BITSAT - SPLessons

BITSAT Chemistry

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5 Steps - 3 Clicks

BITSAT Chemistry

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BITSAT 2020 – Entrance Examination, conducted in online Mode, has: a duration of 3 Hours and consists of 4 parts, namely – Physics, Chemistry, English Proficiency & Logical Reasoning and Mathematics/ Biology. The 4 sections are not separately timed and there is no break in between the sections. There is a Negative marking in BITSAT 2020 exam and 1 mark is deducted for each wrong answer. The below sections gives the detailed information about BITSAT Physics part.


shape Pattern

Parts Subject No of Questions Duration
Part I Physics 40



3 hours
(Without break)
Part II Chemistry 40
Part III (a) English Proficiency and 15
(b) Logical Reasoing 10
Part IV Mathematics or Bilogy
(For B.Pharm candidates)
45
Total 150


The BITSAT Chemistry section, has 40 objective questions. Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions in the BITSAT Chemistry Section.



shape Syllabus

BITSAT 2020 Exam Syllabus


shape Samples

1. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates that:

    A. Number of the molecules of gas increases
    B. Kinetic energy of molecules decreases
    C. Pressure of the gas increases
    D. Kinetic energy of molecules remains the same


Answer – Option D


2. In a flask of ‘V’ litres, 0.2 moles of O2, 0.4 moles of N2, 0.1 moles of NH3 and 0.3 moles of He gases are present at 27°C. If total pressure exerted by these non-reacting gases is 1 atm, the partial pressure exerted by N2 gas is

    A. 0.4 atm
    B. 0.3 atm
    C. 0.2 atm
    D. 0.1 atm


Answer – Option A


3. In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%, the pressure of the gas should be

    A. increased by 10%
    B. increased by 1%
    C. decreased by 10%
    D. decreased by 1%


Answer – Option C


4. In which one of the following, does the given amount of chlorine exert the least pressure in a vessel of capacity 1 dm3 at 273K?

    A. 0.071 g
    B. 0.0355 g
    C. 0.02 mole
    D. 6.023 × \({10}^{21}\) molecules


Answer – Option B


5. One mole of oxygen at 273 k and one mole of sulphur dioxide at 546 k are taken in two separate containers, then,

    A. kinetic energy of \({O}_{2}\) > kinetic energy of \({SO}_{2}\)
    B. kinetic energy of \({O}_{2}\) < kinetic energy of \({SO}_{2}\)
    C. kinetic energy of both are equal.
    D. None of these


Answer – Option B

1. A beryllium atom has 4 protons, 5 neutrons, and 4 electrons. What is the mass number of this atom?

    A. 4
    B. 5
    C. 8
    D. 9


Answer – Option D

Explanation:
The mass number is the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. For this question, you add the 4 protons and 5 neutrons to get an answer of 9.


2. The lowest principal quantum number for an electron is:

    A. 0
    B. 1
    C. 2
    D. 3


Answer – Option B

Explanation:
The principal quantum number is an indication of the size of an electron orbital. It has a positive integer value, but can never be 0. So, the lowest number is 1.


3. An electron dot symbol for an element shows that element’s symbol and an arrangement of dots that indicates the:

    A. atomic number
    B. atomic mass
    C. total number of electrons
    D. number of electrons in the outer energy level


Answer – Option D

Explanation:
A Lewis structure or electron dot structure shows the unbonded electron pairs. The unbonded electrons are the valence electrons or ones in the outer electron shell.


4. The most common oxidation number for silicon in a compound would be:

    A. +1
    B. +2
    C. +3
    D. +4


Answer – Option D

Explanation:
There is a set of rules used to determine oxidation numbers. The oxidation number of a free element is always zero, but since this question asks about silicon in a compound, you look at the number of electrons needed to fill its valence shell. You can figure this out from the electron configuration. The position on the periodic table usually gives the answer, too. Silicon is in the same group as carbon. Silicon usually displays the +4 oxidation state.


