 # BITSAT Physics 5 Steps - 3 Clicks

# BITSAT Physics

### Introduction

BITSAT 2020 – Entrance Examination, conducted in online Mode, has: a duration of 3 Hours and consists of 4 parts, namely – Physics, Chemistry, English Proficiency & Logical Reasoning and Mathematics/ Biology. The 4 sections are not separately timed and there is no break in between the sections. There is a Negative marking in BITSAT 2020 exam and 1 mark is deducted for each wrong answer. The below sections gives the detailed information about BITSAT Physics part.

### Pattern

Parts Subject No of Questions Duration
Part I Physics 40

3 hours
(Without break)
Part II Chemistry 40
Part III (a) English Proficiency and 15
(b) Logical Reasoing 10
Part IV Mathematics or Bilogy
(For B.Pharm candidates)
45
Total 150

The BITSAT Physics section, has 40 objective questions. Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions in the BITSAT Physics Section.

### Samples

1. What is the unit for measuring the amplitude of a sound?

A. Decibel
B. Coulomb
C. Hum
D. Cycles

Answer – Option A

2. One fathom is equal to

A. 6 feet
B. 6 meters
C. 60 feet
D. 100 cm

Answer – Option A

3. Light year is a measurement of

A. Speed of aeroplanes
B. Speed of light
C. Stellar distances
D. Speed of rockets

Answer – Option C

4. One kilometer is equal to how many miles?

A. 0.84
B. 0.5
C. 1.6
D. 0.62

Answer – Option D

5. ‘Bar’ is the unit of

A. Temperature
B. Heat
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Current

Answer – Option C

1. The angular velocity (in rad/s) of a body rotating at N r.p.m. is

A. π N/60
B. 2 π N/60
C. π N/120
D. π N/180

Answer – Option B

Explanation:
Angular velocity is defined as the rate of change of angular displacement with respect to time. It is usually expressed by a Greek letter ω (omega).

Mathematically, angular velocity,
ω =dθ/dt

If a body is rotating at the rate of N r.p.m. (revolutions per minute), then its angular velocity,
ω = 2πΝ / 60 rad/s

2. When a particle moves along a straight path, then the particle has

A. tangential acceleration only
B. centripetal acceleration only
C. both tangential and centripetal acceleration
D. none of the mentioned

Answer – Option A

Explanation:
The acceleration of a particle at any instant moving along a circular path in a direction tangential to that instant, is known as tangential component of acceleration or tangential acceleration.

3. When a particle moves with a uniform velocity along a circular path, then the particle has

A. tangential acceleration only
B. centripetal acceleration only
C. centripetal acceleration only
D. none of the mentioned

Answer – Option B

Explanation:
The acceleration of a particle at any instant moving along a circular path in a direction normal to the tangent at that instant and directed towards the centre of the circular path is known as normal component of the acceleration or normal acceleration. It is also called radial or centripetal acceleration.

4. When the motion of a body is confined to only one plane, the motion is said to be

A. plane motion
B. rectilinear motion
C. curvilinear Motion
D. none of the mentioned

Answer – Option A

Explanation:
When the motion of a body is confined to only one plane, the motion is said to be plane motion. The plane motion may be either rectilinear or curvilinear.

5. _______________ is the simplest type of motion and is along a straight line path.

A. plane motion
B. rectilinear motion
C. curvilinear Motion
D. curvilinear Motion

Answer – Option B

Explanation:
Rectilinear Motion is the simplest type of motion and is along a straight line path. Such a motion is also known as translatory motion.

1. What is the apparent weight of the person when the elevator is accelerating downwards?

A. equal to the actual weight
B. greater than the actual weight
C. less than the actual weight
D. 0

Answer – Option C

2. The forces acting at a point are called as:

A. Collinear forces
B. Coplanar forces
C. Concurrent forces
D. Unit forces

Answer – Option C

3. The force acting on a body for a short time are called as:

A. Decibel
B. Momentum
C. Hum
D. Cycles

Answer – Option C

4. Newton’s third law of motion applies to which of these forces?

A. Gravitational
B. Electric
C. Magnetic
D. All of the Above

Answer – Option D

5. The inablity of a body to change its state of rest or motion is known as:

A. Force
B. Momentum
C. Displacement
D. Inertia

Answer – Option D

1.

