# RRB ALP General Science Questions

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# RRB ALP General Science Questions

### Introduction

RRB ALP & Technician 2018 Recruitment has 2 stages of computer based test. RRB ALP General Science Questions article makes an attempt to present the different types of questions that can be expected for the General Science section of CBT Stage 1. Below mentioned are the details.

### CBT Stage 1

CBT Stage 1 consisting of Objective Tests will be conducted online. This test would be of 60 minutes duration consisting of 75 questions, 4 sections as follows.

S.No Sections No. of Questions Time allocated
1 Mathematics 75 60 minutes
2 General Intelligence and Reasoning
3 General Science
4 General awareness on current affairs

Below mentioned the Complete Syllubus of CBT Stage 1.

Mathematics General Intelligence and Reasoning General Science General awareness on current affairs
1.Number system

2.BODMAS

3.Decimals & Fractions

5.LCM, HCF

6.Ratio & Proportion

7.Percentages

8.Mensuration

9.Time & Work

10.Time and Distance

11.Simple & Compound Interest

12.Profit & Loss

13.Algebra

14.Geometry

15.Trigonometry

16.Elementary Statistics

17.Square Roots

18.Age Calculations

19.Calendar & Clock

20.Pipes & Cistern
1.Analogies

2.Alphabetical & Number Series

3.Coding & Decoding

4.Mathematical operations

5.Relationships

6.Syllogism

7.Jumbling

8.Venn Diagram

9.Data Interpretation & Sufficiency

10.Conclusions & Decision Making

11.Similarities & Differences

12.Analytical reasoning

13.Classification

14.Directions

15.Statement â€“ Argument

16.Statement â€“ Assumptions
1.Physics

2.Chemistry

3.Life Sciences
1.Science & Technology

2.Sports

3.Culture

4.Personalities

5.Economics

6.Politics and
other subjects
of importance

### GS Samples

The General Science section in CBT Stage 1 for RRB ALP & Technician Recruitment has 3 subjects: Physics, Chemistry and Life Sciences. Candidates can refer to high school science books for the syllubus.

Below Provided are some of the Sample Questions.

1. Which instrument is used to measure altitudes in aircraftâ€™s?

a) Audiometer
b) Ammeter
c) Altimeter
d) Anemometer

Explanation:
Ammeter – Measures strength of electric current.
Audiometer – Measures intensity of sound.
Anemometer – Measures force and velocity of wind and directions.

2. Which instrument is used to measure depth of ocean?

a) Galvanometer
b) Fluxmeter
c) Endoscope
d) Fathometer

Explanation:
Galvanometer – measures electric current,
Fluxmeter – measures magnetic flux,
Endoscope – used to examine internal parts of the body.

3. Alfred Nobel invented

a) X ray
b) Diesel Engine
c) Dynamite
d) Dynamo

Explanation:
Alfred Nobel if Sweden invented Dynamite in 1867,
X ray was invented by Wilhelm Roentgen of Germany in 1895,
Diesel Engine was invented by Rudolf Diesel of Germany 1892,
Dynamo was invented by Michael Faraday of England in 1831.

4. David Hughes invented

a) Machine Gun
b) Microphone
c) Microscope
d) Motorcycle

Explanation:
David Hughes of USA invented Microphone in 1878,
Machine Gun was invented by Richard Gatling of USA in 1861,
Microscope was invented by Z. Jansen of Netherlands in 1590,
Motorcycle was invented by Edward Butler of England in 1884.

5. Radiocarbon is produced in the atmosphere as a result of

a) collision between fast neutrons and nitrogen nuclei present in the atmosphere
b) action of ultraviolet light from the sun on atmospheric oxygen
c) action of solar radiations particularly cosmic rays on carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere
d) lightning discharge in atmosphere

Explanation:
Collision between fast neutrons and nitrogen nuclei present in the atmosphere.

6. The absorption of ink by blotting paper involves

a) capillary action phenomenon
b) viscosity of ink
c) siphon action
d) diffusion of ink through the blotting

Explanation:
The ability of a liquid to flow in narrow spaces without the assistance of, or even in opposition to, external forces like gravity.

7. Siphon will fail to work if

a) both its limbs are of unequal length
b) the temperature of the liquids in the two vessels are the same
c) the level of the liquid in the two vessels are at the same height
d) the densities of the liquid in the two vessels are equal

Explanation:
The levels of the liquid in the two vessels are at the same height

8. Radian is used to measure

a) Temperature
b) Intensity of Flame
c) Angle
d) Solid Angle

Explanation:
Kelvin is used to measure Temperature,
Candela is used to measure Intensity of flame,
Steredian is used to measure Solid Angle.

9. What is unit of Work and Energy?

a) Joule
b) kilogram
c) amphere
d) meter

Explanation:
The unit of Work and Energy is Joule.

