IBPS PO Mains Practice Set

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IBPS PO Mains Practice Set

Introduction

Career in Banking is one of the most lucrative and most sought after careers. In India, Bank Recruitment Exams are primarily conducted for recruitment of Probationary Officers, Clerks & Specialist Officers. India currently[2019] has 93 commercial and 27 public sector banks out of which 19 are nationalized and 6 are SBI and its associate banks and rest two are IDBI Bank and Bharatiya Mahila Bank, which are categorized as other public sector banks. Recruitment for Bank Probationary Officers, Management Trainees, Clerks and for various other posts generally follow a 3 step recruitment process: Preliminary Exam + Mains Exam + Interview & Group Discussion. The article IBPS PO Mains Practice Set presents a practice set for the most sought after IBPS PO recruitment. Until the year 2013, All Public Sector Banks used to conduct their own entrance test, GDs and Personal Interview for recruiting candidates. However, after 2014, IBPS started conducting recruitment Tests for 12 PSU Banks. IBPS holds a separate entrance test for recruitment.

Mains exams are very important to clear every government sector or bank related recruitment process in India. Only those candidates who are selected in the Mains round are allowed to move further up in the recruitment process. The marks obtained in the Mains exams are considered for the final merit list. Mains exams usually consist of 4 sections, with 155 questions with a time duration of 3 hours. Mains exams most certainly have negative marking.

Quiz

Directions Q (1 – 3): In each of these questions a few statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV.
Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusion(s) and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

1. Statements:

A. All mirrors are phones.
B. Some phones are gadgets.
C. All gadgets are mirrors.

Conclusions: I. Some gadgets are phones.
II. Some gadgets are mirrors.
III. Some gadgets are not mirrors.
IV. Some mirrors are phones.

A. Only I and II follow
B. Either I or II follows
C. Only II and II follow
D. Either II or IV follow
E. None follows

2. Statements:

A. All rackets are jackets.
B. No cow is cat.
C. Only cats are dogs.

Conclusions: I. Some rackets are not cats
II. Some cats are jackets.
III. Some rackets are cats.
IV. No dog is a cow.

A. Only II and IV follow
B. Only either I or III and IV follow
C. Only III and IV follow
D. Only I and IV follow
E. None follows

3. Statements:

A. All stairs are lifts.
B. No lift is an escalator.
C. Some escalators are helicopters.
D. Some lifts are planes.

Conclusions: I. No stairs is an escalator.
II. Some helicopters are not escalators.
III. Some stairs are planes.
IV. Some helicopters are escalators.

A. Only I and IV follow
B. Only I and either II or IV follow
C. Either II or IV follows
D. Only I, III or IV follow
E. None follows

Directions Q (4 – 7): Read the following information and five statements given below it carefully and answer the questions which follows:

People in the remote village of Kenal are now totally self- sufficient and liberal and no longer wait till people from urban areas dish out empowerment as a special privilege or favor.

A. Many of the residents formed a group and initiated a self- help micro-credit programme which provided help and support to the villagers to start a new business.
B. There was a time when the villagers had to seek favors from their urban counterparts.
C. Kenal lacks the new advancements and technological developments owing to a lack of urban intervention.
D. Many other villages are now approaching the people from Kenal to help them follow the same directions.
E. Women in Kenal too are realizing the importance of empowerment and are taking every possible step to add to their family’s kitty.

4. Which of the statements numbered (A) , (B), (C), (D) and (E) can be inferred from the given statement? (An inference is something which can be directly inferred from the given
facts.)

A. Only (A)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (D)
E. Both (A) and (E)

5. Which of the statements numbered (A) , (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above would prove that intervention from their urban counterparts can also be beneficial to a certain extent?

A. (A)
B. (B)
C. (C)
D. (D)
E. (E)

6. Which of the statements numbered (A) , (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a step which helped the process of liberalization and empowerment of the villagers

A. (A)
B. (B)
C. (C)
D. (D)
E. (E)

7. Which of the following represent a result / repercussion of the success experienced by the residents of the village Kenal?

A. (B)
B. (C)
C. Both (C) and (E)
D. (A)
E. (D)

Directions Q (8 – 11): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and X are captains of eight different cricket teams, namely Australia, New Zealand, India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, England, West Indies and South Africa, but not necessarily in the same order. All of them are seated around a circular table and are facing the centre.

P sits third to the left of the Sri Lankan captain. Only two people sit between T and W. Neither T nor W is an immediate neighbor of P. Neither T and W is the captain of Sri lanka. The captain of South Africa sits second to the right of S. S is not an immediate neighbor of P.S. is not the Sri Lankan captain and P is not the captain of South Africa. The Australian captain sits third to the left of V. The Australian and Sri Lankan captains are not immediate neighbors. Only one person sits between S and the Indian captain. Captains of Pakistan and New Zealand are immediate neighbors. S is not the captain of New Zealand’s team. Only one person sits between Q and the captain of England. The captain of England is an immediate neighbor of X. W and Q are not immediate neighbors.

8. How many people sit between T and the captain of England when counted in clockwise direction from T?

A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Four
E. Five

9. Who is the captain of the Australian team?

A. P
B. V
C. W
D. T
E. Q

10. Which of the following would come in place of question mark based upon the given seating arrangement?
VS XR TV RP

A. SW
B. WX
C. QW
D. QX
E. VR

11. Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement

A. R is the captain of South Africa
B. W is an immediate neighbor of V.
C. The captain of Australia and England are immediate neighbors.
D. Four people sit between W and Q.
E. X sits second to the left of S.

Directions Q (12 – 16): In the following questions, the symbols d, ★, %, # and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P ★ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer.

12. Statements: R ★ T, T d M, M % K, K @ V

Conclusions: I. V d M
II. V dT
III. M % R
IV. K dR

A. I and II are true
B. I and III are true
C. II and IV are true
D. I, III and IV are true
E. None of these

13. Statements: H d J, J # N, N @ R, R d W

Conclusions: I. W % N
II. W % H
III. R # J
IV. R d J

A. Only I is true
B. Only II is true
C. Only III is true
D. Only IV is true
E. Either III or IV is true

14. Statements: B @ D, D d F, F % M, M ★ N.

Conclusions: I. B % F
II. M d D
III. N % F
IV. N % F

A. None is true
B. Only I is true
C. Only II is true
D. Only III is true
E. Only IV is true

15. Statements: F # Z, Z @ H, H % N, N d B

Conclusions: I. F @ H
II. N % Z
III. B % H
IV. B % Z

A. I and III are true
B. II, III and IV are true
C. I and II are true
D. I, II and III are true
E. None of the above

16. Statements: M % K, K ★ W, W d V, V @ N

Conclusions: I. N ★ K
II. M % W
III. K d V
IV. V % M

A. None is true
B. Only I is true
C. Only II is true
D. Only III is true
E. Only IV is true

Directions Q (17 – 19): Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Mark answer (a) if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Mark answer (b) if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

Mark answer (c) if both the statements I and II are independent causes.