5. Which sublevel can by occupied by a maximum of 10 electrons?

    A. s
    B. p
    C. d
    D. f


Answer – Option C

Explanation:
There’s a handy chart you can draw to figure out electron configurations, so you don’t have to memorize them. There are 2 electrons in the s sublevel, 6 in the p sublevel, 10 in the d sublevel, and 14 in the f sublevel.

1. In allene \({C}_{3}\)\({H}_{4}\), the type(s) of hybridisation of the carbon atoms is (are)

    A. sp and \({sp}_{3}\)
    B. sp and \({sp}_{2}\)
    C. Only \({sp}_{2}\)
    D. \({sp}_{2}\) and \({sp}_{3}\)


Answer – Option B


2. The \({sp}_{3}\)\({d}_{2}\) hybridization of central atom of a molecule would lead to

    A. square planar geometry
    B. Tetrahedral geometry
    C. Trigonal bipyramidal geometry
    D. Octahedral geometry


Answer – Option D


3. Which one of the following is paramagnetic?

    A. \({N}_{2}\)
    B. NO
    C. CO
    D. \({O}_{3}\)


Answer – Option B


4. Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound

    A. \({MgCL}_{2}\)
    B. \({FeCL}_{2}\)
    C. \({SnCL}_{2}\)
    D. \({AlCL}_{3}\)


Answer – Option D


5. The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is

    A. Two sigma, two pi
    B. One sigma, two pi
    C. One sigma, one pi
    D. Two sigma, one pi


Answer – Option B

1. The condition for a reaction to occur spontaneously is

    A. ΔH must be negative
    B. ΔS must be negative
    C. (ΔH-TΔS) must be negative
    D. (ΔH+TΔS) must be negative


Answer – Option C

Explanation:
When ΔG<0 then the reaction occur spontaneously.

Also, ΔG= ΔH-TΔS

So, for spontaneous reaction ΔH-TΔS should be negative.


2. The species which by definition has zero standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K is

    A. \({Br}_{2}\)(g)
    B. \({Cl}_{2}\)(g)
    C. \({H}_{2}\)O(g)
    D. \({Ch}_{4}\)(g)


Answer – Option B

Explanation:
Elements in its standard state have zero enthalpy of formation. Since, \({Cl}_{2}\) is gas at room temperature, therefore ΔH° of \({Cl}_{2}\)(g) is zero.


3. Which of the following statements is false?

    A. Work is a state function
    B. Temperature is a state function
    C. Change in the state is completely defined when the initial and final states are specified
    D. Work appears at the boundary of the system


Answer – Option A

Explanation:
Work is not an example of state function.


4. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible when

    A. Surroundings and system change into each other
    B. There is no boundary between system and surroundings
    C. The surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system
    D. The system changes into the surroundings spontaneously


Answer – Option C

Explanation:
When the surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system, then the process is called reversible process.


5. The equation W=∫vdp holds good for

    A. work-producing machine like an engine or turbine
    B. work-absorbing machine like a pump or a compressor
    C. both of the mentioned
    D. none of the mentioned


Answer – Option C

Explanation:
The equation given here is used for steady flow process and also when the fluid undergoes reversible adiabatic expansion or compression.

1. The formation of ammonia from \({N}_{2}\)(g) and \({H}_{2}\)(g) is a reversible reaction

\({N}_{2}\)(g) + \({3H}_{2}\) ⇌ \({2NH}_{3}\)(g) + Heat


What is the effect of increase of temperature on this equilibrium reaction

    A. equilibrium is unaltered
    B. formation of ammonia is favoured
    C. equilibrium is shifted to the left
    D. reaction rate does not change


Answer – Option C

Explanation:
Increase in temperature, favours the endothermic reaction,

Given that formation of \({NH}_{3}\) is exothermic ie., the reverse reaction is endothermic.

∴ increase in temperature, shift the equilibrium to left option (c).