10. What is unit of Electrical Capacity?

a) henry
c) volt
d) ohm

Explanation:
henry is unit of Magnetic Induction,
volt is unit of Potential Difference,
ohm is unit of Electric Resistance.

11. What is newton third law of motion?

a) Every body maintains its initial state rest or motion unless no external force is applied.
b) The rate of change in momentum of a body is directly proportional to the applied force on the body and takes place in the direction of force.
c) To every action there is equal and opposite reaction.
d) None of above.

Explanation:
Newton First Law of Motion: Every body maintains its initial state rest or motion unless no external force is applied.
Newton Second Law of Motion: The rate of change in momentum of a body is directly proportional to the applied force on the body and takes place in the direction of force.

12. If no external force acts on a system of bodies, the total linear momentum of the system of bodies remains constant. Which law states this?

a) Newton first law
b) Newton second law
c) Newton third law
d) Principle of conservation of linear momentum

Explanation:
Principle of conservation of linear momentum states If no external force acts on a system of bodies, the total linear momentum of the system of bodies remains constant.

13. Energy posses by a body in motion is called

a) Kinetic Energy
b) Potential Energy
c) Both of Above
d) None of Above

Explanation:
Energy posses by a body in motion is called Kinetic Energy.

14. If lift is going up with acceleration, the apparent weight of a body is

a) may be more or less than true weight
b) equal to the true weight
c) less than the true weight
d) more than the true weight

Explanation:
If lift is going up with acceleration, the apparent weight of a body is more than the true weight.

15. What is escape velocity?

a) Escape velocity is the maximum velocity with which a body should be projected from the surface of earth so it do not go beyond gravitational field of earth.
b) Escape velocity is the minimum velocity with which a body should be projected from the surface of earth so it do not go beyond gravitational field of earth.
c) Escape velocity is the minimum velocity with which a body should be projected from the surface of earth so as it goes out of gravitational field of earth and never return to earth.
d) Escape velocity is the maximum velocity with which a body should be projected from the surface of earth so as it goes out of gravitational field of earth and never return to earth.

Explanation:
Escape velocity is the minimum velocity with which a body should be projected from the surface of earth so as it goes out of gravitational field of earth and never return to earth.

16. Sudden fall in barometer is indication of

a) Storm
b) Rain
c) Tide
d) Clear weather

Explanation:
Sudden fall in barometer is indication of Storm.

17. The force which opposes the relative motion between different layers of liquid or gases is called

a) Critical Velocity
b) Streamline Flow
c) Terminal Velocity
d) Viscous Force

Explanation:
Critical Velocity – The maximum velocity upto which fluid motion is streamline is called Critical Velocity.
Streamline Flow – If velocity of all fluid particles is same all the time then it can be said in streamline flow.
Terminal Velocity – When a body falls in viscous medium, its velocity first increases and finally becomes constant. The constant velocity is called terminal velocity.

18. What is the maximum value of deforming force upto which a material shows elastic property and above which the material loses it?

a) Elasticity
b) Strain
c) Elastic Limit
d) Stress

Explanation:
The Maximum Extent to which a solid may be stretched without permanent alteration of size or shape.

19. What is Hooke’s Law?

a) Stress is inversely proportional to strain.
b) Stress is directly proportional to strain.
c) Stress and strain are dependent on each other.
d) Stress and strain are independent of each other.

Explanation:
Hooke’s law is a principle of physics that states that the force (F) needed to extend or compress a spring by some distance X scales linearly with respect to that distance.

20. Lognitudinal waves and Transverse waves are types of?

a) Mechanical waves
b) Non-Mechanical waves
c) Both of above
d) None of Above

Explanation:
Mechanical Waves are waves which propagate through a material medium (solid, liquid, or gas) at a wave speed which depends on the elastic and inertial properties of that medium. There are two basic types of wave motion for mechanical waves: longitudinal waves and transverse waves.

21. What is the relation between wavelength, frequency and velocity?

a) velocity of wave = frequency * wavelength
b) velocity of wave = frequency/wavelength
c) velocity of wave = wavelength/frequency
d) None of above

Explanation:
That number, also known as the frequency, will be larger for a short-wavelength wave than for a long-wavelength wave. The equation that relates wavelength and frequency for electromagnetic waves is: c = Î½*Î» where Î» is the wavelength, Î½ is the frequency and c is the Velocity of wave.

22. What are audible sound waves?

a) Having frequency less than 20 Hz
b) Having frequency between 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
c) Having frequency more than 20000 Hz
d) None of above

Explanation:
Human ear can easily detect frequencies between 20 Hz and 20 KHz. Hence sound waves with frequency ranging from 20 Hz to 20 KHz are known are audible sound. The human ear is sensitive to every minute pressure difference in the air if they are in the audible frequency range.

