Forest Range Officer - SPLessons

FRO General Studies Mock Test

SPLessons 5 Steps, 3 Clicks
5 Steps - 3 Clicks

FRO General Studies Mock Test

FRO General Studies – Practice & Mock Test

shape Paper III

The FRO selection procedure includes a written examination, physical endurance test, medical test and an interview. The FRO written examination has 4 papers. This lesson will discuss the details of Paper III: General Studies, which is qualifying in nature and the marks obtained in Paper III are counted for the counted for the final selection. FRO General Studies Practice & FRO General Studies Mock Test questions will help the candidates in identifying their strengths and weaknesses in the General Studies section.

shape Pattern

Exam Mode Paper No of Questions Duration (min) Max Marks
OMR/Online General Studies Paper
(Paper – III)
150 Questions 150 Minutes 150 Marks

shape Syllabus

Detailed Syllabus for General Studies :

    • ✦ Current affairs – Regional, National and International.

 

    • ✦ International Relations and Events.

 

    • ✦ General Science; India’s Achievements in Science and Technology.

 

    • ✦ Environmental issues; Disaster Management- Prevention and Mitigation Strategies.

 

    • ✦ Economic and Social Development of India and Telangana.

 

    • ✦ Physical, Social and Economic Geography of India.

 

    • ✦ Physical, Social and Economic Geography and Demography of Telangana.

 

    • ✦ Socio-economic, Political and Cultural History of Modern India with special emphasis on Indian National Movement.

 

    • ✦ Socio-economic, Political and Cultural History of Telangana with special emphasis on Telangana Statehood Movement and formation of Telangana state.

 

    • ✦ Indian Constitution; Indian Political System; Governance and Public Policy.

 

    • ✦ Social Exclusion; Rights issues such as Gender, Caste, Tribe, Disability etc. and inclusive policies.

 

    • ✦ Society, Culture, Heritage, Arts and Literature of Telangana.

 

    ✦ Policies of Telangana State.


shape Q&A

Below provided are some of the types of questions to be expected in the FRO exam.

Sample Questions:

1. Which city hosted the first-ever National Conference on “Mission Mode to address Under-Nutrition”?

  1. Kolkata
  2. Jaipur
  3. New Delhi
  4. Guwahati

Answer: 3
2. Soniya, who won gold at the Ahmet Comert Boxing Championships for youth women, is related to which weight category?

  1.  48kg
  2. 60kg
  3. 64kg
  4. 57kg

Answer: 1
3. Who will be the new chief of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)?

  1. Jitendra Singh
  2. Rajni Kant Mishra
  3. Rakesh Srivastava
  4. Virendra Kumar

Answer: 2
4. Which state government has launched Shaheed Gram Vikas Yojana to provide houses to freedom fighters?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Uttar Pradesh
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Jharkhand

Answer: 4
5. Dr K S Chugh, the father of nephrology in India has passed away. He hailed from which state?

  1. Mizoram
  2. Assam
  3. Punjab
  4. Kerala

Answer: 3
6. Who will be new Director General of the National Investigation Agency (NIA)?

  1. Manoj Jhalani
  2. Parameswaran Iyer
  3. Nitin Yadav
  4. YC Modi

Answer: 4
7. Which of the following cricket teams are not directly qualified for the ICC Cricket World Cup 2019?

  1. West Indies
  2. New Zealand
  3. South Africa
  4. Sri Lanka

Answer: 1
8. Who has been appointed as new Indian High Commissioner to Pakistan?

  1. Ajay Bisaria
  2. Gautam Bambawale
  3. Satish Chandra
  4. Sharat Sabharwal

Answer: 1
9. Who of the following has won the 2017 Akkineni Nageswara Rao (ANR) National Award?

  1. Shabana Azmi
  2. Amitabh Bachchan
  3. S.S. Rajamouli
  4. Lata Mangeshkar

Answer: 3
10. The Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) is located in which state?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Bihar
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Himachal Pradesh

Answer: 2

Sample Questions:

1) When a gas is turned into a liquid, the process is called Incorrect!