Determine the velocities of blocks A and B 2 s after they are released from rest. Neglect the mass of the pulleys and cables.

A. $${v}_{A}$$ = 21.5 ft/s 8, $${V}_{B}$$ = 21.5 ft/s 9
B. $${v}_{A}$$ = 64.4 ft/s 8,$${V}_{B}$$ = 64.4 ft/s 9
C. $${v}_{A}$$ = 64.4 ft/s 8,$${V}_{B}$$ = 32.2 ft/s 9
D. $${v}_{A}$$ = 21.5 ft/s 8,$${V}_{B}$$ = 10.73 ft/s 9

Answer – Option A

2.

A 0.6-kg brick is thrown into a 25-kg wagon which is initially at rest. If, upon entering, the brick has a velocity of 10 m/s as shown, determine the final velocity of the wagon.

A. $${v}_{wagon}$$ = 0.203 m/s
B. $${v}_{wagon}$$ = 0.208 m/s
C. $${v}_{wagon}$$ = 0.240 m/s
D. $${v}_{wagon}$$ = 0.234 m/s

Answer – Option A

3.

A 30-lb block is initially moving along a smooth horizontal surface with a speed of v1 = 6 ft/s to the left. If it is acted upon by a force F, which varies in the manner shown, determine the velocity of the block in 15 s. The argument for the cosine is in radians.

A. $${v}_{2}$$ = 91.4 ft/s 7
B. $${v}_{2}$$ = 79.4 ft/s 6
C. $${v}_{2}$$ = 91.4 ft/s 6
D. $${v}_{2}$$ = 79.4 ft/s 7

Answer – Option A

4.

A man wearing ice skates throws an 8-kg block with an initial velocity of 2 m/s, measured relative to himself, in the direction shown. If he is originally at rest and completes the throw in 1.5 s while keeping his legs rigid, determine the horizontal velocity of the man just after releasing the block. What is the average vertical reaction of both his skates on the ice during the throw? The man has a mass of 70 kg. Neglect friction and the motion of his arms.

A. $${v}_{man}$$ = 0.1776 m/s,$${N}_{avg}$$ = 765 N
B. $${v}_{man}$$ = 0.1979 m/s,$${N}_{avg}$$ = 771 N
C. $${v}_{man}$$ = 0.1776 m/s,$${N}_{avg}$$ = 771 N
D. $${v}_{man}$$ = 0.1979 m/s,$${N}_{avg}$$ = 765 N

Answer – Option C

5.

A. $${v}_{A2}$$ = 0.857 m/s,$${v}_{B2}$$ = 4.86 m/s, x = 0.434 m
B. $${v}_{A2}$$ = 0.600 m/s,$${v}_{B2}$$ = 3.40 m/s, x = 0.304 m
C. $${v}_{A2}$$ = 0,$${v}_{B2}$$ = 4.00 m/s, x = 0.358 m
D. $${v}_{A2}$$ = 0.327 m/s,$${v}_{B2}$$ = 3.67 m/s, x = 0.329 m

Answer – Option B

1.
A man having a weight of 180 lb sits in a chair of the Ferris wheel, which has a weight of 15,000 lb and a radius of gyration of ko = 37 ft. If a torque of M = 80(103) lb • ft is applied about O, determine the angular velocity of the wheel after it has rotated 180°. Neglect the weight of the chairs and note that the man remains in an upright position as the wheel rotates. The wheel starts from rest in the position shown.

A. ω = 0.888 rad/s
B. ω = 0.836 rad/s
C. ω = 0.874 rad/s
D. ω = 0.849 rad/s

Answer – Option B

2.

The uniform slender rod has a mass of 5 kg. Determine the magnitude of the reaction at the pin O when the cord at A is cut and θ = 90°

A. O = 42.0 N
B. O = 91.1 N
C. O = 122.6 N
D. O = 67.4 N

Answer – Option B

3.

The spool of cable, originally at rest, has a mass of 200 kg and a radius of gyration of kG = 325 mm. If the spool rests on two small rollers A and B and a constant horizontal force of P = 400 N is applied to the end of the cable, compute the angular velocity of the spool when 8 m of cable has been unraveled. Neglect friction and the mass of the rollers and unraveled cable.

A. ω = 10.00 rad/s
B. ω = 12.31 rad/s
C. ω = 17.41 rad/s
D. ω = 40.0 rad/s

Answer – Option C

4.