23.What is the range of mercury thermometer?

a) 0 degree Celsius to 350 degree Celsius
b) -10 degree Celsius to 350 degree Celsius
c) -20 degree Celsius to 350 degree Celsius
d) -30 degree Celsius to 350 degree Celsius

Explanation:
Mercury thermometers cover a wide temperature range from âˆ’30 to 350 Â°C the instrument’s upper temperature range may be extended though the introduction of an inert gas such as nitrogen.

24. Which law states, “The rate of loss of heat by a body is directly proportional to the difference in temperature between the body and the surroundings.”

a) Doppler’s Effect
b) Newton’s law of cooling
c) Kirchhoff’s Law
d) Stefan’s Law

Explanation:
Doppler’s Effect – The Doppler effect can be described as the effect produced by a moving source of waves in which there is an apparent upward shift in frequency for observers towards whom the source is approaching and an apparent downward shift in frequency for observers from whom the source is receding.
Kirchhoff’s Law – Kirchhoff’s Law signifies that good absorbers are good emitters.
Stefan’s Law – The radiant energy emitted by a black body per unit area per unit time is directly proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature.

25. The nuclear reaction in which a heavy nucleus splits into two nuclei of nearly equal mass is called

a) Nuclear fusion
b) Nuclear fission
c) Nuclear reaction
d) Fast breeding

Explanation:
Nuclear fission is a process used to create energy. It is when an atom splits apart into smaller atoms. The process gives off a lot of energy, and is used in nuclear weapons and nuclear reactors. Nuclear fission was discovered in December 1938 by the German nuclear chemist Otto Hahn and his assistant Fritz Strassmann in Berlin.

26. Which unit we use to express nuclear sizes?

a) Tesla
b) Newton
c) Fermi
d) None of above

Explanation:
A unit of length used to measure nuclear sizes, is Fermi.

27.The mass of an electron in motion depends upon:

a) direction of motion
b) B its velocity
c) C its velocity of e-
d) D it’s shell number

Explanation:
The electron has a mass that is approximately 1/1836 that of the proton.[10] Quantum mechanical properties of the electron include an intrinsic angular momentum (spin) of a half-integer value, expressed in units of the reduced Planck constant, Ä§. As it is a fermion, no two electrons can occupy the same quantum state, in accordance with the Pauli Exclusion Principle.

28. Rain drops acquire spherical shape due to

a) viscosity
b) surface tension
c) friction
d) elasticity

Explanation:
The Surface tension pulls the surface of the drop equally at all points thus produces the spherical shape having the minimum surface area.

29. Light year is a unit of

a) time
b) distance
c) light
d) intensity of light

Explanation:
Light year is a unit of distance

30. Light from the Sun reaches us in nearly

a) 2 minutes
b) 4 minutes
c) 8 minutes
d) 16 minutes

Explanation:
The sun’s light takes about 8 minutes to reach the Earth after it has been emitted from the sun’s surface. The time it takes for light to reach planets in our Solar System (not the Milky Way, which is our galaxy) varies from about 3 minutes for Mercury, to about 5.3 hours for Pluto

31. Stars appears to move from east to west because

a) all stars move from east to west
b) the earth rotates from west to east
c) the earth rotates from east to west
d) the background of the stars moves from west to east

Explanation:
Earth’s spin (or rotation) on its axis. Earth rotates or spins toward the east, and that’s why the Sun, Moon, planets, and stars all rise in the east and make their way westward across the sky.

32. Planets do not twinkle because

a) they emit light of a constant intensity
b) their distance from the earth does not change with time
c) they are very far away from the earth resulting in decrease in intensity of light
d) they are nearer to earth and hence we receive a greater amount of light and, therefore minor variations in the intensity are not

noticeable
Explanation:
Planets are just like the Sun, do not twinkle. Planets are also closer to the Earth than those distant stars, so planets appear larger in comparison. Due to the planets’ closeness to Earth, the light coming from these celestial bodies does not bend much due to Earth’s atmosphere

33. Metals are good conductors of electricity because

a) they contain free electrons
b) the atoms are lightly packed
c) they have high melting point
d) All of the above

Explanation:
Copper is used for electrical wiring because it is a good conductor of electricity. Metal particles are held together by strong metallic bonds, which is why they have high melting and boiling points. The free electrons in metals can move through the metal, allowing metals to conduct electricity.

34. If two bodies of different masses, initially at rest, are acted upon by the same force for the same time, then the both bodies acquire the same

a) velocity
b) momentum
c) acceleration
d) kinetic energy

Explanation:
If two bodies of different masses, initially at rest, are acted upon by the same force for the same time, then the both bodies acquire the same momentum

35. Rectifiers are used to convert

a) Direct current to Alternating current
b) Alternating current to Direct current
c) high voltage to low voltage
d) low voltage to high voltage

Explanation:
Converting DC power from one voltage to another is much more complicated. One method of DC-to-DC conversion first converts power to AC (using a device called an inverter), then uses a transformer to change the voltage, and finally rectifies power back to DC.