2. Solubility of carbon dioxide gas in cold water can be increased by

    A. increase in pressure
    B. decrease in pressure
    C. increase in volume
    D. none of these


Answer – Option A


3. Which one of the following is incorrect statement?

    A. for a system at equilibrium, Q is always less than the equilibrium constant
    B. equilibrium can be attained from either side of the reaction
    C. presence of catalyst affects both the forward reaction and reverse reaction to the same extent
    D. Equilibrium constant varied with temperature


Answer – Option A

Explanation:
For a system at equilibrium, Q = \({K}_{eq}\)


4. Which of the following is not a general characteristic of equilibrium involving physical process

    A. Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature
    B. The opposing processes occur at the same rate and there is a dynamic but stable condition
    C. All the physical processes stop at equilibrium
    D. All measurable properties of the system remains constant


Answer – Option C


5. Match the equilibria with the corresponding conditions,

    i. Liquid ⇌ Vapour
    ii. Solid ⇌ Liquid
    iii. Solid ⇌ Vapour
    iv. Solute (s) ⇌ Solute (Solution)



    1. melting point
    2. Saturated solution
    3. Boiling point
    4. Sublimation point
    5. Unsaturated solution


    A. i:1, ii:2, iii:3, iv:4
    B. i:3, ii:1, iii:4, iv:2
    C. i:2, ii:1, iii:3, iv:4
    D. i:3, ii:2, iii:4, iv:5


Answer – Option B

1. Process in which substance gains electrons is called

    A. oxidation
    B. hydrogenation
    C. sublimation
    D. reduction


Answer – Option D


2. On an industrial scale, sodium metal is prepared by electrolysis of fused

    A. NaOH
    B. NaCl
    C. NaO
    D. \({NH}_{3}\)


Answer – Option B


3. Corrosion can be prevented by

    A. Alloying
    B. Tinning
    C. Galvanizing
    D. all of above


Answer – Option D


4. Electrolyte used for tin plating is

    A. sulphide ore
    B. stannous sulphate
    C. hydrogen sulphate
    D. sodium chloride


Answer – Option B


5. An electrolytic cell uses electrical energy to drive

    A. chemical reaction
    B. physical reaction
    C. no reaction
    D. biochemical reaction


Answer – Option A

1. In a zero-order reaction for every 10° rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate of the reaction will become

    A. 64 times
    B. 128 times
    C. 256 times
    D. 512 times


Answer – Option D


2. The activation energy of a reaction at a given temperature is found to be 2.303 RT J \({Mol}^{-1}\). The ratio of rate constant to the Arrhenius factor is

    A. 0.1
    B. 0.01
    C. 0.001
    D. 0.02


Answer – Option A


3. In the hydrolysis of an organic chloride in presence of large excess of water, RCl + \({H}_{2}\)O → ROH + HCl

    A. Molecularity and order of reaction both are 2
    B. Molecularity is 2 but order of reaction is 1
    C. Molecularity is 1 but order of reaction is 2
    D. Moecularity is 1 and order of reaction is also 1


Answer – Option B


4. Radioactivity of a sample (z = 22) decreases 90% after 10 years. What will be the half-life of the sample?

    A. 5 years
    B. 2 years
    C. 3 years
    D. 10 years


Answer – Option C


5. Which of these changes with time for a first-order reaction? [Delhi PMT 2010]

    A. Rate of reaction
    B. Rate constant
    C. Half-life



    A. A only
    B. C only
    C. A and B only
    D. B and C only


Answer – Option A

1. What is the colloidal mixture of solid with solid called?

    A. Solid sol
    B. Liquid sol
    C. Sol
    D. Gel


Answer – Option A

Explanation:
Since in this colloidal mixture, a solid is mixed with another solid, the molecules are having a tight bond between them. Hence it is called solid sol.