Mark answer (d) if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Mark answer (e) if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

17.

I. Computer education has been made compulsory for all the classes by many schools.
II. The current job market prefers computer-literate workforce.

18.

I. The standard of education in evening colleges of the State has been deteriorating.
II. The standard of school education has been fast deteriorating in the State.

19.

I. All domestic airlines increased the fares in all sectors with immediate effect.
II. Railways increased the fare of all its classes with immediate effect.

Directions Q (20 – 22): Each of questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it.

You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (a) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (b) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Mark answer (c) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Mark answer (d) If the data in both the Statements I and II even together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Mark answer (e) if the data in both Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

20. How is A related to B?

I. A is the sister-in-law of C, who is the daughter-in-law of B, who is the wife of D.
II. B is the mother of A’s son’s only uncle’ son.

21. Point X in which direction with respect to Y?

I. Point Z is equal distance from both point X and point Y.
II. Walking 5 km to the East of point X and taking two consecutive right turns after walking 5 kms before each turn leads to point Y.

22. On which day of the week does Arti’s birthday fall??

I. Sonu correctly remembers that Arti’s birthday falls after Wednesday but before Sunday.
II. Raj correctly remembers that Arti’s birthday falls before Friday but after Tuesday.

Directions Q (23 – 25): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges then following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration input
and rearrangement.

Input: base 35 or gone 62 49 87 ahead

Step I: 87 base 35 or gone 62 49 ahead

Step II: 87 ahead base 35 or gone 62 49

Step III: 87 ahead 62 base 35 or gone 49

Step IV: 87 ahead 62 base 49 35 or gone

Step V: 87 ahead 62 base 49 gone 35 or

and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

23. Input: power fail now 52 24 75 gate 34

Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

A. IV
B. V
C. VI
D. VII
E. None of these

24. Step II of an input is: 7 down 16 24 farm eager 62 sky.

How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
E. None of these

25. Input: 14 35 when they came 61 48 home

How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
E. None of these

Directions Q (26 – 30): In each of the following questions, a related pair of figures (unnumbered) is followed by five lettered pairs of figures. Out of these five, four have relationship similar to that in the question figure. Only one pair of figures does not have similar relationship. Select that pair of figures which does not have a relationship similar to that in the question figure.

The letter of that pair is your answer.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

Directions Q (31 – 35): Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a certain code a friend of mine is written as 4 9 1 6 mine lots of metal is written as 3 1 0 9 and a piece of metal written as 7 1 6 3.

31. What is the code for ‘piece’?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
E. Cannot be determined

32. What does ‘9’ stand for?

A. of
B. mine
C. friend
D. lots
E. metal

33. Which of the following may represent ‘a pleasure of mine’?

A. 6 3 0 9
B. 5 2 1 6
C. 9 2 1 6
D. 3 6 9 4
E. 5 0 4 1

34. What does ‘0’ stand for?

A. mine
B. metal
C. of
D. lots
E. a

35. ‘8 7 3’ would mean?

A. a metal piece
B. metal for friend
C. piece of advise
D. friend of mine
E. large metal piece

36. EBCDIC is a coding system which provides

A. 64 different characters
B. 128 different characters
C. 256 different characters
D. 512 different characters
E. 1024 different characters

37. OS and Interpreter are forms of.

A. hardware
B. ROM
C. RAM
D. memory
E. software

38. The data on hard disk recorded in cylinders are called.

A. ringers
B. tracks
C. sectors
D. rounders
E. None of these

39. _____ is used by low-level computer language..

A. Mathematical symbol
B. Mnemonic
C. English word
D. Grammar
E. Scientific symbol

40. With reference to a computer, an assembler is a.

A. symbol
B. language
C. program
D. grammar
E. person who assembles the parts

41. To request data from the DBMS ______ is used in application programs..

A. query language
B. DML
C. DDL
D. Any of the above
E. None of these

42. IRC stands for.

A. Inter Relay chat
B. Internal Relay Chat
C. Internet Relay Chat
D. Internet Reliable Chat
E. Internal Reliable Chat

43. Which of the following types of virus is present in Microsoft applications?

A. File infect or virus
B. Boot sector virus
C. Macro virus
D. Micro virus
E. E-mail virus

44. Which of the following software is needed to satisfy a user’s specific processing requirements?.

A. DTP software
B. Graphics software
C. System software
D. Application software
E. DSS software

45. Compatibility in regard to computers refers to …………..

A. the software doing the right job for the user
B. it being versatile enough to handle the job
C. the software being able to run on the computer
D. software running with other previously installed software
E. None of the above

Solutions: For Q(1-45)

Q(1-3):

According to statements:

Q1:

Explanation:

None of the conclusions follows.

Q2:

Explanation:

Q3:

Explanation:

I, II or IV follow.

Q4:

Explanation:

Sentence B is an obvious inference because of the use of words ‘are now’ in the first sentence of the given paragraph. That means, the village was earlier not self sufficient.

Q5:

Explanation:

Lack of new advancements and technologies developments because of a lack of urban intervention proves that intervention from urban counterparts can lead to new advancements and = technological developments and benefit the village.

Q6:

Explanation:

The formation of groups by residents to initiate self- help micro-credit programme, as mentioned in sentence A, represents the step which helped the process of liberalisation and empowerment of the villages.

Q7:

Explanation:

Success experienced by the residents of the village Kenal has made them idols to be pursued for. This result is aptly depicted in sentence D.

Q(8-11):

Q8:

Q9:

Explanation:

Q10:

Explanation:

There is pattern of going from second member of a pair to the first member of the next pair: +2, +3, +4 … CW.

Q11:

Q(12-16):
P % Q ⇒ P Q
P @ Q ⇒ P ≤ Q
P ★ Q ⇒ P ≥ Q
P # Q ⇒ P = Q

Q12:

Q13:

Q14:

Q15:

Q16:

Q17:

Explanation:

Job market is an important consideration in determining the curriculum of schools.