36. Magnetism at the centre of a bar magnet is

a) minimum
b) maximum
c) zero
d) minimum or maximum

Explanation:
The field at the center is not zero, but weak. At the exact center of a magnet the field lines are parallel (straight lines if we draw it). Any where else they are slightly divergent.

37. Of the following properties of a wave, the one that is independent of the other is its

a) amplitude
b) velocity
c) wavelength
d) frequency

Explanation:
The maximum extent of a vibration or oscillation, measured from the position of equilibrium.

38. Lux is the SI unit of

a) intensity of illumination
b) luminous efficiency
c) luminous flux
d) luminous intensity

Explanation:
The SI unit of intensity of illumination (illuminance) is the lux. An illuminance of 1.0 lux is produced by 1.0 lumen of light shining on an area of 1.0 m^2.

39. On a rainy day, small oil films on water show brilliant colours. This is due to

a) dispersion
b) interference
c) diffraction
d) polarization

Explanation:
The combination of two or more electromagnetic waveforms to form a resultant wave in which the displacement is either reinforced or cancelled.

40. If electrical conductivity increases with the increase of temperature oIf a substance, then it is a:

a) Conductor
b) Semiconductor
c) Insulator
d) Carborator

Explanation:
A solid substance that has conductivity between that of an insulator and that of most metals, either due to the addition of an impurity or because of temperature effects

41. With the increase of pressure, the boiling point of any substance

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains Same
d) Becomes zero

Explanation:
The temperature stays the same until all the liquid has vaporized. As the temperature of a liquid rises, the pressure of escaping vapor also rises, and at the boiling point the pressure of the escaping vapor is equal to that exerted on the liquid by the surrounding air, causing bubbles to form.

42. Elecronegativity is the measure of

a) Metallic character
b) Non-metallic character
c) Basic Character
d) None of these

Explanation:
Electronegativity cannot be directly measured and must be calculated from other atomic or molecular properties. Several methods of calculation have been proposed, and although there may be small differences in the numerical values of the electronegativity, all methods show the same periodic trends between elements.

43. The rotational effect of a force on a body about an axis of rotation is described in terms of the

a) Centre of gravity
b) Centripetal force
c) Centrifugal force
d) Moment of force

Explanation:
The rotational effect of a force on a body about an axis of rotation is described in terms of the Moment of force

44. If no external force acts on a system of bodies, the total linear momentum of the system of bodies remains constant. Which law states that?

a) Newton’s first law
b) Newton’s Second Law
c) Newton’s Third Law
d) Principle of conservation of linear momentum

Explanation:
Conservation of linear momentum. The principle that the linear momentum of a system has constant magnitude and direction if the system is subjected to no external force. Also called law of conservation of linear momentum

45. Which law is also called the law of inertia?

a) Newton’s first law
b) Newton’s Second Law
c) Newton’s Third Law
d) All of these

Explanation:
“An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.” … In fact, it is the natural tendency of objects to resist changes in their state of motion.

46. Energy possessed by a body in motion is called

a) Kinetic Energy
b) Potential Energy
c) Both A and B
d) None of these

Explanation:
Energy possessed by a body in motion is called Kinetic Energy

47. The electric motor converts

a) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
b) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
c) Electrical energy into light energy
d) None of these

Explanation:
A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy, while a motor does the opposite – it converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.

48. If a lift is going up with acceleration, the apparent weight of a body is

a) More or less the true weight
b) Equal to the true weight
c) Less than the true weight
d) More than the true weight

Explanation:
If a lift is going up with acceleration, the apparent weight of a body is More than the true weight.

49. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through

a) water
b) vaccum
c) air
d) glass

Explanation:
The speed of light will be minimum while passing through Glass.

50. Two electric bulbs marked 25W â€“ 220V and 100W â€“ 220V are connected in series to a 440Vsupply. Which of the bulbs will fuse?

a) 25 W
b) Both
c) 100 W
d) Neither

Explanation:
Resistances of both the bulbs are
R1=$$\frac{V^2}{P1}$$ = $$\frac{220^2}{25}$$
R2 = $$\frac{V^2}{P2}$$ = $$\frac{220^2}{100}$$
Hence R1 > R2
When connected in series, the voltages divide in them in the ratio of their resistances. The voltage of 440 V devides in such a way that voltage across 25 w bulb will be more than 220 V. Hence 25 w bulbs will fuse.

1. Who is regarded as father of modern chemistry?

a) Ruterford
b) Einstein
c) Lavoisier
d) C.V. Raman

Explanation:
Antoine Lavoisier is considered the father of modern chemistry. He was a French nobleman who recognized and named oxygen and isolated the major components of air.