A chain that has a negligible mass is draped over a sprocket which has a mass of 2 kg and a radius of gyration of kO = 50 mm. If the 4-kg block A is released from rest in the position shown, s = 1 m, determine the angular velocity which the chain imparts th the sprocket when s = 2 m.

A. ω = 44.3 rad/s
B. ω = 39.6 rad/s
C. ω = 41.8 rad/s
D. ω = 59.1 rad/s

Answer – Option C

5.

The beam having a weight of 150 lb is supported by two cables. If the cable at end B is cut so that the beam is released from rest when θ = 30°, determine the speed at which end A strikes the wall. Neglect friction at B. Consider the beam to be a thin rod.

A. $${v}_{A}$$ = 5.87 ft/s
B. $${v}_{A}$$ = 7.43 ft/s
C. $${v}_{A}$$ = 10.18 ft/s
D. $${v}_{A}$$ = 6.95 ft/s

Answer – Option D

1. Angular momentum is

A. A scalar
B. A polar vector
C. A scalar as well as vector
D. An axial vector

Answer – Option D

2. A mass is revolving in a circle which is in the plane of the paper. The direction of angular acceleration is

A. Upward to the radius
B. Towards the radius
C. Tangential
D. At right angle to angular velocity

Answer – Option C

3. A dancer on ice spins faster when she folds here arms. This is due to

A. Increases in energy and increase in angular momentum
B. Decrease in friction at the skates
C. Constant angular momentum and increase in kinetic energy
D. Increase in energy an decreases in angular momentum

Answer – Option C

4. A particle of mass m is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to the +ve direction of the X-axis. The magnitude of its angular momentum w.r.t the origin

A. Is zero
B. Goes on increasing as x is increased
C. Goes on decreasing as x is increased
D. Remains constant for all positions of the particle

Answer – Option D

5. For increasing the angular velocity of a object by 10%, the kinetic energy has to be increased by

A. 40%
B. 20%
C. 10%
D. 21%

Answer – Option D

1. The period of artificial geostationary satellite is:

A. 8 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 46 hours

Answer – Option C

2. If the mass of the earth is not changed and its radius decreased by 1% then the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth would be:

A. Increase by 2 %
B. Decrease by 2 %
C. Increase by 9.8 %
D. Remains unchanged

Answer – Option A

3. When satellite orbits close to a planet, its time period depends upon:

A. The mass of satellite
B. Radius of the planet
C. Mass of the planet
D. Density of the planet

Answer – Option D

4. The value of universal gravitational constant G is:

A. 9.8 m/s2
B. 6.673×10-11 N m2 kg-2
C. 6.371 x 106 m
D. 1.738 x 10 6 m

Answer – Option B

5. When body falls towards earth its motion is due to:

A. Gravitational force
B. Motion due to gravity
C. Acceleration due to gravity
D. Because of zero weight

Answer – Option A

1. Which one is in a state of failure?

A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. Fluid

Answer – Option D

Explanation:
A fluid is a Tresca material with zero cohesion. In simple words, fluid is in a state of failure.

2. A small shear force is applied on an element and then removed. If the element regains it’s original position, what kind of an element can it be?

A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Fluid
D. Gaseous

Answer – Option A

Explanation:
Fluids (liquids and gases) cannot resist even a small shear force and gets permanently deformed. Hence, the element must be a solid element.

3. In which type of matter, one won’t find a free surface?

A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. Fluid

Answer – Option C

Explanation:
Solid molecules have a definite shape due to large inter-molecular forces. In liquids, molecules are free to move inside the whole mass but rarely escape from itself. Thus, liquids can form free surfaces under the effect of gravity. But, in case of gases, molecules tend to escape due to low forces of attraction. Thus, gases won’t form any free surface.

4. Which one of the following is the property of an ionic compound?

A. High melting and boiling points
B. Low melting and boiling points
C. Weak inter-atomic forces
D. Weak inter-atomic forces

Answer – Option A

Explanation:
Ionic compounds are very strong in nature. They require a lot of energy to break them. Therefore they have high melting and boiling points.

5. When do ionic compounds conduct electricity?

A. In gaseous state
B. In solid state
C. When dissolved in water
D. They never conduct

Answer – Option C

Explanation:
Ionic compounds can conduct electricity only if their ions are free to move. Hence they behave as conductors when they are dissolved in water.