  1. condensation
  2. evaporation
  3. deposition
  4. sublimation

Answer: 1
2) Which of the following parts of the sun is easily visible only during a total solar eclipse?

  1. core
  2. photosphere
  3. sunspots
  4. corona

Answer: 4
3) Earth’s seasons are caused by which of the following?

  1. The tilt of the earth’s rotation relative to the ecliptic as earth revolves around the sun
  2. The varying amount of sunspot activity
  3. The earth’s orbit around the sun as an exlipse rather than a circle
  4. The rotation of during a 24-hour day

Answer: 1
4) Which of the following is most likely to cause a rise in the average temperature of earth’s atmosphere in future?

  1. Atomic warfare
  2. CO2 from fossil fuels
  3. Dust clouds from valcanoes
  4. Depletion of earth’s ozone layer

Answer: 2
5) The accumulation of stress along the boundaries of lithospheric plates results in which of the following?

  1. Earthquakes
  2. Magnetic reversals
  3. Hurricanses
  4. Increased deposition of deep-sea sediments

Answer: 1
6) Which of the following elements is a metal

  1. S
  2. Se
  3. I
  4. Ga

Answer: 4
7) Which of the following items will be attracted to the north pole of a permanent magnet by a magnet force?

  1. The north pole of another permanent magnet
  2. A piece of iron that is not a permanent magnet
  3. A positively charged glass rod
  4. A negatively charged rubber rod

Answer: 2
8) Pollination by birds is called_____.

  1. autogamy
  2. ornithophily
  3. entomophily
  4. anemophily

Answer: 2
9) The fastest-running terrestrial animal is______.

  1. cheetah
  2. lion
  3. man
  4. jaguar

Answer: 1
10) As you go down into a well, your weight______.

  1. increases slightly
  2. decreases slightly
  3. remains exactly the same
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2

Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following is not part of geological disaster?

  1. Volcanoes
  2. Earthquakes
  3. Tsunami
  4. Sea Surge

Answer: 1
2. What is the rank of India in the world for natural disasters after China as per UNISDR?

  1. Third
  2. Second
  3. Seventh
  4. Eighth

Answer: 2
3. What is the reason for volcanic eruption?

  1. Movement and splitting of the major and minor plates of the Earth
  2. Origin of magma because of lowering of melting point inside the Earth caused by reduction in the pressure due to the splitting of plates and their movements in opposite directions.
  3. Only A
  4. Both A & B

Answer: 4
4. Which of the following types of volcanic eruptions associated with Lacroix?

  1. Hawaii Eruption
  2. Strombolian Eruption
  3. Vulcanian
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4
5. The volcanic eruption in Iceland falls under which volcanic belt in the World?

  1. Belts of Convergent boundaries
  2. Divergent Plate Boundaries
  3. Hot Spots
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2
6. A geophysicist who studies earthquakes and the mechanical characteristics of the Earth is called ___________.

  1. Seismologist
  2. Geologist
  3. Geographer
  4. Archaeologist

Answer: 1
7. Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to the strategy to combat earthquake disasters.
I. Establishing earthquake monitoring centres for regular monitoring and fast dissemination of information among the people in the vulnerable areas.
II. Modifying the house types and building designs in the vulnerable areas and discouraging contribution of high rise buildings, large industrial establishments and big urban centres in such areas.
Code:

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Both I & II
  4. Neither I nor II

Answer: 3
8. What causes Tsunami?

  1. Sudden vertical movement of the Earth
  2. Convergence of destructive plates in the ocean floor
  3. Explosive volcanic eruptions in the seas/oceans.
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4
9. Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to the characteristics of tsunami waves.
I. Tsunamis are high energy sea waves caused mainly by the deep focus earthquakes of high magnitude.
II. Preparing a vulnerability map of the country and dissemination of vulnerability risk information among the people.
Code:

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Both I & II
  4. Neither I nor II

Answer: 3
10. Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to the remedial steps to reduce the risk of life and properties by landslides.
I. Mapping of landslide prone areas a7 construction of houses, felling of trees and grazing in landslide prone areas should be prohibited or restricted.
II. Afforestation in the vulnerable areas is an effective way of durable landslides control.
Code:

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Both I & II
  4. Neither I nor II

Answer: 3

Sample Questions:

1. Approx __ % of Indian population is still Agriculturist.

  1. 46%
  2. 50%
  3. 58%
  4. 64%

Answer: 3
2. Contribution of agriculture to Gross National Product is approximately ?