2. What is the colloidal solution of liquid with solid called?

    A. Sol
    B. Gel
    C. Foam
    D. Form


Answer – Option A

Explanation:
In the colloidal mixture of solid and liquid which is called sol, the bond is not as strong as compared to solid sol. The bond is lightly less bonded. Hence the name sol.


3. What is a colloidal solution of liquid in liquid called?

    A. Foam
    B. Form
    C. Emulsification
    D. Solid sol


Answer – Option C

Explanation:
Since we know that the molecular bond between the liquid and liquid is not that much strong and hence will sometimes form stable solutions (may be homo or heterogeneous).


4. What is the colloidal solution of liquid and gas called?

    A. Aerosol
    B. Gel
    C. Sol
    D. Emulsion


Answer – Option A

Explanation:
We know that out of all other bonds, the weakest bond is between a gaseous molecule and a gaseous molecule. The next weakest bond after this is between a liquid and a gaseous molecule. Such a colloid is called an aerosol.


5. Which of the following colloidal combinations is not possible?

    A. Liquid in solid
    B. Solid in liquid
    C. Gas in gas
    D. Gas in solid


Answer – Option C

Explanation:
We know that gases are completely miscible in nature. Hence n number of gases together will be considered only as a single molecule. Hence such a colloidal combination is not possible.

1. Hydrogen has 3 isotopes. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

    A. Proton
    B. Deuterium
    C. Tritium
    D. Protium


Answer – Option A


2. Hydrogen is categorized under which block in the periodic table?

    A. s block
    B. d block
    C. p block
    D. f block


Answer – Option C


3. The correct sequence in decreasing order of the percentage of nitrogen in the given compounds is

    A. Urea > Ammonium chloride > Ammonium nitrate > Ammonium nitrite
    B. Urea > Ammonium nitrate > Ammonium nitrite > Ammonium chloride
    C. Urea > Ammonium nitrite > Ammonium nitrate > Ammonium chloride
    D. Urea > Ammonium nitrite > Ammonium chloride > Ammonium nitrate


Answer – Option C

Explanation:
Correct sequence is \[N{{H}_{2}}CON{{H}_{2}}>N{{H}_{4}}{{N}_{3}}>N{{H}_{3}}N{{O}_{3}}>N{{H}_{4}}Cl\].


4. As the alkaline earth metals (except Be) tend to lose their valence electrons readily they act as

    A. Weak oxidising agent
    B. Weak reducing agent
    C. Strong oxidising agent
    D. Strong reducing agent


Answer – Option D

Explanation:
Second group elements are show strong reducing properties but less Ist group element show less.


5. Today, balloons are filled with helium gas, instead of hydrogen gas, although helium is much heavier than hydrogen. Why is it so?

    A. Hydrogen gas is more expensive.
    B. Hydrogen gas is highly flammable.
    C. Hydrogen gas is toxic.
    D. Hydrogen gas is less available.


Answer – Option B

1. Which one of the following exists in the oxidation state other than +3?

    A. B
    B. Al
    C. Ce
    D. Ga


Answer – Option C


2. Which one of the following ions exhibits colour in aqueous solution

    A. \({Sc}^{3+}\)
    B. \({Ni}^{2+}\)
    C. \({ti}^{4+}\)
    D. \({Zn}^{2+}\)


Answer – Option B


3. Which one of the following molecules is expected to exhibit diamagnetic behaviour?

    A. \({C}_{2}\)
    B. \({N}_{2}\)
    C. \({O}_{2}\)
    D. \({S}_{2}\)


Answer – Option A,B


4. When \({Cl}_{2}\) gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of chlorine changes from

    A. Zero to – 1 and zero to +3
    B. Zero to + 1 and zero to –3
    C. Zero to + 1 and zero to –5
    D. Zero to – 1 and zero to +5


Answer – Option D


5. Which of the following contains P – O – P bond?

    A. Hypophosphorous acid
    B. Phosphorous acid
    C. Pyrophosphoric acid
    D. Orthophosphoric acid


Answer – Option C

1. Hydrocarbons are organic compounds with element

    A. Hydrogen
    B. Oxygen
    C. Carbon
    D. Both hydrogen and carbon


Answer – Option D

Explanation:
These organic compounds are made up of only carbon and hydrogen and hence the name hydrocarbons.