Q18:

Explanation:

There seems to be some common cause that is leading to deterioration in both kinds of education.

Q19:

Explanation:

Hike in fuel prices seems to be the common cause.

Q20:

Explanation:

From I: A is female Using this in II, we get:

B = mother of A’s son’s only uncle’s son

= mother of A’s son’s cousion

= mother of A’s brother-in-law’s wife.

Q21:

Explanation:

Statement I is of no use because we don’t know the directions.
Statement II is sufficient because distances and
directions have been given propertly.

Q22:

Explanation:

From I: Arti’s birthday falls on Thu, Fri or Sat.
From II: It falls on Sat, Sun or Mon
Combining I and II, it falls on Sat.

Q23:

Explanation:

Input: power fail now 52 24 75 gate 34

Step I: 75 power fail now 52 24 gate 34

Step II: 75 fail power now 52 24 gate 34

Step III: 75 fail 52 power now 24 gate 34

Step IV: 75 fail 52 gate power now 24 gate 34

Step V: 75 fail 52 gate 34 power now 24

Step VI: 75 fail 52 gate 34 now power 24

Step VII: 75 fail 52 gate 34 now 24 power
Hence step VI will be the last but one.

Q24:

Explanation:

Step II: 75 down 16 24 farm eager 62 sky

Step III: 75 down 62 16 24 farm eager sky

Step IV: 75 down 62 eager 16 24 farm sky

Step V: 75 down 62 eager 24 16 farm sky

Step VI: 75 down 62 eager 24 farm 16 sky
Hence 6 – 2 = 4 more steps will be required.

Q25:

Explanation:

Input: 14 35 when they came 61 48 home

Step I: 61 14 35 when they came 48 home

Step II: 61 came 14 35 when they 48 home

Step III: 61 came 48 14 35 when they home

Step IV: 61 came 48 home 14 35 when they

Step V: 61 came 48 home 35 14 when they

Step VI: 61 came 48 home 35 they 14 when

Q26:

Explanation:

The upper 1 left element rotates by 90° CW while the other four rotate by 90° ACW.

Q27:

Explanation:

The whole figure rotates by 90° ACW. The first and the third, and the second and the fourth elements interchanged places.

Q28:

Explanation:

The first column from left becomes the second row from top. The second column from left becomes the lower row. The third column goes to the top while the fourth column becomes the third row. One element each is added in the first and second row from top while one element each is reduced from the third and fourth row from top.

Q29:

Explanation:

The whole figure rotates by 45° ACW while the end element gets inverted.

Q30:

Explanation:

The upper left rotates by 45° CW and the lower left rotates by 45° ACW. The upper right rotates by 135° CW and the lower right by 135° ACW.

Q(31-35):

a friend of mine = 4 9 1 6 …(i)
mine lots of metal = 3 1 0 9 …(ii)
a piece of metal = 7 1 6 3 …(iii)
From (i), (ii) and (iii), of = 1 …(iv)
From (i), (iii) and (iv), a = 6 …(v)
From (i), (ii), and (iv), mine = 9 …(vi)
From (i), (iv), (v) and (vi), friend = 4 …(vii)
From (ii), (iii) and (iv), metal = 3 …(viii)
From (ii), (iv), (vi) and (viii), lots = 0 …(ix)
From (iii), (iv), (v) and (viii), piece = 7 … (x)

Q31:

Q32:

Q33:

Q34:

Q35:

Q36:

Q37:

Q38:

Q39:

Q40:

Q41:

Q42:

Q43:

Q44:

Q45:

Directions Q(46-50): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:

The premises of a bank are to be renovated. The renovation is in terms of flooring. Certain areas are to be floored either with marble or wood. All rooms/halls and pantry are rectangular. The area to be renovated comprises of a hall for customer transaction measuring 23 m by 29 m, branch manager’s room measuring 13 m by 17 m, a pantry measuring 14 m by 13 m, a record keeping cum server room measuring 21m by 13 m and locker area measuring 29 m by 21 m. The total area of the bank is 2000 square meters. The cost of wooden flooring is Rs. 170/- per square meter and the cost of marble flooring is Rs. 190/- per square meter. The locker area, record keeping cum server room and pantry are to be floored with marble. The branch manager’s room and the hall for customer transaction are to be floored with wood. No other area is to be renovated in terms of flooring.

46. What is the respective ratio of the total cost of wooden flooring to the total cost of marble flooring.

A. 1879 : 2527
B. 1887 : 2386
C. 1887 : 2527
D. 1829 : 2527
E. 1887 : 2351

47. If the four walls and ceiling of the branch managers room (The height of the room is 12 meters) are to be painted at the cost of Rs. 190/- per square meter, how much will be the total cost of renovation of the branch manager’s room including the cost of flooring?

A. Rs. 1,36,800/-
B. Rs. 2,16,660/-
C. Rs. 1,78.790/-
D. Rs. 2,11,940/-
E. None of these

48. If the remaining area of the bank is to be carpeted at the rate of Rs. 110/- per square meter, how much will be the increment in the total cost of renovation of bank premises?

A. Rs. 5,820/-
B. Rs. 4,848/-
C. Rs. 3,689/-
D. Rs. 6,890/-
E. None of these

49. What is the percentage area of the bank that is not to be renovated?

A. 2.2
B. 2.4
C. 4.2
D. 4.4
E. None of these

50. What is the total cost of renovation of the hall for customer transaction and the locker area?

A. Rs. 2,29,100/-
B. Rs. 2,30,206/-
C. Rs. 2,16,920/-
D. Rs. 2,42,440/-
E. None of these

Directions Q(51-55):

51. Rachita enters a shop to buy ice-creams, cookies and pastries. She has to buy atleast 9 units of each. She buys more cookies than ice-creams and more pastries than cookies.
She picks up a total of 32 items. How many cookies does she buy
?

A. Either 12 or 13
B. Either 11 or 12
C. Either 10 or 11
D. Either 9 or 11
E. Either 9 or10

52. The simple interest obtained on an amount of  45,000 at the end of 4 years is  15,300. What would be the approximate compound interest obtained on the same amount at the
same rate of interest in the same period?

A. Rs. 18,244
B. Rs. 19,500
C. Rs. 16,285
D. Rs. 18,566
E. Rs. 17,364

53. Farah got married 8 years ago. Today her age is 1$${2}{7}$$times her age at the time of her marriage. At present her daughter’s age is one-sixth of her age. What was her daughter’s age 3 years ago?

