 2 & 3


Answer: (d)


Q7. What do we call the process of collecting, organizing, storing and otherwise maintaining a complete historical record of programs and other documents used or prepared during the different phases of the system?

    (a) Segmentation
    (b) Documentation
    (c) Data Management
    (d) Data History


Answer: (b)


Q8. The terms “push and pull services” in context with the Banking are used in which among the following generally?

    (a) Rural Banking
    (b) Unit Banking
    (c) Mobile Banking
    (d) Online banking


Answer: (c)

Notes: Mobile Banking, refers to SMS sending on customer’s request and without requests.


Q9. The One-time password (OTP) can be obtained by a customer, via which among the following?

    (a) Approaching the nearest Bank Branch
    (b) SMS on Mobile
    (c) E-mail by applying for OTP online
    (d) All of the above


Answer: (b)


Q10.The term Round-trip delay time, used in telecommunication is replaced in computers with which among the following?

    (a) Access time
    (b) Response time
    (c) Ping time
    (d) Entrance time


Answer: (c)

Q1. A file is downloaded in a home computer using a 56 kbps MODEM connected to an Internet Service Provider. If the download of file completes in 2 minutes, what is the maximum size of data downloaded?

    (a) 112 Mbits
    (b) 6.72 Mbits
    (c) 67.20 Mbits
    (d)672 Mbits


Answer: (b)


Q2. In ______ CSMA protocol, after the station finds the line idle, it sends or refrains from sending based on the outcome of a random number generator.

    (a) Non-persistent
    (b) 0-persistent
    (c) 1-persistent
    (d) p-persistent


Answer: (d)


Q3. Which of the following substitution technique have the relationship between a character in the plaintext and a character in the ciphertext as one-to-many?

    (a) Monoalphabetic
    (b) Polyalphabetic
    (c) Transpositional
    (d) None


Answer: (b)


Q4. What is the maximum length of CAT-5 UTP cable in Fast Ethernet network?

    (a) 100 meters
    (b) 200 meters
    (c) 1000 meters
    (d) 2000 meters


Answer: (a)


Q5. The count-to-infinity problem is associated with

    (a) Flooding algorithm
    (b) Hierarchical routing algorithm
    (c) Distance vector routing Algorithm
    (d) Link state routing algorithm


Answer: (c)


Q6. The IEEE single-precision and double-precision format to represent floating-point numbers has a length of ______ and ______ respectively

    (a) 8 bits and 16 bits
    (b) 16 bits and 32 bits
    (c) 32 bits and 64 bits
    (d) 64 bits and 128 bits


Answer: (c)


Q7. A method to provide secure transmission of email is called ____.

    (a) TLS
    (b) SA
    (c) IPSec
    (d) PGP


Answer: (d)


Q8. Suppose a file of 10,000 characters is to be sent over a line at 2400 bps. Assume that the data is sent in frames. Each frame consists of 1000 characters and an overhead of 48 bits per frame. Using synchronous transmission, the total overhead time is ______.

    (a) 0.05 second
    (b) 0.1 second
    (c) 0.2 second
    (d) 2.0 second


Answer: (c)


Q9. Which of the following is the size of Network bits and Host bits of Class A of IP address ?

    (a) Network bits 7, Host bits 24
    (b) Network bits 14, Host bits 16
    (c) Network bits 15, Host bits 16
    (d) Network bits 16, Host bits 16


Answer: (b)


Q10. Which of the following field of the TCP header tells how many bytes may be sent starting at the byte acknowledged?

    (a) TCP header length
    (b) Window size
    (c) Acknowledgment number
    (d) Urgent Pointer


Answer: (b)

Q1. If a Human voice is required to be digitized what will be the bit rate at 16 bits per sample?