2. Which acid is present in lemon

a) marlic acid
b) citric acid
c) lactic acid
d) tartaric acid

Explanation:
Citric acid is present in lemon.

3. Rare gases are

a) mono atomic
b) di atomic
c) tri atomic
d) None of above

Explanation:
Rare gases are mono atomic.

4. The term PVC used in the plastic industry stands for

a) polyvinyl chloride
b) polyvinyl carbobate
d) phosphavinyl chloride

Explanation:
PVC stands for polyvinyl chloride

5. What among following is used to produce artificial rain?

a) copper oxide
b) carbon monoxide
c) silver iodide
d) silver nitrate

Explanation:
Silver iodide is used to produce artificial rain.

6. Oil of vitriol is

a) nitric acid
b) sulphuric acid
c) hydrochloric acid
d) phosphoric acid

Explanation:
Sulfuric acid or H2SO4 was called “oil of vitriol” by medieval European alchemists because it was prepared by roasting “green vitriol” in an iron retort.

7. Which is used in preparation of dynamite?

a) glycerol
b) ethyl alcohol
c) methyl alcohol
d) glycol

Explanation:
Glycerol is used in preparation of dynamite.

8. Bleaching action of chlorine is by

a) decomposition
b) hydrolysis
c) reduction
d) oxidation

Explanation:
Chlorine bleaches by the process of oxidation. It needs moisture for its bleaching action. Chlorine reacts with water to form hydrochloric and hypochlorous acids. Hypochlorous acid is unstable, and it easily dissociates to form nascent oxygen.

9. Which metal is heaviest

a) osmium
b) mercury
c) iron
d) nickle

Explanation:
Osmium is the heavist metal.

10. What is a mixture of potassium nitrate powdered charcoal and sulphur called?

a) paint
b) aluminium
c) brass
d) gun powder

Explanation:
Gun powder is the mixture of potassium nitrate powdered charcoal and sulphur.

11. Nail polish remover contains?

a) benzene
b) acetic acid
c) acetone
d) petroleum ether

Explanation:
Acetone can remove artificial nails made of acrylic or cured gel. A less harsh nail polish remover is ethyl acetate, which often also contains isopropyl alcohol. Ethyl acetate is usually the original solvent for nail polish itself.

12. What nucleus of atom contains?

a) protons
b) electrons
c) electrons and protons
d) protons and neutrons

Explanation:
Nucleus of atom contains Protons and neutrons.

13. The isotope atoms differ in?

a) number of neutrons
b) atomic number
c) number of electrons
d) atomic weight

Explanation:
Important to note that isotope atoms have same atomic number.

14. Human bone does not contain

a) calcium
b) carbon
c) oxygen
d) phosphorous

Explanation:
Human bone contains calcium, carbon, phosphorous.

15. Washing soda is?

a) sodium sulphite
b) sodium bicarbonate
c) sodiun carbonate
d) sodium biosulphite

Explanation:
Sodium carbonate (also known as washing soda, soda ash and soda crystals, and in the monohydrate form as crystal carbonate), Na2CO3, is the water-soluble sodium salt of carbonic acid.

16. Natural rubber is a polymer derived from?

a) ethylene
b) propylene
c) isoprene

Explanation:
Natural rubber is an addition polymer that is obtained as a milky white fluid known as latex from a tropical rubber tree.

17. Who proposed first atomic theory?

a) E.Rutherford
b) De Broglie
c) John Dalton
d) D.I.Mendeleef

Explanation:
Democritus first suggested the existence of the atom but it took almost two millennia before the atom was placed on a solid foothold as a fundamental chemical object by John Dalton (1766-1844).

18. pH of blood is?

a) 10.4
b) 9
c) 7.4
d) 4

Explanation:
A pH of 7 is neutral. The lower the pH, the more acidic the blood. A variety of factors affect blood pH including what is ingested, vomiting, diarrhea, lung function, endocrine function, kidney function, and urinary tract infection. The normal blood pH is tightly regulated between 7.35 and 7.45.

19. Which one of the following is the softest?

a) sodium
b) iron
c) aluminium
d) lithium

Explanation:
Sodium is the softest one.

20. Which have the maximum density?

a) Water
b) Benzene
c) Ice
d) Chloroform

Explanation:
Water has the maximum density.

21. Which is also called Stranger Gas?

a) Xenon
b) Neon
c) Argon
d) Nitrous oxide

Explanation:
Xenon is also called Stranger Gas.

22. The chemical used as a fixer in photography is?

a) sodium thiosulphate
b) sodium sulphate
c) borax
d) ammonium sulphate

Explanation:
Fixation is commonly achieved by treating the film or paper with a solution of thiosulfate salt. Popular salts are sodium thiosulfateâ€”commonly called hypoâ€”and ammonium thiosulfateâ€”commonly used in modern rapid fixer formulae.