A. 6 years
B. 4 years
C. 3 years
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

54. Swapnil, Aakash and Vinay begin to jog around a circular stadium. They complete their revolutions in 36 seconds, 48 seconds and 42 seconds respectively. After how many seconds will they be together at the starting point.?

A. 504 seconds
B. 940 seconds
C. 1008 seconds
D. 470 seconds
E. None of these

55. Excluding the stoppages, the speed of a bus is 64 km/hr and including the stoppage the speed of he bus is 48 km/hr. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

A. 12.5 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 18 minutes
E. None of these

Directions Q(56-60): Study the information in the following pie-charts to answer these questions:

Breakup of 800 male employees “across the scales

56. How many females are working in Scale II?

A. 144
B. 81
C. 96
D. 138
E. None of these

57. What is the ratio of male to female employees working in Scale V?

A. 7 : 8
B. 2 : 1
C. 8 : 7
D. 1 : 2
E. None of these

58. What is the total number of female employees working in Scales III and IV together?

A. 219
B. 157
C. 162
D. 285
E. None of these

59. The number of male employees working in Scale VI is what per cent of the total number of employees in the scale? (rounded off to the nearest integer)

A. 35
B. 46
C. 44
D. 34
E. None of these

60. What is the ratio of the female employees in Scale VI to the male employees in Scale I?

A. 32 : 23
B. 22 : 33
C. 12 : 23
D. 23 : 12
E. None of these

Directions Q(61-65): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Total number of employees in different departments of an organization and (of these) percentage of females and males

Department Total Number of Employees Percentage of Females Percentage of Males
IT 840 45 55
Accounts 220 35 65
Production 900 23 77
HR 360 65 35
Marketing 450 44 56
Customer Service 540 40 60

61. What is respective ratio of the number of females in Production department to the number of females in the Marketing department?

A. 22 : 23
B. 35 : 33
C. 23 : 22
D. 33 : 35
E. None of these

62. What is the ratio of the number of females in the HR and Accounts departments together to the number of males in the same departments together?

A. 311 : 269
B. 268 : 319
C. 269 : 311
D. 319 : 268
E. None of these

63. What is the total number of employees in all the departments together?

A. 3260
B. 3310
C. 3140
D. 3020
E. None of these

64. The total number of employees in the HR department forms approximately what percent of the total number of employees in the Accounts department?

A. 149
B. 178
C. 157
D. 164
E. 137

65. What is the total number of males in the IT and Customer Service departments together?

A. 687
B. 678
C. 768
D. 876
E. None of these

Directions Q(66-72): Seven companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G are engaged in production of two items I and II. The comparative data about production of these items by the seven companies is given in the following pie-chart and the table. Study them carefully and answer the questions given below.

Percentage of the total production produced by the seven companies

Cost of the total production (both items together) by seven companies. = Rs. 25 crores

Ratio of production between items I and II and the per cent profit earned for tshe two items.

Company Ratio of Production Percent Profit Earned
Item II Item I Item I Item II
A 2 3 25 20
B 3 2 32 35
C 4 1 20 22
D 3 5 15 25
E 5 3 28 30
F 1 4 35 25
G 1 2 30 24

66. What is the total cost of the production of item ‘I’ by companies A and C together in Rs. crore?

A. 9.25
B. 5.9
C. 4.1625
D. 4 : 9
E. None of these

67. What is the amount of profit eared by company ‘D’ on item ‘II’?

A. Rs. 3.125 crores
B. Rs. 31.25 crores
C. Rs. 3.125 Lakhs
D. Rs. 31.25 Lakhs
E. None of these

68. Cost of production of item ‘I’ by company ‘F’ is what percent of the cost of production of item ‘II’ by company ‘D’?

A. 16%
B. 33.33%
C. 66.67%
D. 12.5%
E. None of these

69. What is the total profit earned by company ‘G’ for items ‘I’ and ‘II’ together?

A. Rs. 78 lakhs
B. Rs. 1.62 crores
C. Rs. 7.8 crores
D. Rs. 16.2 lakhs
E. None of these

70. What is the ratio of cost of production of item ‘I’ by company ‘A’ to the cost of production of item ‘I’ by company ‘D’?

A. 3 : 5
B. 1 : 2
C. 2 : 1
D. 2 : 3
E. None of these

71. What is the total of the profit earned by company ‘B’ on production of item I and the profit earned by company ‘A’ on production of item ‘II’?

A. Rs. 9.78 crores
B. Rs. 97.8 lakhs
C. Rs. 52.8 lakhs
D. Rs. 5.28 crores
E. None of these

72. The cost of production of both items together by company ‘E’ is equal to the total cost of production of both items together by which of the two companies?

A. C and D
B. B and G
C. A and D
D. C and F
E. A and B

Directions Q(73-75): In each of these questions, a question is followed by information given in three statements. You have to study the question alongwith the information given in the statements and decide the information in which of the statement(s) is/are necessary and sufficient to answer the question.

73. In how many days can the work be completed by A, B and C together?
(I) A and B together can complete the work in 6 days.
(II) B and C together can complete the work in 3$${3}{4}$$ days
(III) B and C together can complete the work in 3$${1}{3}$$ days

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Any one of the three
E. All the three statements are necessary to answer the question.

74. What is the total compound interest earned at the end of the three years?
(I) Simple interest earned on that amount at the same rate and period is Rs. 4,500
(II) The rate of interest is 10 per cent per annum
(III) Compound interest for three years is more than the simple interest for the period by Rs. 465.

A. Only I and II
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. Any two of the three
E. Either II or III only

75. What is the percent profit earned by the shopkeeper on selling the articles in his shop?
(I) Labelled price of the articles sold was 130% of the cost price.
(II) Cost price of each article was Rs. 550.
(III) A discount of 10% on labelled price was offered.

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. All the three statements are necessary to answer the question
E. Questions cannot be answered even with the information given in all the three statements.

Directions Q(76-80): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow: Study the following graph and table
carefully and answer the questions given below:

DISTANCE COVERED (IN KILOMETERS) BY SIX VEHICLES ON EACH DAY

Vehicle Day 1 Day 2
A 832 864
B 516 774
C 693 810
D 552 765
E 935 546
F 703 636

76. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days?