    (a) 64 kbps
    (b) 128 kbps
    (c) 256 kbps
    (d) 512 kbps


Answer: (b)


Q2. Six channels, each with a 200 khz bandwidth are to be multiplexed together. what is the minimum bandwidth requirement if each guard band is 20Khz

    (a) 1000 KHz
    (b) 1100 KHz
    (c) 1200 KHz
    (d) 1300 KHz


Answer: (d)


Q3. Which of these is not an advantage of Optical fibers

    (a) easy installation and maintenance
    (b) Immune to electromagnetic interference
    (c) Less signal attenuation
    (d) greater immunity to tapping


Answer: (a)


Q4. Which of these multiplexing techniques is digital for combining several low -rate channels into one high-rate one

    (a) FDM
    (b) WDM
    (c) TDM
    (d) None of the above


Answer: (c)


Q5. Which of these is a type of antenna used in microwave communications?

    (a) Parabolic Dish Antenna.
    (b) Horn Antenna.
    (c) Both a and b
    (d) none of these.


Answer: (c)


Q6. What is the range of wavelength of infrared waves that is used in short range communication

    (a) 1 mm to 770 nm
    (b) 1 cm to 77 nm
    (c) 10 mm to 770 nm
    (d) 10 mm to 77 nm


Answer: (d)


Q7. How switching is performed in the internet?

    (a) datagram approach to circuit switching at data link layer
    (b) Virtual circuit approach to message switching at the network layer
    (c) datagram approach to message switching at the datalink layer
    (d) datagram approach to packet switching at network layer


Answer: (a)


Q8. What are the three phases in virtual circuit switching?

    (a) Setup, data transfer, teardown
    (b) request-connect, data sending-acknowledgment, request-disconnect
    (c) send-connect, data transfer, request-disconnect
    (d) none of above


Answer: (c)


Q9. Which of these statements is true about packet switching networks?

    (a) Resource allocation is done for a packet beforehand
    (b) Bandwidth is reserved on the links
    (c) Scheduled processing for a packet
    (d) Resource allocation is done on demand


Answer: (d)


Q10. what are the components of a packet switch ?

    (a) input ports, output ports, a router processor, a switching fabric
    (b) input ports, output ports, a router processor.
    (c) input ports, output ports, a switching fabric
    (d) input ports, output ports, a router processing, a switching fabric, a memory chip


Answer: (a)

Q1. Which of the following is a bit rate of an 8-PSK signal having 2500 Hz bandwidth ?

    (a) 2500 bps
    (b) 5000 bps
    (c) 7500 bps
    (d) 20000 bps


Answer: (c)


Q2. Match the following : (a) UDP (i) Message Transfer Protocol (b) OSPF (ii) Bit-oriented Protocol (c) SMTP (iii) Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (d) HDLC (iv) Connectionless Transport Protocol Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)

    (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
    (b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
    (c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
    (d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)


Answer: (c)


Q3. Given the IP address 201.14.78.65 and the subnet mask 255.255.255.224. What is the subnet address ?

    (a) 201.14.78.32
    (b) 201.14.78.64
    (c) 201.14.78.65
    (d) 201.14.78.224


Answer: (b)


Q4. If the data unit is 111111 and the divisor is 1010. In CRC method, what is the dividend at the transmission before division ?

    (a) 1111110000
    (b) 1111111010
    (c) 111111000
    (d) 111111


Answer: (c)


Q5. If user A wants to send an encrypted message to user B. The plain text of A is encrypted with the _______.

    (a) Public Key of user A
    (b) Public Key of user B
    (c) Private Key of user A
    (d) Private Key of user B


Answer: (b)

Q6. Which of these is not a level of address in internet following TCP/IP

    (a) Link Address
    (b) Logical address
    (c) layer address
    (d) Port Address


Answer: (c)


Q7. Programs tend to make memory accesses that are in proximity of previous access this is called

    (a) spatial locality
    (b) temporal locality
    (c) reference locality
    (d) access locality


Answer: (a)


Q8. Which term means to access some data and instructions repeatedly?