  1. 14%
  2. 15%
  3. 16.5%
  4. 17.5%

Answer: 4
3. How much population is living below poverty line in India ?

  1. Approx 24%
  2. Approx 25%
  3. Approx 26%
  4. Approx 27%

Answer: 3
4. The best indicator of economic development of any country is ?

  1. Its agriculture
  2. Its transport
  3. Its gross production
  4. Its per capital income

Answer: 4
5. What is the mainstay of Indian economy ?

  1. Manufacturing
  2. Business
  3. Public sector
  4. Agriculture

Answer: 4
6. Which is the fifth largest city in India ?

  1. Mumbai
  2. Hyderabad
  3. Bangalore
  4. Kolkata

Answer: 2
7. The geographical area of telangana state is _____________ sq.km?

  1. 1,12,077
  2. 1,11,088
  3. 1,23,099
  4. 1,24,098

Answer: 1
8. How many districts were in Telangana state ?

  1. 9
  2. 10
  3. 11
  4. 13

Answer: 2
9. According to 2011 census, what is the population of Telangana state ?

  1. 3.50 crores
  2. 3.52 crores
  3. 3.54 crores
  4. 3.64 crores

Answer: 1
10. The literacy percentage of Telangana state is ?

  1. 67.41 %
  2. 68.50 %
  3. 66.50 %
  4. 69.72 %

Answer: 3

Sample Questions:

1. The Parliament of India cannot be regarded as a sovereign body because_______.

  1. it can legislate only on subjects entrusted to the Center by the Constitution
  2. it has to operate within the limits prescribed by the Constitution
  3. the Supreme Court can declare laws passed by parliament as unconstitutional if they contravene the provisions of the Constitution
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4
2. The name of the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi islands was changed to Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in_________.

  1. 1970
  2. 1971
  3. 1972
  4. 1973

Answer: 4
3. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by_______.

  1. the people
  2. Lok Sabha
  3. elected members of the legislative assembly
  4. elected members of the legislative council

Answer: 3
4. The members of the panchayat are__________.

  1. nominated by the district officer
  2. the electorates of the respective territorial constituencies
  3. nominated by local self-government minister of the state
  4. nominated by the block development organization

Answer: 2
5. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the______.

  1. Parliament
  2. Supreme Court
  3. High courts
  4. Election Commission

Answer: 3
6. The present Lok Sabha is the_____.

  1. 13th Lok Sabha
  2. 14th Lok Sabha
  3. 15th Lok Sabha
  4. 16th Lok Sabha

Answer: 4
7. The Parliament of India can make use of the residuary powers______.

  1. at all times
  2. only during national emergency
  3. during national emergency as well as constitutional emergency as well in a state
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1
8. The members of Lok Sabha hold office for a term of_______.

  1. 4 years
  2. 5 years
  3. 6 years
  4. 3 years

Answer: 2
9. The Parliament exercises control over council of ministers, the real executive, in several ways. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a method of control over executive?

  1. Questions
  2. Supplementary questions
  3. Adjournment motions
  4. None of the above

Answer: 4
10. The number of writs that can be prayed for and issued by the Supreme Court and/or a High Court is_____.

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

Answer: 3

Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government ?

  1. China
  2. USA
  3. Cuba
  4. Belgium

Answer: 2
2. The most essential feature of the Parliamentary form of Government is the :

  1. sovereignty of the Parliament
  2. written constitution
  3. accountability of the executive to the legislature
  4. independent judiciary

Answer: 1
3. The Constitution of India is republican because it :

  1. provides for an elected Parliament
  2. provides for adult franchise
  3. contains a bill of rights
  4. has no hereditary elements

Answer: 4
4. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country ?