A. Vehicle A
B. Vehicle C
C. Vehicle F
D. Vehicle B
E. None of these

77. What was the difference between the speed of vehicle A on day 1 and the speed of vehicle C on the same day?

A. 7 km/hr.
B. 12 km/hr.
C. 11 km/hr.
D. 8 km/hr.
E. None of these

78. What was the speed of vehicle C on day 2 in terms of meters per second?

A. 15.3
B. 12.8
C. 11.5
D. 13.8
E. F

79. The distance travelled by vehicle F on day 2 was approximately what percent of the distance travelled by it on day 1?

A. 80
B. 65
C. 85
D. 95
E. 90

80. What is the respective ratio between the speeds of vehicle D and vehicle E on day 2?

A. 15:13
B. 17:13
C. 13:11
D. 17:14
E. None of these

Solutions: For Q(46-80)

Q46:

Explanation:

Area of customer transaction room = 23m×29m = 667 sq.m
Area of branch manager room = 13m × 17 m = 221 sq. m
Area of Pantry room = 14m × 13m = 182 sq. m
Area of Server room = 21m × 13m = 273 sq. m
Area of locker room = 29 m × 21 m = 609 sq. m
Total cost of wooden flooring = Rs. [(170 × (667 + 221)]
= Rs. (888 × 170)
Total cost of marble flooring
= Rs. [(190 × (182 + 273 + 609)] = Rs. (190 × 1064)
Required Ratio = 888 × 170 : 1064 × 190 = 1887 : 2527

Q47:

Explanation:

Area of 4 walls and ceiling of branch managers room
= 2 (lh + bh) + lb = 2 [17 × 12 + 13 × 12] + 13 × 17
= 941 sq. m

Q48:

Explanation:

Total area of bank is 2000 sq. m
Total area of bank to be renovated = 1952 sq. m
Remaining Area = 2000 – 1952 = 48 sq. m
Total cost Remaining Area to be carpeted at the rate of
Rs. 110/sq. meter = Rs.(48 × 110) = Rs. 5280

Q49:

Explanation:

percentage area of bank not to be renovated

= $$\frac{Area bank not be renovated}{Total area of bank}$$ ⇒ $$\frac{48}{2000}$$ x 100 = 2.4%

Q50:

Explanation:

Total cost of hall of customer transaction
= Rs.(170 × 667)= Rs.113,390
Total cost of Locker area = Rs.(190 × 609) = Rs.115710
Total cost of customer transaction hall + locker area
= Rs.(113390 + 115710) = Rs.229100

Q51:

Explanation:

By options

(a) Either 12 or 13
then ice-creams should not be given atleast 9. This can be rejected.

(b) Either 11 or 12
Ice-cream should be atleast 9. By this combination ice cream gets less than 9.

(c) Either 10 or 11
By giving cookies 10 or 11, we get all the possible condition fulfilled.

(d) and (e), the ice-cream distribution can be more than cookies which violates our condition.

= 1040 – 920 = 120

Q52:

Explanation:

SI = Rs. 15,300
Time = 4 years
Principal = Rs. 45,000
Rate of interest = $$\frac{15300 × 100 }{45000 × 4}$$ = 8.5%
CI = 45000 {[1 + $$\frac{8.5}{100}]^4 – 1$$}
= 45000 [1.385 – 1] = 45000 × 0.385
= » Rs. 17325 ≈ Rs.17364

Q53:

Explanation:

Age of Farah = x = ( $$\frac{9 }{7}$$)
⇒x = $$\frac{9(× – 8 }{7}$$

⇒ 7x = 9x – 72 ⇒ 2x = – 72
⇒x = $$\frac{72}{2}$$ = 36 Years
Present age of her daughter = $$\frac{36}{6}$$ = 6 Years
Age of daughter 3 years ago = 6 – 3 = 3 years

Q54:

Explanation:

LCM of 36 sec, 48 sec and 42 sec = 1008 sec
∴ After 1008 seconds, they will be together at the starting point.

Q55:

Explanation:

Stoppage time per hour $$\frac{64 – 48}{64}$$ = $$\frac{1}{4}$$ x 60 = $$\frac{1}{4}$$hr = 15 minutes

Q56:

Explanation:

Required number of females = 1500 x $$\frac{15}{100}$$ – 800 x $$\frac{18}{100}$$= 225 – 144 = 81

Q57:

Explanation:

Year Absolute diff.
2002 165
2003 100
2004 75
2005 25
2006 95
2007 0
2008 100
2009 25
2010 60
2011 75

As observed from table 2010 gets 4th rank. Hence, option (A) is correct.

Q58:

Explanation:

Increase in export in 2003 = $$\frac{(150 – 110)}{110}$$ x 100

$$\frac{40 }{110}$$ x 100 = 36.36%

Increase in export in 2004 = $$\frac{(150 – 150)}{150}$$ x 100 = 0%

Increase in export in 2005 = $$\frac{(200 – 150)}{150}$$ x 100 = 33.3%

Increase in export in 2006 = $$\frac{(200 – 175)}{200}$$ x 100 = 12.5%

Increase in export in 2007 = $$\frac{(200 – 175)}{175}$$ x 100 = 14.28%

Increase in export in 2008 = $$\frac{(275 – 200)}{200}$$ x 100 = 37.5%

In 2009 there is decrease.

Increase in export in 2010 = $$\frac{(260 – 200)}{200}$$ x 100 = 30%

In 2011 there is decrease. From above it is clear that the fifth largest annual percentage in export was recorded in 2007 i.e., 14.28%.

Hence, option (A) is correct.

Q59:

Explanation:

In the year 2003, 2004, 2005, 2007, 2008, 2009, 2011 there is no increase in import.

Increase in export in 2006 = $$\frac{(270 – 225)}{225}$$ x 100 = 20%

Increase in export in 2010 = $$\frac{(200 – 175)}{175}$$ x 100 = 14.28%

In 2010 there is second largest percentage increase in import. Hence, option (A) is correct.

Q60:

Explanation:

The maximum percentage increase in exports is in 2008 i.e., 37%.

The minimum percentage decrease in imports is in 2003

i.e. = $$\frac{(275 – 250)}{250}$$ x 100 = 9.09%

Hence, required % = 37.5 – 9.09 = 28%

Q61:

Q62:

Explanation:

Required percentage = $$\frac{24}{16}$$ x 10 = 150

Q63:

Q64:

Q65:

Q66:

Q67:

Q68:

Q69:

Q70:

Q71:

Q72:

Q73:

Q74:

Q75:

Q76:

Q77:

Q78:

Q79:

Q80:

Directions(81-90): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A few weeks ago, a newspaper article quoted a well-known scientist saying, “IT has destroyed Indian science”. One caji speculate about the various ways in which the growth of the IT sector and other similar knowledge industries such as biotechnology has led to a decline in basic scientific research in India.