    (a) spatial locality
    (b) temporal locality
    (c) reference locality
    (d) access locality


Answer: (b)


Q9. Processor architectures use several levels of cache memories to reduce the effective memory access time. which is the correct match i) Network Layer a) Establishes, Manages and terminates sessions ii) Transport Layer b) Format and code conversion services iii) Session Layer c) Process to process delivery of the entire message iv) Presentation Layer d) Connecting independent networks

    (a) i)-a ii)-b iii)-c iv)-d
    (b) i)-d ii)-c iii)-a iv)-b
    (c) i)-b ii)-a iii)-d iv)-c
    (d) i)-d ii)-c iii)-b iv)-a


Answer: (b)


Q10. A complex low pass signal has a bandwidth of 100kHz. What is the minimum sampling rate for this signal

    (a) 100,000.
    (b) 200,000
    (c) 400,000
    (d) 800,000


Answer: (a)

Q1. Which of these is correct for synchronous Time Division Multiplexing

    (a) The data rate of the link is n times faster and the unit duration is n times longer
    (b) The data rate of the link is n times slower and the unit duration is n times shorter
    (c) The data rate of the link is n times slower and the unit duration is n times longer
    (d) The data rate of the link is n times faster and the unit duration is n times shorter


Answer: (d)


Q2. In TDM Data rate management is done by which of these strategies

    (a) Multilevel multiplexing
    (b) Multi-slot allocation
    (c) Pulse stuffing
    (d) all of the above


Answer: (d)


Q3. UTP Cat-5 cable normally 24 AWG with a jacket and outside sheath used at data rate

    (a) 100 Mbps in LANS
    (b) 1 Gbps in LANs
    (c) 100 Mbps in WANS
    (d) 1 Gbps in WANs


Answer: (a)


Q4. What is an SSTP?

    (a) Simple Shielded Twisted Pair
    (b) Shielded Screen Twisted Pair
    (c) Single Shielded Twisted Pair
    (d) Solid Shielded Twisted Pair


Answer: (b)


Q5. Bayonet-Neill-Concelman(BNC) connectors are used with which type of cables

    (a) UTP
    (b) STP
    (c) Coaxial cable
    (d) Optical Cables


Answer: (c)


Q6. In multimode graded-index fiber, the word index refers to

    (a) index of reflection
    (b) index of refraction
    (c) index density of optical material
    (d) b or c


Answer: (d)


Q7. which type of EM waves are used for unicast communication such as cellular telephones, satellite networks and wireless LANs.

    (a) Infrared
    (b) Microwaves
    (c) Radio waves
    (d) light waves


Answer: (b)


Q8. Which of these is not an advantage of Optical fibers

    (a) easy installation and maintenance
    (b) Immune to electromagnetic interference
    (c) Less signal attenuation
    (d) greater immunity to tapping


Answer: (a)


Q9. Which of these Electro-Magnetic waves is used for short range and line of propagation communications

    (a) Radio waves
    (b) Microwaves
    (c) Infrared signals
    (d) None of the above


Answer: (c)


Q10. What happens to a destination address in the header of a packet in a datagram network?

    (a) It remains the same during the entire journey.
    (b) Updated by every switching device on the way.
    (c) same till the gateway of the parent network and updated by gateway for the internet
    (d) none of these.


Answer: (a)

Q1. Which of these are the features of ADSL?

    (a) symmetric, adaptive and bandwidth up to 1.1 MHz
    (b) asymmetric, adaptive and bandwidth up to 1.1 MHz
    (c) asymmetric, non-adaptive and bandwidth up to 1.1 MHz
    (d) symmetric, non-adaptive and bandwidth up to 1.1 MHz


Answer: (b)


Q2. In stop and wait ARQ, the sequence numbers are generated using

    (a) Modulo-16 arithmetic
    (b) Modulo-8 arithmetic
    (c) Modulo-4 arithmetic
    (d) Modulo-2 arithmetic


Answer: (d)


Q3. In go-back-N protocol the how many times a send window can slide when a valid acknowledge arrives

    (a) One
    (b) Two
    (c) One or more
    (d) none of the above


Answer: (c)


Q4. Which of these is true for go-back-N protocol, if m is the size of sequence number field