  1. Fundamental Rights
  2. Fundamental Duties
  3. Directive Principles of State Policy
  4. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Answer: 3
5. In Indian Polity which one is supreme ?

  1. The Supreme Court
  2. The Constitution
  3. The Parliament
  4. Religion

Answer: 2
6. India has been described by the Constitution as :

  1. a federation of states
  2. quasi-federal
  3. a union of states
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3
7. The Unitary System of Government possesses which of the following advantages ?

  1. Greater adaptability
  2. Strong State
  3. Greater participation by the people
  4. Lesser chances of authoritarianism

Answer: 2
8. What is Gandhi’s definition of ‘Ram Raj’ ?

  1. Sovereignty of the people based on pure moral authority
  2. The rule as it was during the time of Rama
  3. The greatest good of all
  4. The absolute power concentrated in the hands of a king

Answer: 1
9. At which of its session, did the Congress officially accept the ‘Socialistic Pattern of Society’ ?

  1. Bombay Session of 1953
  2. Avadi Session of 1955
  3. Calcutta Session of 1957
  4. Nagpur Session of 1959

Answer: 2
10. In Indian Polity, the executive is subordinate to the :

  1. Judiciary
  2. Legislature
  3. Election Commission
  4. Union Public Service Commission

Answer: 2

Sample Questions:

1. Which Muslim leader joined the Home Rule League founded by Annie Besant?

  1. Mohammed Iqbal
  2. Mohammed Ali Jinnah
  3. Syed Ahmad Khan
  4. Abul Kalam Azad

Answer: 2
2. With reference to the Swadeshi Movement during the Indian Freedom Struggle, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. The theme song of Swadeshi Movement in Bengal was “Amar Sonar Bangla”.
  2. Syed Haider Raza led the Swadeshi Movement in India.
  3. Ganpati and Shivaji festivals became a medium of the movement.
  4. The Surat split in 1907 weakened the Swadeshi Movement.

Answer: 3
3. Who stated that the Revolt of 1857 was “neither the first, nor national, nor war of independence”?

  1. V. D. Savarkar
  2. S. N. Sen
  3. R. C. Majumdar
  4. Benjamin Disraeli

Answer: 3
4. Who among the following was a leader of Wahabi Movement?

  1. Mohammed Ali
  2. Ajmal Khan
  3. Syed Ahmad
  4. M. A. Ansari

Answer: 3
5. What was the reason for opposing Simon Commission in India?

  1. Due to absence of any Indian Member in the Commission.
  2. It had an Anti Indian sentiment.
  3. Both (A) & (B)
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1
6. Who was the founder of Aligarh movement?

  1. Liaqat Ali Khan
  2. Dadabhai Naoroji
  3. Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan
  4. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Answer: 3
7. Which battle decided the full control of British in India?

  1. Panipat
  2. Chausa
  3. Buxar
  4. Haldighati

Answer: 3
8. Who has written the novel Anand Math?

  1. Sharat Chandra
  2. Bankim Chandra
  3. Guru Dutt
  4. RN Tagore

Answer: 2
9. Kunwar Singh led the 1857 revolt in which area of Bihar?

  1. Saran
  2. Vaishali
  3. Sasaram
  4. Jagdishpur

Answer: 4
10. Who was elected the President of Indian National Congress in the Surat Session 1907 famous for Surat Split?

  1. Dr. Rash Bihari Ghosh
  2. Lala Lajpat Rai
  3. Dadabhai Naoroji
  4. Pherozeshah Mehta

Answer: 1

Sample Questions:

1. Kasu Brahmananda Reddy national park situated in______>

  1. Hyderabad
  2. Secunderabad
  3. Medak
  4. Warangal

Answer: 1
2. Which of the following is largest greening space in Hyderabad city______.

  1. Mahavir harina vanastali national park
  2. KBR Park
  3. Indira Park
  4. Mrugavani National Park

Answer: 1
3. Mrugavani national park is situated in____.

  1. Jubilee hills
  2. Vanasthalipuram
  3. Chilkur
  4. Secunderabad

Answer: 4
4. Etunagaram wildlife sanctuary situated in the district of______.