1. The circular motion of a particle whose speed is constant is ________________.

A. Periodic but not simple harmonic
B. Simple harmonic but not periodic
C. Periodic and simple harmonic
D. Neither periodic not simple harmonic

Answer – Option A

Explanation:
Uniform circular motion is a periodic motion but not simple harmonic.

2. Which of the following is a simple harmonic motion?

A. Particle moving in a circle with uniform speed
B. Wave moving through a string fixed at both ends
C. Earth spinning about its axis
D. Ball bouncing between two vertical walls

Answer – Option B

Explanation:
Wave moving through a string fixed at both ends has simple harmonic nature.

3. A particle executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude 5cm has a maximum speed of 31.4 cm/s. The frequency of its oscillation is?

A. 4Hz
B. 3Hz
C. 2Hz
D. 1Hz

Answer – Option D

4. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation. Its amplitude is a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is___________

A. $$\frac{T}{8}$$
B. $$\frac{T}{13}$$
C. $$\frac{T}{2}$$
D. $$\frac{T}{4}$$

Answer – Option B

Explanation:
y = asinωt

$$\frac{a}{2}$$ = asin⁡($$\frac{2πt}{T}$$)

sin⁡($$\frac{2πt}{T}$$) = sin⁡($$\frac{π}{6}$$)

$$\frac{2πt}{T}$$ = $$\frac{π}{6}$$

T = $$\frac{T}{13}$$.

5. A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude A and time period T. The time require by it to travel from x = A to x = $$\frac{A}{2}$$ is ___________

A. $$\frac{T}{6}$$
B. $$\frac{T}{4}$$
C. $$\frac{T}{3}$$
D. $$\frac{T}{2}$$

Answer – Option A

Explanation:
As the oscillator starts from x = A, we can take

x = acosωt

$$\frac{a}{2}$$ = acos⁡($$\frac{2πt}{T}$$)

cos⁡($$\frac{2πt}{T}$$) = $$\frac{1}{2}$$ = cos⁡($$\frac{π}{6}$$)

$$\frac{2πt}{T}$$ = $$\frac{π}{6}$$

or t = $$\frac{T}{6}$$.

1. What type of waves are Sound Waves?

A. Latitudinal waves
B. Longitudinal waves
C. Latitudinal mechanical waves
D. Longitudinal waves

Answer – Option D

Explanation:
Sound Waves are longitudinal mechanical waves.

2. Which of the following is/ are not applications of Ultrasonic Waves?

A. For measuring the depth of Sea.
B. In sterilizing of a liquid.
C. In Ultrasonography
D. In sterilizing a needle.

Options are:

A. Both (A) and (B) Only (B)
B. Only (D)
C. Both (C) and (D)
D. Only (B)

Answer – Option B

Explanation:
Applications of Ultrasonic Waves are: sending signals, for measuring the depth of sea, for cleaning cloths, aeroplanes, machinery parts of clocks, for removing lamp-shoot from the chimney of factories, in sterilizing of liquid and in Ultrasonography.

3. What is the speed of sound in air?

A. 330 m/s
B. 332 m/s
C. 334 m/s
D. 336 m/s

Answer – Option B

Explanation:
The speed of Sound in Air (0C) is 332 m/s and in Air (20C) is 343 m/s.

4. What will be the effect of temperature on speed of sound?

A. The speed of sound decreases with the increases of temperature of the medium.
B. The speed of sound decreases with the decrease of temperature of the medium.
C. The speed of sound increases with the decrease of temperature of the medium.
D. The speed of sound increases with the increase of temperature of the medium.

Answer – Option D

Explanation:
The speed of sound increases with the increase of temperature of the medium. The speed of sound in air increases by 0.61 m/s when the temperature is increased by1C.

5. Name the characteristic of the sound which distinguishes a sharp sound from a grave or dull sound?

A. Intensity
B. Echo
C. Pitch
D. Resonance

Answer – Option C

Explanation:
Pitch is that characteristic of sound which distinguishes a sharp or shrill sound from a grave or dull sound. It depends upon frequency. Higher the frequency higher will be the pitch and shriller will be the sound and vice versa.

1. The energy required to increase the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit is known as a Btu. For what does this abbreviation stand?