23. Water drops are spherical because of?

a) viscosity
b) density
c) polarity
d) surface tension

Explanation:
Surface tension is responsible for the shape of liquid droplets. Although easily deformed, droplets of water tend to be pulled into a spherical shape by the cohesive forces of the surface layer. In the absence of other forces, including gravity, drops of virtually all liquids would be approximately spherical.

24. The oxide of Nitrogen used in medicine as anaesthetic is?

a) Nitrogen pentoxide
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Nitric oxide
d) Nitrogen dioxide

Explanation:
The oxide of Nitrogen used in medicine as anaesthetic is Nitrogen pentoxide.

25. Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen?

b) Lithium
c) Potassium
d) Sodium

Explanation:
A cadmium metal does not react with water to produce Hydrogen.

26. The most electronegative element among the following is

a) sodium
b) bromine
c) fluorine
d) oxygen

Explanation:
Fluorine is the most electronegative element.

27. Atomic number is equal to

a) Number of electrons
b) Number of nutron
c) Number of protons
d) Total number of protons and neutrons

Explanation:
Atomic number is equal to Number of protons.

28. The metal used to recover copper from a solution of copper sulphate is?

a) Na
b) Ag
c) Hg
d) Fe

Explanation:
The metal used to recover copper from a solution of copper sulphate is Fe.

29. Which gas is used in fire extinguishers?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen oxide
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Sulpher dioxide

Explanation:
Carbon dioxide is used in fire extinguishers.

30. The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called?

a) roasting
b) calcinations
c) smelting
d) froth floatation

Explanation:
The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called smelting.

31. Which of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog?

a) Nitrogen Oxides
b) Hydrocarbons
c) Methane
d) Ozone

Explanation:
Ozone is produced during the formation of photochemical smog.

32. Which of the following gas is used in cigarette lighters?

a) Butane
b) Propane
c) Methane
d) Ethane

Explanation:
Butane, a highly flammable, colorless, easily liquefied gas used in gas-type lighters and butane torches. Naphtha, a volatile flammable liquid hydrocarbon mixture used in wick-type lighters and burners.

33. Biogas majorly contains?

a) Ethane
b) Methane
c) Hydrogen
d) CO

Explanation:
Biogas majorly contains Methane.

34. The nuclear particles which are assumed to hold the nucleons together are?

a) positrons
b) neutrons
c) electrons
d) mesons

35.The metal that is used as a catalyst in the hydrogenation of oils is?

a) Pb
b) Ni
c) Cu
d) Pt

36. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust is?

a) Aluminium
b) Nitrogen
c) Silicon
d) Oxygen

Explanation:
The most abundant element in the earth’s crust is Oxygen.

37.The ore which is found in abundance in India is

a) monazite
b) bauxite
c) magnetite
d) fluorspar

Explanation:
The ore monazite is found in abundance in India.

38. The luster of a metal is due to:

a) high polishing
b) high density
c) chemical inertness
d) presence of free electrons

Explanation:
The luster of a metal is due to presence of free electrons.

39. The most malleable metal is

a) platinum
b) silver
c) gold
d) iron

Explanation:
The most malleable metal is gold.

40. Iodine can be separated from a mixture of Iodine and Potassium Chloride by?

a) Filtration
b) Sublimation
c) Distillation
d)Sedimentation

Explanation:
Iodine can be separated from a mixture of Iodine and Potassium Chloride by Sublimation.

41. The material which can be deformed permanently by heat and pressure is called a

a) thermoset
b) thermoplastic
c) chemical compound
d) polymer

42. Mass number of a nucleus is :

a) the sum of the number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus
b) always more than the atomic weight
c) always less than its atomic number
d) None of above

43. Conduction band electrons have more mobility than holes because they are

a) experience collision more frequently
b) experience collision less frequently
c) have negative charge
d) need less energy to move them

44. Due to rusting the weight of iron

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains the same
d) Uncertain

Explanation:
Corrosion of a block of metal – Iron to Iron Oxide (rust), Aluminum to Bauxite, Cooper to Cupric-oxide, or otherwise – does not change the weight of the metal in the system. … As long as the object is undisturbed its weight will increase due to the addition of oxygen molecules.

45. Which gas is used to manufacture vanaspati from vegetable oil is

a) carbon dioxide
b) nitrogen
c) oxygen
d) hydrogen

Explanation:
Hydrogen is used to manufacture vanaspati from vegetable oil.

46. The most electropositive elements among the following is :

a) Cs
b) Ca
c) Na
d) Br

47. Which one is an organic Acid?

a) Sulphuric
b) Citric
c) Nitric
d) Phosphoric

48. The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is?

a) ethane
b) ethylene
c) carbon dioxide
d) acetylene

Explanation:
Ethylene gas is used for artificial ripening of green fruit.

49. The high reactivity of fluorine is due to?

a) small size of fluorine atom
b) its high electro negativity
c) availability of d-orbitals
d) strong F – F bond

Explanation:
The high reactivity of fluorine is due to its high electro negativity.