The most obvious reason is money; pay scales in IT and BT are much higher than one can aspire to in academia. The argument goes: why should a bright B. Tech, or M.Sc. A student enrolled in a Ph.D. programme when she can make a lot more money writing code? Not only does a fresh IT employee make a lot more than a fresh M.Tech. Student, his/her pay will rise much faster in IT than in academia. A professor’s pay at a government-run university, even after the Sixth Pay Commission, tops out at far less than a senior executive’s salary in major industry.

Second, the social Status of IT and BT Jobs equal or even exceed the social status of corresponding academic positions, since they are seen as knowledge industries, which plays to the best and worst instincts of the societal Order. As quintessential white collar professions, neither do they compel a successful entrepreneur to resort to violence and corruption, nor do they demand any physical labor. Unlike real estate or road construction, it is feit that IT workers can become rich while staying honest and sweat-free.

Surely, knowledge has become a commodity like any other and as a result, knowledge workers are like any other laborers, who will sell their wares to the highest bidder. One Solution is to accept and even encourage the commoditization of knowledge; if so, Indian universities and research centers should copy their western counterparts by becoming more and more like corporations. Thesecentres of learning should convert themselves into engines of growth. In this logic, if we increase academic salaries and research grants to match IT paycheques we will attract good people into academia, where, in any case, it is rumored that a certain elusive feeling called ‘the quality of life’ is better.

81. According to the passage, what did the scientist actually mean when he said, “IT has destroyed Indian Science?

A. The center means for Scientific research is being utilized by IT industries
B. The IT industry does not employ people pursuing higher studies
C. As information is readily available on the internet because of IT, there is no need to seek further information
D. IT has distorted the truth as stated by Indian science
E. The desire for money has overshadowed the search for knowledge

82. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage

A. Is the Future of IT Bright?
B. The IT Industry and the World Economy
C. Research and Academics — Losing the Battie Against IT
D. Scientific Research and the Need for Well — Trained Faculty
E. Information Technology and its Advantages

83. Which of the following mentioned below is/are the author’s suggestion/s to promote interest in Indian academic?
(A) Research centers should adopt the corporate culture as is done in the West.
(B) Lessening the number of research grants given.
(C) Making academic salaries equivalent to those paid in IT Industries.

A. Only (C)
B. Only (A)
C. Only (B) and (C)
D. Only (A) and (C)
E. None of these

84. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?
(A) It is believed that the quality of life is better when pursuing scientific research.
(B) People currently seek knowledge only for the greater good of society
(C) Money is not perceived to be as powerful as knowledge.

A. Only (A) and (C)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (A) and (B)
D. Only (B) and (C)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)

85. Which of the following according to the author, are factors responsible for the declining interest in scientific research?
(A) Slower progress of work in research
(B) Lesser monetary compensation in research related activities
(C) Societal perception towards research

A. Only(A)
B. Only (C)
C. Only (B) and (C)
D. Only (A) and (B)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)

86. Which of the following is true about the perception towards IT jobs as given in the passage?
(A) They are physically tiring.
(B) They are considered to be managerial level jobs.
(C) They require the usage of dishonest means.

A. Only (B)
B. Only (A) and (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (B) and (C)
E. All (A), (B) and (C) are true

Directions(87-88): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word /group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

87. CAPACITY

A. qualification
B. capability
C. voltage
D. quantity
E. volume

88. ALLUDING

A. referring
B. breaking
C. escaping
D. imposing
E. clinging

Directions(89-90): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

89. BRIGHT

A. soft
B. dark
C. dull
D. vivid
E. dim

90. ELUSIVE

A. definite
B. happy
C. mysterious
D. worthwhile
E. remarkable

Directions(91-95): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful Paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) It is, therefore, a contributing factor to the growth of landfills and waterway, pollution, both of which are costly and energy-intensive to solve.
(B) Making an effort to use those resources and avoid polystyrene ones can help to decrease your environmental impact.
(C) Non-biodegradable essentially means that any polystyrene that makes its way into a landfill will stay there indefinitely, never breaking down and returning to the earth.
(D) Polystyrene, as a product, is very convenient to use, but it has some important effects we should consider when making choices as consumers.
(E) While recycling polystyrene material can cushion the environmental blow of its use, alternatives are available that are created from renewable resources and biodegrade
(F) For example, while polystyrene has some excellent uses and is technical, recyclable, it is not a substance that biodegrades.

91. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

92. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement

A. E
B. F
C. A
D. D
E. B

93. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

94. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement

A. B
B. C
C. D
D. E
E. F

95. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Directions(96-105): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Hundreds of plants and animals are (96) every day due to deforestation and urbanization what might happen if this continues in the future? The last mass extinction of plant and animal species occurred 65 million years ago with the Dinosaurs. In all, five mass extinctions have occurred and scientists (97) earth is in sixth mass extinction. The world as it is now is threatened, including people, who are responsible for earth’s (98). Pesticides contaminating water; over harvesting of animals and plants; air pollution; illegal fishing and the Clearing of land are direct results of urbanization and deforestation. People have (99) and damaged almost half an earth’s land, at a very unsustainable rate. Global warming is having a serious impact as well. A six-degree Celsius increase in global temperature killed 95% of All species on Earth 251 million years ago. An increase of six-degree Celsius is forecast this Century if a change is not made to (100) the damage done to the earth. Humans will be one of the 95% of species lost. Noticeable, changes of global warming include migration (101) and the change in season Turnings. Migrating birds are migrating earlier, which in turn is causing them to hatch eggs and (102) young earlier than they did at the beginning of this Century. While this is just the tip of the iceberg many other (103) regarding the extinction of plant and animal species need addressing. It is more important now than ever before to pull our heads out of the sand arid make changes for the (104) of the earth. Future generations are (105), as they are a species as well.

96.

A. killing
B. alive
C. born
D. left
E. lost

97.

A. speak
B. told
C. estimation
D. believe
E. consider

98.

A. shape
B. development
C. deterioration
D. warmth
E. expansion

99.

A. altered
B. created
C. produced
E. brought

100.

A. void
B. dissipate
C. argument
D. reverse
E. increase

101.