2. Find the odd one out:

    A. Aromatic
    B. Alkanes
    C. Alkynes
    D. Alkenes


Answer – Option A

Explanation:
aromatic is a separate branch of hydrocarbons. Whereas the alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes are subfamilies of the branch aliphatic hydrocarbons.


3. The simplest member of organic compounds is ?

    A. Methanol
    B. Methane
    C. Formaldehyde
    D. Formic acid


Answer – Option B

Explanation:
Methane is the simplest member of alkane family and indeed the simplest of organic compounds, as all other compounds are derived by altering this compound.


4. Ethane is obtained by electrolyzing

    A. Potassium formate
    B. Potassium succinate
    C. Potassium acetate
    D. Potassium fumarate


Answer – Option B

Explanation:
By electrolyzing potassium succinate (the process is generally called Kolbe’s electrolysis), ethane is obtained.


5. Name the process associated with acylation of benzene

    A. Friedel craft reaction
    B. Wurtz reaction
    C. Wurtz fitting reaction
    D. Debey Huckel reaction


Answer – Option A

Explanation:
The electrophilic substitution reaction that takes place between ethanoyl chloride and benzene is called as Friedel craft reaction

1. Compounds which have different arrangements of atoms in space while having same atoms bonded to each other are said to have

    A. position isomerism
    B. functional group isomerism
    C. chain isomerism
    D. stereoisomerism


Answer – Option D

Explanation:
Stereoisomer his contrasts with structural isomers, which share the same molecular formula, but the bond connections or their order differs. By definition, molecules that are stereoisomers of each other represent the same structural isomer.


2. Which of the following can make difference in optical isomers?

    A. heat
    B. temperature
    C. polarized light
    D. pressure


Answer – Option C

Explanation:
An optically active substance is one which can rotate the plane of polarisation of plane polarised light. if you shine a beam of polarised monochromatic light (light of only a single frequency – in other words a single colour) through a solution of an optically active substance, when the light emerges, its plane of polarisation is found to have rotated.


3. Which of the following Fischer projections is different from the other three?


    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4


Answer – Option D

Explanation:
When comparing Fischer projections, it is important to recognize that the horizontal bonds point out of the page, and vertical bonds point into the page. If a substituent is held in place, and the other three substituents are rotated, the new structure is the same as the original structure. Holding the phenyl substituent of 4 in place and rotating the other three clockwise gives 1, so these structures are the same.


4. What is the stereochemical relationship between the following two molecules?


    A. Geometrical isomers
    B. Enantiomers
    C. Diastereomers
    D. Identical


Answer – Option D

Explanation:
Both molecules have the same molecular formula (\({C}_{9}\)\({H}_{16}\)BrCl) and the same connectivity. Each molecule also has three stereocenters, marked above with an asterisk, and does not contain a plane of symmetry. Therefore, both molecules are chiral. Using one of the methods outlined in this tutorial, it can be determined that these molecules are superimposable. Therefore, the molecules are identical.


5. Which of the following statements can be deduced about the stereochemistry of this compound?


    A. This compound is optically active because it has stereogenic centers that create cis-trans isomers
    B. This compound is optically active because the compound contains a center, plane, or axis of chirality
    C. This compound is not optically active since there are no stereogenic centers
    D. This compound is not optically active because of its symmetry


Answer – Option A

Explanation:
In identifying stereogenic centers, any quaternary or tertiary carbons would be a good place to look. There are no quaternary carbons, and all the tertiary carbons are part of a benzene ring structure.