  1. Karimnagar
  2. Warangal
  3. Khammam
  4. Rangareddy

Answer: 2
5. Manjira wild life sanctuary is located at____.

  1. Medak
  2. Sangareddy
  3. Mahaboobnagar
  4. Nalgonda

Answer: 1
6. Which of the following bus station earlier means forest of tamarind trees______.

  1. JBS
  2. MGBS
  3. DBS
  4. RBS

Answer: 2
style=”color: #800080″>7. Salar jung musuem is constructed by_______.

  1. Salarjung – I
  2. Salarjung –II
  3. Salarjung –III
  4. Salarjung – IV

Answer: 3
8. The historical jagaityal fort is situated in the district of____.

  1. Karimnagar
  2. Medak
  3. Warangal
  4. Khammam

Answer: 1
9. Which of the following district of telangana called gateway of south india .

  1. Adilabad
  2. Karimnagar
  3. Nizambad
  4. Medak

Answer: 1
10. Which of the following soil is called as self ploughed lands.

  1. Red soil
  2. Black cotton soil
  3. Yellow soil
  4. Blue soil

Answer: 2

Sample Questions:

1. Grama jyothi scheme inauguration on ______ at Gangadevipalli village in warangal disrtict by chief Minister K. Chandrashekhar Rao.

  1. 17th june 2015
  2. 17th july 2015
  3. 17th august 2015
  4. 17th september 2015

Answer: 1
2. Government scheme, as a part of its welfare measures and social safer net strategy introduced November 8th 2014 the ____ worth a view to ensure secured life will dignity for all the poor.

  1. Vrudulu pension
  2. Aasara pension
  3. Beedi Karmika pension
  4. Vikalangulu pension

Answer: 2
3. The Government of Telangana has launched a flagship programme of Land purchase scheme for the benefit of the poorest of the poor ____ families.

  1. ST women families
  2. SC women families
  3. BC women families
  4. Minority women families.

Answer: 2
4. The poorest of the poor SC women beneficiaries who are absolutely landless agricultural families are to be provide up to ____ of land in the first place.

  1. 0.5 acres
  2. 1 acres
  3. 2 acres
  4. 3 acres

Answer: 4
5. The district collectors are given powers to purchase agricultural lands for the above programme at a cost ranging from _____________ per acre in the districts of Telangana state.

  1. 3 lakhs to 5 lakhs
  2. 2 lakhs to 5 lakhs
  3. 2 lakhs to 7 lakhs
  4. 3 lakhs to 7 lakhs

Answer: 3
6. Government decided to sanction a one-time financial assistance of _____ at the time of marriage to each SC/ST girl, who is a resident of Telangana state.

  1. Rs. 45,000/-
  2. Rs. 55,000/-
  3. Rs. 52,000/-
  4. Rs. 51,000/-

Answer: 4
7. Kalyana Lakshmi pathakam has been introduced with effect from ______ for unmarried girls.

  1. 3rd october 2014
  2. 2nd october 2014
  3. 1st october 2014
  4. 4th o ctober 2014

Answer: 2
8. The Government of Telangana introduced the “Shaadi Mubaarak Scheme” with effect from _____ to all minority community unmarrieed girls.

  1. 2nd october 2014
  2. 2nd septmber 2014
  3. 2nd august 2014
  4. 2nd november 2014

Answer: 1
9. Telangana Drinking water supply project is a flagship programme of the state of Telangana will provide drinking water in 9 districts excluding—?

  1. Secunderabad
  2. Kazipet
  3. Hyderabad
  4. Hanamkonda

Answer: 3
10. How many lakh Rupees sanctioned to meritorious students to help SC students, for higher education in foreign universities under Ambedkar overseas Vidya Nidhi Scheme?

  1. 15 lakhs
  2. 20 lakhs
  3. 10 lakhs
  4. 5 lakhs

Answer: 3

Sample Questions:

1. When was Ravinder started fasting unto death?

  1. 1969 January 19
  2. 1966 March 11
  3. 1969 January 9
  4. 1984 March 15

Answer: 3
2. Telangana praja samithi was established under the leadership of_______.