50. Which element found in all organic compounds?

a) carbon
b) nitrogen
c) calcium
d) none of them

Explanation:
Carbon is found in all organic matter, but NOT in inorganic matter organic means chemical compounds with carbon in them. In a more general sense, organic refers to living things. And this is connected to the idea of organic chemistry being based on carbon compounds.

1. Which of the following is a large blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart?

a) Vein
b) Artery
c) Capillary
d) Nerve

Explanation:
The pulmonary artery carries blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs to pick up a fresh supply of oxygen.

2. Which of the following is not a member of the vitamin B complex?

a) Thiamine
b) Riboflavin
c) Folic acid
d) Ascorbic acid

Explanation:
Vitamin b complex consists of 8 vitamins namely B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B 9 and B12. Vitamin B1 is Thiamine, Vit B2 is Riboflavin, Vit B3 is Niacin, Vit B5 is pantothenic acid, Vit B6 is pyridoxine, biotin, folic acid and Vit B12 is cyanocobalamin.

3. Fungi are plants that lack:

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Chlorophyll
d) None of these

Explanation:
We know plants prepare their own food and so are known as autotrophs. With the help of photosynthesis they make food in which they produce glucose from carbon dioxide and sunlight. Also, oxygen is released by plants which is further used by humans and other animals.But Fungi lack chlorophyll and do not engage in photosynthesis.

4. What makes a reptile a reptile?

a) Cold blooded
b) Warm Blooded
c) Non-Hearing
d) Egg-laying

Explanation:
Reptiles skin is covered with hard, dry scales and most repltiles lay eggs. Those animals which are cold-blooded don’t automatically maintain a constant body temperature. They have to lay out in ths sun to keep their body heat up.

5. Which blood vessels have the smallest diameter?

a) Capillaries
b) Arterioles
c) Venules
d) Lymphatic

Explanation:
Blood is carried through the body by Blood Vessels. With the help of perfusion process capillaries supplies blood to the tissues. The diameter od capillary ranges from 5-10 micrometers. The diameter of arteriole is approx. 30 micrometer.

6. Which of the following is an air-borne disease?

a) Measles
b) Typhoid
c) Pink eye
d) None of the above

Explanation:
Airborne diseases are the infections spread by airborne transmissions including Chickenpox, Anthrax, Influenza, Measles, Smallpox, Cryptococcosis and Tuberculosis.

7. Which organ of the body produces the fluid known as bile?

a) Liver
b) Pancreas
d) Kidney

Explanation:
Liver produces a digestive fluid known as bile. Liver releases Bile into Gall Bladder, a small, pear-shaped organ located just below your liver in the upper right side of your abdomen.

8. Which of the following hormones is a steroid?

a) Estrogen
b) Glucagon
c) Insulin
d) Oxytocin

Explanation:
Steroid hormone is produced by three endocrine organs. The testes, produces testosterone; the ovaries, produces estrogen; and the adrenal cortex, produces steroid hormones such as cortisol and aldosterone. Steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol and are lipid-soluble molecules.

9.Which one of the following is not a function of the liver?

a) Regulation of blood sugar
b) Enzyme activation
c) Detoxiation
d) Reproduction

Explanation:
Liver is the body’s largest internal organ. It has many functions in the body like it helps in protein synthesis and blood clotting, manufacturing triglycerides and cholesterol, glycogen synthesis, and bile production. It aalso detoxifies chemicals and metabolizes drugs.

10. Which part of human body skin has greatest number Sweat glands?

b) Forearm
c) Palm of the hand
d) Back

11. Who among the following had started vaccination?

a) Jonas E. Salk
b) Paul Muller
c) Edward Jenner
d) Robert Frost

12. Liver, milk, egg yolk, fish liver oil is the source of:

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B2
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin C

13. Digestion of proteins starts in the:

a) Mouth
b) Stomach
c) Duodenum
d) Intestine

14. Which of the following acid that is secreted in the stomach?

a) HCI
b) H2S04
c) H2C03
d) HNO3

15. Which of the following is not a primary food product?

a) Vegetables
b) Milk
c) Cereals
d) Fruits

16. Which of the vegetables have abundance of Vitamins A and C?

a) Brinjal
c) Potato
d) Tomato

17. Which of the following defence of the human body against bacteria?

a) Haemoglobin
b) Phagocytes
c) Red blood cells
d) Blood platelets

18. Which of the following nerves connected from the eyes to ears?

a) Cerebrum
b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla
d) Spinal cord