A. delay
B. birds
C. slowdown
D. hasten
E. acceleration

102.

A. spare
B. bear
C. destroy
D. amend
E. generation

103.

A. animals
B. difficulty
C. issues
D. humans
E. problem

104.

A. extinction
B. better
C. wealth
D. sugma
E. demand

105.

A. endangered
B. threaten
C. evaluated
D. living
E. compared

Directions(106-109): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose
the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

106. After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a __________ last year and have not ________ each other ever since

A. fight talked
B. argument, met
C. dispute, seen
E. difference, introduced

107. The workers, several of ________had complained about their low wages earlier, have now ________ to move the court for labor rights

A. who, indicated
B. whom, decided
C. which, threatened
D. them, resolved
E. number warned

108. The huntsmen dwellers were jubilant when the government __________ an apartment to each of them at rates

A. demolished, fast
B. announced, less
C. provided, high
D. acquired, low
E. promised, subsidized

109. The organisation was deeply ____________ by difficulties a decade ago but the new CEO brought many __________ changes in it and took it to a new high

A. indebted, necessary
B. plagued, vital
C. coping, more
D. hurt, critical
E. shaken, inevitable

Directions(110-112): In each of the following questions four words are given, of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination.

110.
(A) instigate (B) enquire
(C) construe (D) interpret

A. A-C
B. A-B
C. C-D
D. B-D
E. A-D

111.
(A) superficial (B) superfluous
(C) enlightened (D) surplus

A. A-C
B. A-B
C. B-C
D. B-D
E. A-D

112.
(A) appalling (B) sinister
(C) perturbed (D) threatening

A. A-B
B. B-D
C. A-C
D. A-D
E. D-C

Directions(113-115): Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (E) as the answer.

113. Although information technology has entered the homes offices and hearts of many citizens of India, __________.

A. India provides the highest number of IT experts to the world every year
B. many people in rural areas still remain ignorant of its immense benefits
C. government has done its best by funding research in this field appropriately
D. the face of communication in the years to come would change completely from the bygone years
E. None of these

114. While the environment-friendly nuclear energy could make a large addition to the energy resources, __________.

A. experts have a lot of expectations from this cleaner method of producing energy
B. the government is determined to extract maximum out of this technology in the near future
C. the international lobby has been pressurizing the developing nations to shift their energy production from coal to nuclear power.
D. the problem of locating adequate numbers of uranium reserves to run the reactors is yet to be sorted out
E. None of these

115. As allegations of crores of rupees changing hands to permit illegal mining began to fly thick and fast, _____________.

A. the government ordered an inquiry which exposed a nexus between mine operators and bureaucrats
B. it caused great damage to the surrounding ecosystem and the environment in general
C. the officials have been irresponsible in failing to bring it to the notice of the court in time
D. the powerful mining lobby had bribed the officials to | obtain a permit for mining on ecologically sensitive land
E. None of these

Solutions: For Q(81-115)

Q81:

Q82:

Q83:

Q84:

Q85:

Q86:

Q87:

Q88:

Q89:

Q90:

Q91:

Q92:

Q93:

Q94:

Q95:

Q96:

Q97:

Q98:

Q99:

Q100:

Q101:

Q102:

Q103:

Q104:

Q105:

Q106:

Q107:

Q108:

Q109:

Q110:

Q111:

Q112:

Q113:

Q114:

Q115:

116. Which of the following is the apex institution in the matter?

A. HUDCO
B. IRBI
C. IFCI
D. National Housing Bank
E. None of these

117. Consider the following statement with respect to FCRA:
(A) It stands for Forward Contracts Regulation Act.
(B) In commodity exchanges in India, Index Futures are not permitted, as some of the provisions of the FCRA do not allow the same.
(C) It came into existence in 1952.

Which of the above statements is/are correct about FCRA in India?

A. Only (A)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (A) and (B)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)

118. Which of the following initiatives is/are taken by the Government of India to boost the development of agriculture?
(A) Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme
(B) Fertilizer Subsidy Scheme
(C) Public Distribution System (PDS)

A. Only (A)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (A) and (B)
E. All (A), (B) and (C)

119. Banks need liquidity to meet which of the following objectives of banking?
(A) To meet deposit withdrawal
(B) To maintain public confidence
(C) To fund loan demands.

A. Only (A)
B. Only (B)
C. Only (C)
D. Only (A) and (B)
E. Only (A) and (C)

120. Who amongst the following is the author of the book The Sense of Ending?

A. Julian Barnes
C. John Banville
D. Yann Martel
E. Howard Jacobson

121. The rate at which domestic currency can be converted into foreign currency and vice versa is known as?

A. Exchange rate
B. MIBOR
C. Inter-bank call money rate
D. Base rate
E. LIBOR

122. Domestic scheduled commercial banks (other than RRBs) do not require RBI permission to open branches in ….. centers.

A. Tier-I
B. Tier-II
C. Tier-III
D. All the above
E. None of these

123. The sole aim of marketing is to increase ____.

A. sales
B. number of employees
C. profits
D. production
E. Both (A) and (C)

124. Marketing is a _____..

A. day-to-day function
B. one-off affair
C. one-man show
D. collective process
E. means to earn additional income

125. Marketing is a necessity today due to _____.

A. Liberalization
B. Nationalization
C. Fashion
D. Urbanization
E. Marketing in banks is not necessary as banking in India is more than 200 years old

126. Which of the following Indian scientists was known as ‘Missile Man’ of India.

A. H J Bhabha
B. Vikram Sarabhai
C. APJ Abdul Kalam
D. K Kastoori Rangan
E. None of these

127. National income of India is compiled by.

A. Finance Commission
B. Indian statistical Institute
C. National Development Council
D. Central statistical organisation
E. None of these

128. The book ‘A History of Ancient and Early Medieval India – From the Stone Age to the 12 Century’ is written by.

A. Manmohan Singh
B. Upinder Singh
C. Shiv Shankar Menon
D. Bipin Chandra
E. None of these

129. Which was the first Indian Company to be listed on NASDAQ.

A. Infosys
B. Satyam
C. Reliance
D. TISCO
E. None of these

130. As we know, the Government is paying much attention to “Micro Finance” these days. Which of the following is one of the examples of Micro Finance.

A. Insurance for life
B. Investment in Mutual Funds
C. Self Help Groups
D. Letter of Credit
E. None of these

131. Which of the following organizations/ agencies frame the Monetary and Credit Policy. Which is followed by all banks in India.