  1. Madan Mohan
  2. Mohan Reddy
  3. Komaram Bheem
  4. Suddala Hanumanthu

Answer: 1
3. Telangana liberation students oraganisation was established in_______.

  1. 1994
  2. 1993
  3. 1991
  4. 1992

Answer: 3
4. Which of the following commission advocated telangana as a separate state______?

  1. JVP Committee
  2. Fazl Ali commission
  3. Dhar Commision
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2
5. When was the first Lathi charge in Hyderabad?

  1. 1956 January 16
  2. 1986 April 12
  3. 1969 January 18
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3
6. Which of the following GO related to Mulki rules?

  1. GO 166
  2. GO 110
  3. GO 35
  4. GO 36

Answer: 4
7. When observed Flag day in Telangana?

  1. 1969, June 12
  2. 1959, July 12
  3. 1979, march 15
  4. 1984, September 20

Answer: 1
8. Telangana students font kakatiya unit was established in_______?

  1. 1993
  2. 1994
  3. 1992
  4. 1995

Answer: 3
9. Telangana liberation day observed on ________?

  1. march 12
  2. May 12
  3. September 12
  4. July 12

Answer: 2
10. Employees and teachers action committee was established on ________?

  1. 1969, March 11
  2. 1959, July 12
  3. 1979, march 15
  4. 1984, September 20

Answer: 1

Sample Questions:

1. Morals can be effective when_____.

  1. Individual follows it
  2. Society follows it
  3. The government follows it
  4. The parliament follows it

Answer: 2
2. Match the following:
A. Ethics ( ) i. Personal standards
B. Morals ( ) ii. Generally accepted set of moral principles
C. Values ( ) iii. Goodness/badness

  1. A-iii, B-ii, C-i
  2. A-i, B-ii, C-iii
  3. A-ii, B-i, C-iii
  4. A-ii, B-iii, C-i

Answer: 4
3. Ethics is a ________.

  1. Group psychology
  2. Moral philosophy
  3. Social Psychology
  4. part of para psychology

Answer: 2
4. Nishkamkarma means what?

  1. Boundless love
  2. Regardless love
  3. Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
  4. None of these

Answer: 3
5. Panchsila means what?

  1. Five precepts
  2. Six precepts
  3. Seven precepts
  4. Eight precepts

Answer: 1
6. Five precepts is found in what?

  1. Jainism
  2. Buddhism
  3. Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
  4. None of these

Answer: 3
7. Artha is recognised as ___________.
a. material wealth
b. non-material wealth
c. second most important Purusarthas
d. fourth most important Purusarthas
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

  1. a and b
  2. a and c
  3. band c
  4. c and d

Answer: 2
8. Moksha means _______.
a. salvation b. non-salvation
c. liberation d. non-liberation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

  1. a and b.
  2. b and c
  3. c and d
  4. a and c

Answer: 4
9. Samyak Gyana means ___________.
a. right knowledge b. true knowledge
c. false knowledge d.’ right perception
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

  1. b and d
  2. b and c
  3. c and d
  4. a and b

Answer: 4
10. An ethic is defined as what?

  1. A set of moral principles
  2. Non-set of moral principles
  3. A set of inner principles
  4. A set of rational principles

Answer: 1

shape Tips

Candidates can crack the exam only with right approach and correct strategy, following are few strategies to crack the FRO General Studies Paper:

Tip 1

    • : Read news papers daily for current updates.

Tip 2

    • : Practice Time management, Speed and Accuracy.

Tip 3

    • : Read the different current affairs pdf capsules available in the e-media.

Tip 4

    • : Attempt different mock tests/practice quizzes. Online full-length tests will help overcome exam paranoia and will enable to perform more efficiently. Mock tests will also help to enhance the 3 parameters: Time management, Speed, and Accuracy.

Tip 5

    : Focus on Telangana related current affairs events for Forest Offices exams.

[/alertmessages]

FRO General Studies Practice: Click Here

FRO General Studies Mock Test : Click Here