19. Which of the following blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood?

a) Aorta
b) Pulmonary artery
c) Hepatic artery
d) Pulmonary vein

20. Which of the following growth of human body affected by somatotrophic hormone?

a) Bones
b) Hair
c) Muscles
d) Connective tissue

21. The behavioural pattern of which one of the following organisms may upset when DOT is used as pesticide?

a) Earthworm
b) Snake
c) Fish
d) Frog

22. What is another name of Vitamin K?

a) Nicotinic acid
b) Riboflavin
c) Thiamine
d) 2 Methyl-1, 4-naphthoquinone

23. Which of the following hormone controlled the blood pressure?

a) Vasopressin
b) Oxytocin
c) Estrogens
d) Testosterone

24. Brain and the spinal cord are invested by membranes called:

a) Arachnoids
b) Pleural membrane
c) Meninges
d) None of these

25. Which one of the following organisms has a role in converting nitrates to free nitrogen?

a) Pseudomonas
b) Nitrosomonas
c) Nitrobacter
d) Rhizobium

26. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?

a) Leukaemia
b) Hepatitis
c) Colour Blindness
d) All of the above

27. Which one of the following systems of the body is primarily attacked by the HIV?

a) Cardiovascular
b) Immune
c) Respiratory
d) Reproductive

28. In the human body, the blood enters the aorta of the circulatory system from the:

a) Left atrium
b) Left ventricle
c) Right atrium
d) Right ventricle

29. Which one of the following plant nutrients is not supplemented in the soil for growing legumes?

a) Nitrogen
b) Potassium
c) Phosphorus
d) None of these

30. Which of the following are known as the suicide bags of cells?

a) Ribosomes
b) Golgi bodies
c) Lysosomes
d) Nucleoli

31. Chromosome complement in Turner’s syndrome is

a) 47; XXY
b) 45; XO
c) 46; XX
d) 47; XYY

32. Excess of amino acids is broken down to form urea in:

a) Kidney
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Rectum

33. Who among the following discovered the anti-rabies vaccine?

a) Edward Jenner
b) James Lind
c) Louis Pasteur
d) Robert Koch

34. Which of the following teeth of child (3-4 Years) is not a part of the milk teeth?

a) Incisors
b) Canines
c) Molars
d) Premolars

35. Who said this statement? “I flatter myself having discovered the method that nature employs to purify air. It is vegetation.”

a) Antonine Laurent Lavoisier
b) Joseph Priestley
c) Louis Pasteur
d) William Harvey

36. Why it is not advisable to sleep under a tree at night?

a) Release of less oxygen
b) Release of more oxygen
c) Release of carbon dioxide
d) Release of carbon monoxide

37. What is the averages rate of the heart beats (per minute) in an adult?

a) 60
b) 72
c) 84
d) 96

38. Which of the following is the volume of the urine produced in an adult human every 24 hours?

a) 1 litre
b) 1.5 litres
c) 3.0 litres
d) 5.0 litres

39. Which of the following pigment causes eye colour of person (brown eyes, blue eyes or black eyes)?

a) Cornea
b) Choroid
c) Iris
d) Vitreous body

40. Which of the following led to the expulsion of milk from the breast during suckling?

a) Prolactin
b) Oxytocin
c) Vasopressin
d) Estrogen and Progesterone

41. Which of the following blood group is considered as Universal Donor?

a) A
b) AB
c) B
d) O

42. What part of the Quinine plant is commonly used drug for Malaria?

a) Leaves
b) Fruits
c) Root
d) Stem bark

43. Which of the following disease occur when the replacement of breast feeding by less nutritive food, low in proteins and calories, infants below the age of one year?

a) Kwashiorkor
b) Marasmus
c) Rickets
d) Pellagra

44. In how many times human will lose their consciousness if blood will stop flowing to the brain?

a) 2 sec
b) 5 sec
c) 15 to 20 sec
d) 5 min

45. How many bones comprise the adult human skeleton?

a) 204 bones
b) 206 bones
c) 208 bones
d) 214 bones

46. Which of the following statement is related with the ‘Sulphur shower’?

a) Discharge of large quantities of Crocus (yellow kesar) pollen grains into the air.
b) Discharge of large quantities of pinus pollen grains into the air forming yellowish clouds.
c) Release of a large amount of sulphur particles into the air from factories processing sulphur.
d) Release of a large amount of sulphur particles into the air near sulphur mines.

47. Name the Glands associated with the Human Digestive System?

a) Salivary Glands and Pancreas
b) Salivary Glands and Liver
c) Liver and Pancreas
d) Salivary Glands, Liver & Pancreas

48. Arrange the correct sequence of the steps involved in the process of Human Digestive System?

a) Digestion, Ingestion, Assimilation, Egestion and Absorption
b) Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption, Assimilation and Egestion
c) Egestion, Absorption, Digestion, Assimilation and Ingestion
d) Assimilation, Absorption, Ingestion, Digestion and Egestion

49. In which part of the body digestion of protein begins?

a) Pancreas
b) Stomach
c) Small Intestine
d) Large Intestine