A. Indian Bank’s Association
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India
D. Government of India
E. None of these

132. The Bank Case Information System (BCIS) is being developed by which of the following bodies, in the wake of increasing cases of bank frauds? It would contain names of accused persons besides the details of borrowers and the public servants concerned.

A. Reserve Bank of India
B. Indian Bank’s Association
C. Ministry of Finance
D. Central Statistical Organisation
E. Central Bureau of Investigation

133. As we know, the Government is paying much attention to “Micro Finance” these days. Which of the following is one of the examples of Micro Finance?

A. Insurance for life
B. Investment in Mutual Funds
C. Self Help Groups
D. Letter of Credit
E. All of these

134. Fiscal deficit in the Union Budget means.

A. The difference between crucial expenditure and current revenue.
B. The sum of budgetary deficit and a net increase in internal and external borrowings
C. Net increase in union government borrowings from Reserve Bank of India
D. The sum of monetized deficit and budgetary deficit.
E. All of these

135. DTAA stands for.

A. Direct Tariff Avoidance Agreement
B. Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
C. Direct Taxation Avoidance Agreement
D. Double Tariff Avoidance Agreement
E. All of these

136. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act provides for at least how many days of wage employment to every rural household in a year?

A. 90 days
B. 180 days
C. 100 days
D. 300 days
E. All of these

137. The term ‘bogey’ is associated with?

A. Cricket
B. Chess
C. Golf
D. Baseball
E. All of these

138. Net Asset Value (NAV) of a scheme is a number which basically represents the value of rupees per fund units as on a particular date of the assets fo the fund less liabilities
and outstanding expenses. It is represented as Assets of the fund – Liabilities

A. $${+Outstanding Expenses}{Number of Fund Units Assets of the fund +Liabilities}$$
B. $${+Outstanding Expenses}{Liabilities}$$
C. $${-Outstanding Expenses}{Number of Fund Units}$$
D. Anyone of the above
E. None of these

139. What are the benefits of a credit card for its holder

A. The cardholder is relieved of the risk/botheration/tension of carrying cash while staying in hotels, dining in restaurants, shipping buying air
B. The cardholder can draw money from any branch of the issuing bank
C. The cardholder can get a consolidated statement for all the transactions
D. All of the above
E. None of these

140. Who can make an investment in a commercial paper

A. Individuals
B. Banking companies
C. Corporate bodies registered or incorporated in India and unincorporated bodies
D. None Resident Indians (NRIs) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FIIs)
E. All of the above

141. A commercial paper is

A. a paper issued by Reserve Bank of India trade and commerce
B. an unsecured money market instrument issued in the from of a promissory note
C. a document issued by IDBI for seeking to refinance facility from Reserve Bank India
D. All of the above
E. None of these

142. The term ‘moral suasion’ refers to

A. The moral duty of a borrower to deal with only one bank
B. The advice is given by the Reserve Bank of India to banks/financial institutions in the matter of their lending and other operations with the objective that they might
implement or follow it
C. The banker’s duty of secrecy as regards the affairs and accounts of his customers
D. All of the above
E. None of these

143. Land Development Banks provide long-term credit for schemes of basic importance to agriculture as

A. mechanization of agriculture i.e., loans for purposes of tractors, power tillers, threshers, etc
B. land reclamation, soil conservation, plantation of fruit orchards, dairy development schemes, etc, involving heavy expenditure
C. minor irrigation purposes like wells, dug-cum-bore wells, tube wells pump sets and irrigation tanks
D. Only (A) and (B)
E. All of the above

144. Through which of the following the funds to the projects aided by the World Bank and the International Monetary Funds (IMF) are distributed

A. Regional Branches of RBI
B. NABARD
C. Integrated Rural Development Programme
D. Agriculture Refinance and Development Corporation
E. Ministry of Finance

145. Union Budget which is presented every year in the parliament is also known as

A. Annual Budget
B. Common Budget
C. General Budget
D. Finance Report of the year
E. Statement of Allocation of funds

146. Which of the following terms is NOT used in Banking/ Finance related matters

A. Discount Rate
B. Letter of Credit
C. Cheque Clearing
D. General Ledger
E. Law of Motion

147. Which of the following organizations/agencies works solely to monitor and arrange the flow of agriculture credit in India

A. NABARD
B. SIDBI
C. RBI
D. SEBI
E. None of these

148. Foreign currencies are represented in various abbreviations. What is meant by USD?

A. UAE Dinar
B. US Dollar
C. Unit of Currency of Denmark
D. Ukrainian Soviet Dollar
E. None of these

149. In which year, Indian Rupee was devalued for the first time?

A. 1965
B. 1966
C. 1968
D. 1971
E. None of these

150. On which date, RBI started working?

A. 1 January 1934
B. 1 January 1935
C. 1 April 1935
D. 31 March 1934
E. None of these

151. In the Rail Budget 2016-2017, a new service named Janani Sewa will be introduced. What is the aim of this service?

A. To introduce children’s menu items on trains, baby foods, hot milk, and hot water
B. To introduce medical facilities for pregnant women on trains
C. To introduce women and child security on train
D. All of the above
E. None of these

152. In the Rail Budget 2016-2017, Suresh Prabhu announced three pillars of the strategy. Name the three pillars.

A. Reorganize, Restructure Rejuvenate Indian Railways: ‘Chalo, Milkar Kuch Karen’
B. Chalo, Milkar Kuch Naya Karen: ‘Navinikaran, Sashaktikaran, Shodh aur Vikas’
C. Nav Arjan – New revenues, Nav Manak – New norms, Nav Sanranchna – New structures
D. Reorganize, Restructure Rejuvenate Indian Railways:’Nav Arjan, Nav Manak, Nav Sanranchna’
E. None of these

153. Name the proposed structure scheme announced in the Union Budget 2016-17 to help Panchayat Raj Institutions deliver Sustainable Development Goals.

A. Rashtriya Gram Abhiyan
B. Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
C. National Village Self-governance Scheme
D. Rashtriya Gram Swasashan Abhiyan
E. None of these

154. Dame Zaha Hadid, who died recently was a world-renowned __:

A. Architect
B. Painter
C. Playwright
D. Musician
E. None of these

155. Bedaquiline, a newly launched vaccine by the Health Ministry, is related to the treatment of which disease:

A. Zika Virus disease
B. Tuberculosis
C. Ebola virus disease
D. Swine flu
E. None of these

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