    (a) size of the send window must be less than 2m and size of receiver window must be 1
    (b) size of the send window must be greater than 2m and size of receiver window must be 1
    (c) size of the send window must be less than 2m and size of receiver window must be 2m
    (d) size of the send window must be greater than 2m and size of receiver window must be 2m


Answer: (a)


Q5. Which of these is true for selective-repeat protocol , if m is the size of sequence number field

    (a) size of sender and receiver window must be less than 2m
    (b) size of sender and receiver window must be greater than 2m
    (c) size of sender and receiver window must be at most one half of 2m
    (d) size of sender and receiver window must be at least one half of 2m


Answer: (c)


Q6. To guarantee the detection of up to s errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be

    (a) s+1
    (b) 2s+1
    (c) 3s+1
    (d) s


Answer: (a)


Q7. To guarantee the correction of up to t errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be

    (a) t+1
    (b) 2t+1
    (c) 2t
    (d) t


Answer: (b)


Q8. What is maximum throughput for pure ALOHA ?

    (a) 0.184 when G=1
    (b) 1.84 when G=1/2
    (c) 0.184 when G=1/2
    (d) 1.84 when G=1


Answer: (c)


Q9. What is maximum throughput for slotted ALOHA?

    (a) 0.386 when G=1/2
    (b) 0.386 when G=1
    (c) 0.038 when G=1
    (d) 0.038 when G=1/2


Answer: (b)


Q10. What is the difference between CSMA/CD and ALOHA?

    (a) frame transmission
    (b) Addition of the persistence process
    (c) Jamming signal
    (d) All of the above


Answer: (d)

Q1. In CSMA/CD the transmission is deferred for a period of time called-

    (a)Interpacket Space
    (b) Interframe Space
    (c) Intermessage space
    (d) transmission delay


Answer: (b)


Q2. Which of these uses the Orthogonal Frequency-division Multiplexing for signal generation in a 5Ghz ISM Band.

    (a) 802.11
    (b) 802.11a
    (c) 802.11b
    (d) 802.11a


Answer:(b)


Q3. Which method is used by Bluetooth in the physical layer to avoid interference from other devices or networks
(a) Wavelength Hopping Spread Spectrum (WHSS)
(b) Time Hopping Spread Spectrum (THSS)
(c) Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
(d) None of the above


Answer: (c)


Q4. Which of these is the band specification for Bluetooth-2.4-GHz band divided into

    (a) 77 channels of 1 MHz each
    (b) 78 channels of 1 MHz each
    (c) 79 channels of 1 MHz each
    (d) 80 channels of 1 MHz each


Answer: (c)


Q5. Which of these is described as a multiport repeater?

    (a) Passive Hub
    (b) Active Hub
    (c) Bridge
    (d) Amplifier


Answer: (b)


Q6. Which of these is not a functionality of a Repeater?

    (a) regeneration
    (b) forwarding
    (c) Filtering
    (d) connects two segments of a LAN


Answer: (c)


Q7. Which of these devices is used to prevent loops in a system with redundant bridges?

    (a) Source routing bridges
    (b) Transparent bridges
    (c) Router
    (d) Bridges


Answer: (a)


Q8. What are the download and upload frequencies in ku satellite frequency band?

    (a) 1.9 GHz and 2.2 GHz
    (b) 4.0 GHz and 6.0 GHz
    (c) 11.0 GHz and 14.0 GHz
    (d) 20.0 GHz and 30.0 GHz


Answer: (c)


Q9. An example of Medium-Earth-Orbit satellite system is-

    (a) Global Positioning System
    (b) Cellular Phone
    (c) Weather forecast
    (d) Celestial studies


Answer: (a)


Q10. Iridium constellation system for Low-Earth-Orbit satellite uses

    (a) 70 satellites divided in 7 orbits
    (b) 66 satellites divided in 6 orbits
    (c) 77 satellites divided in 7 orbits
    (d) 60 satellites divided in 6 orbits


Answer: (b)