A. Big Temperature Unit
B. Brenwald’s Thermal Unit
C. Britain Temperature Unification
D. British Thermal Unit

Answer – Option D

2. Who invented the first closed-tube thermometer, in 1713?

A. Anders Celsius
B. Galileo Galilei
C. Lord William Thomson Kelvin
D. Gabriel Fahrenheit

Answer – Option D

3. At what temperature does the Rankine scale begin?

A. 0 K
B. 459 K
C. 273 K
D. -273 K

Answer – Option A

4. You are cooking scrambled eggs in a cast iron frying pan, and you have noticed the handle has grown rather warm. What type of heat transfer is demonstrated within the pan in this example?

A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Transmission

Answer – Option B

5. What is the term for the amount of disorder in a system?

A. Enthalpy
B. Chaos
C. Entropy
D. Disequilibrium

Answer – Option C

1. Which of the following is not a good conductor of electricity?

A. Copper
B. Silver
C. Glass
D. Aluminum

Answer – Option C

2. As per Coulomb’s law, the force of attraction or repulsion between two point charges is directly proportional to the

A. sum of the magnitude of charges
B. product of the magnitude of charges
C. square of the distance between them
D. cube of the distance

Answer – Option B

3. The electric flux through a closed surface depends on the?

A. Magnitude of the charge enclosed by the surface.
B. Position of the charge enclosed by the surface
C. The shape of the surface
D. None of these

Answer – Option A

4. The force per unit charge is known as?

A. Electric current
B. Electric field intensity
C. Electric potential
D. Electric flux

Answer – Option B

5. The unit of electric intensity is?

A. V-m
B. N—C/m
C. V/m
D. N—C

Answer – Option C

1. What is the SI unit of electric charge?

A. Volt
B. Coulomb
C. Ampere
D. ohm

Answer – Option B

2. How much force does one coulomb of electric charge exerts on an equal charge placed at a distance of one metre from it?

A. 9 * 109 Newton
B. 10 * 109 Newton
C. 9 * 108 Newton
D. 8 * 109 Newton

Answer – Option A

3. An electron possesses a negative charge of:

A. 16 * 10-19 C
B. 1.60 * 10-19 C
C. 26 * 10-19 C
D. 1.8 * 10-19 C

Answer – Option B

4. How many electrons taken together make one coulomb?

A. 6.25 * 1018 electrons
B. 3.25 * 1018 electrons
C. 2.25 * 1018 electrons
D. 4.25 * 1018 electrons

Answer – Option A

5. Which of the following is a conductor of electricity?

A. Silver
B. Copper
C. Aluminium
D. All of the above

Answer – Option D

1. Who discovered the magnetic field of current?

A. William Gilbert
B. Hans Christian Oersted
C. Benjamin Franklin
D. Charles Augustin de Coulomb

Answer – Option B

2. Magnetic effect of current gives rise to which force?

A. Mechanical
B. Friction
C. Spring
D. Gravitational

Answer – Option A

3. Magnetic effect around a wire is due to:

A. The presence of metal
B. Current flowing in it
C. Circular loop
D. No current in it

Answer – Option B

4. Which of the following utilise magnetic effect of current?

A. Electric motor
B. Telephone
C. Radio
D. All of the above

Answer – Option D

5. What kind of magnetic field lines will be produced around a straight wire carrying current?

A. Bigger circles
B. Straight
C. Concentrated circles
D. Parallel straight

Answer – Option C

1. An E.M.F. can be induced by _________

A. Change in the magnetic field only
B. Change in the area of cross section only
C. Change in angle between magnetic field and area only
D. Change in the magnetic field, area or angle between them

Answer – Option D

Explanation:
emf=-dϕ/dt. We know ϕ flux is the dot product of magnetic field vector and area vector.
ϕ=BAcos(θ), hence if either of the three, that is, magnetic field, area or angle changes, the emf will change, flux changes due to which emf can be induced.

2. What happens to the current in a coil while accelerating a magnet inside it?

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. Reverses

Answer – Option A

Explanation:
A change in the magnetic field induces an emf. When there is an emf, there has to be current. Hence, when the magnet is moved inside a coil, the current in it increases.

3. What is the consequence of motor effect?

A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Electromagnetic induction
D. EMF

Answer – Option C

Explanation:
Motor effect is when a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field experiences a force, hence its consequence is electromagnetic induction.