1. Organic compounds are broadly classified as

    A. Open chain compounds and acyclic compounds
    B. Open chain compounds and linear chain compounds
    C. Cyclic compounds and alicyclic compounds
    D. alicyclic compounds and acyclic compounds


Answer – Option D

Explanation:
Organic compounds are broadly classified into open chain and closed chain compounds.


2. Aliphatic compound is the other name for

    A. Acyclic compounds
    B. Alicyclic compounds
    C. Ring compounds
    D. Closed chain compounds


Answer – Option C

Explanation:
open chain compounds or acyclic compounds are otherwise called as aliphatic compounds.


3. Perhaps most well known for its presence at parties, this functional group consists of OH bonded to an R group (“rest of the molecule”).

    A. Alcohol
    B. Aldehyde
    C. Halide
    D. Benzene


Answer – Option A


4. Simply consisting of a C to O double bond (with two R groups bonded to the carbon), this functional group is present in many sugars.

    A. Ester
    B. Aldehyde
    C. Ether
    D. Ketone


Answer – Option D


5. Find the odd one among the following:

    A. Alicyclic compounds
    B. Heterogeneous compounds
    C. Branched chain compounds
    D. Aromatic compounds


Answer – Option C

Explanation:
Branched chain compound is a classification of open-chain compounds. Whereas, alicyclic, aromatic and heterogeneous compounds are sub-classifications of cyclic compounds.

1. What is called for the pollution that can be traced directly to industrial activity?

    A. Soil pollution
    B. Water pollution
    C. Air pollution
    D. Industrial pollution


Answer – Option D

Explanation:
Industrial pollution is pollution which can be directly related to industry, in comparison to other pollution sources. Due to it’s and scope, industrial pollution is a serious problem for the entire planet.


2. How do industrial pollution results in water pollution?

    A. Dumping of various waste products from industries
    B. Taking water bodies places to built industries
    C. Industries which uses all the water from the water bodies and cause scarcity of water
    D. Building of purification unit in the industries


Answer – Option A

Expanation:
Dumping of various industrial waste products into water sources and improper contamination of industrial wastes often result in polluting the water. This water pollution disturbs the balance of ecosystem.


3. Which of the following gases is not a green house gas?

    A. CO
    B. \({O}_{3}\)
    C. \({CH}_{4}\)
    D. \({H}_{2}\)O Vapour


Answer – Option A


4. Which of the following statements is not true about classical smog?

    A. Its main components are produced by the action of sunlight on
    emissions of automobiles and factories.
    B. Produced in cold and humid climate.
    C. It contains compounds of reducing nature.
    D. It contains smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide.


Answer – Option A


5. Which of the following is not a member of the vitamin B complex?

    A. Thiamine
    B. Riboflavin
    C. Folic acid
    D. Ascorbic acid


Answer – Option D

Explanation:
Vitamin B complex consists of 8 vitamins namely B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9 and B12. Vitamin B1 is Thiamine, Vit B2 is Riboflavin, Vit B3 is Niacin, Vit B5 is pantothenic acid, Vit B6 is pyridoxine, biotin, folic acid and Vit B12 is cyanocobalamin.

1. Electronic thermometers

    A. are mercury in glass thermometer
    B. alcohol in glass thermometer
    C. are used to reduce the risk of mercury poisoning if broken
    D. are greatly replaced by alcohol in glass thermometer


Answer – Option C


2. Unit for volumes does not include

    A. ccm
    B. cdm
    C. liters
    D. tones


Answer – Option D


3. Electron balances can measure accurately up to

    A. 0.01g
    B. 0.001 g
    C. 0.1g
    D. Both A and B


Answer – Option D


4. 100 \({cm}^{3}\), 250 \({cm}^{3}\) and 1 \({dm}^{3}\) can be measured using

    A. measuring cylinder
    B. beaker
    C. volumetric flask
    D. burette


Answer – Option C


5. Data loggers are

    A. data punching devices
    B. devices used to draw graph of temperature against time
    C. are a form of stop watch
    D. have replaced gas syringes


Answer – Option B





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