4. The total number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is termed as?

A. Voltage
B. EMF
C. Magnetic flux
D. Magnetic flux density

Answer – Option C

Explanation:
Number of magnetic field lines passing through an area is magnetic flux.

5. If a conductor 0.2m long moves with a velocity of 0.3m/s in a magnetic field of 5T, calculate the emf induced if magnetic field, velocity and length of conductor are mutually perpendicular to each other.

A. 0.3V
B. 0.03V
C. 30V
D. 3V

Answer – Option A

Explanation:
The formula for induced emf is: emf = Blv if B,l,v are perpendicular to each other. Substituting the values of B, l and v from the question, we get emf=0.3V.

1. One reason why the sky appears blue is because:

A. Much more red light than blue light is absorbed by air atoms.
B. Red light is reflected by the atmosphere.
C. Blue light is scattered to a greater extent than red light.
D. Higher energy light waves have more penetration through the atmosphere.

Answer – Option C

2. If μ1 and phi2 are solutions to the wave equation, which of the following is not also a solution, if a and b are real constants.

A. aμ1 + b
B. a2bμ2
C. – μ1.
D. aμ1μ2

Answer – Option D

3. The direction of propagation of an electromagnetic wave is the same as:

A. E
B. E.B
C. E×B
D. B×E

Answer – Option C

4. Photons always propagate with speed c, but light appears to travel at a speed different from c in dense media. How can we account for this phenomenon?

A. Propagation in media depends on re-radiation by electron-oscillators, which takes a finite time to occur.
B. Electron oscillators in the medium introduce a phase change upon re-radiation.
C. A medium is a different reference frame to vacuum, so the difference in the observed speed of light is a consequence of relativity.
D. Light is slowed down because it does not take a straight line path through the dense medium

Answer – Option B

5. Which of the following is true: I) A reflected beam always has the same irradiance as the incident beam; II) a reflected beam lies in the same plane as the incident beam; III) a reflected beam always makes an angle θ = sin-1(nt/ni) with the normal to the interface.

A. I only.
B. I and II.
C. II and III.
D. II only.

Answer – Option D

1. Rest mass energy of an electron is

A. 1.02 MeV
B. 0.511KeV
C. 0.511 MeV
D. 2.02 MeV

Answer – Option C

2. An inertial frame of reference is frame

A. in which first law of motion is valid
B. in which law of inertia is valid
C. which is not moving with uniform velocity
D. both a and b

Answer – Option D

3. In photocell caesium, coated oxidized silver cathode emits electrons for

A. visible light
B. ultraviolet
C. infrared light
D. x-rays

Answer – Option C

4. According to theory of relative mass of an object is

A. depends on particles
B. speed of light
C. volume of object
D. area of object

Answer – Option B

5. Special theory of relativity treats problems involving

A. inertial frame of reference
B. non-inertial frame of reference
C. non-accelerated frame of reference
D. accelerated frame of reference

Answer – Option A

1. Two semiconductor material have exactly the same properties except that material A has a bandgap of 1.0 eV and material B has a bandgap energy of 1.2 eV. The ratio of intrinsic concentration of material A to that of material B is

A. 2016
B. 47.5
C. 58.23
D. 1048

Answer – Option B

2. A capacitor holds 0.03 C of charge when fully charged by a 6V battery. To hold 2C of charge, the voltage required would be

A. 150V
B. 100V
C. 300V
D. 400V

Answer – Option D

3. A particular intrinsic semiconductor has a resistivity of 50 (ohm-cm) at T = 300 K and 5 (ohm-cm) at T = 330 K. If change in mobility with temperature is neglected, the bandgap energy of the semiconductor is

A. 1.9 eV
B. 1.3 eV
C. 2.6 eV
D. 0.64 eV

Answer – Option B

4. In germanium semiconductor material at T 400 K the intrinsic concentration is (x 10^14 per cc)

A. 26.8
B. 18.4
C. 8.5
D. 3.6

Answer – Option C

5. The intrinsic carrier concentration in silicon is to be no greater than ni = 1 x 10^12 cc. The maximum temperature allowed for the silicon is ( Eg = 1.12 eV)

A. 300 K
B. 360 K
C. 382 K
D. 364 K

Answer – Option C