# SBI Clerk Mains Model Paper 1

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# SBI Clerk Mains Model Paper 1

### Introduction

SBI Clerk JA 2019 – Main Examination, conducted in online Mode, has: a duration of 2 hours 40 minutes, a total of 190 questions, a maximum score of 200 marks, and, consists of 4 sections, namely – General/Financial Awareness, General English, Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning & Computer Aptitude. The 4 sections are separately timed and the questions can be attempted in any order. There is a Negative marking in SBI Clerk JA Main exam and 0.25 marks are deducted for each wrong answer. Candidates must clear the cut-off in all the sectionsto qualify for final selection. SBI Clerk Mains Model Paper 1 gives an overview of the SBI Clerk Mains Exam.

### Pattern

S.No Sections No. of Questions Maximum marks Time allocated
1 General/Financial Awareness 50 50 35 minutes
2 General English 40 40 35 minutes
3 Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 45 minutes
4 Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude 50 60 45 minutes
Total 190 200 2 Hours 40 minutes

### Quiz

1. Along with which bank, the Common Services Centres (CSCs) launched a co-branded ‘Small Business Money-Back Credit Card’?

A. Axis Bank
B. ICICI Bank
C. SBI Bank
D. HDFC Bank

2. Who is the CEO of Kotak Mahindra Bank?

A. Uday Kotak
B. Ritesh Agarwal
C. Sriharsha Majesty
D. Ashish Hemrajani

3. For how many banks, RBI fined for violating certain regulatory guidelines?

A. 4
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8

4. Name the Bank which provides $100 million to L&T Finance arm for wind and solar infrastructure projects. A. AIIB B. Exim Bank C. UCO Bank D. Catholic Syrian Bank 5. Which bank has signed a loan agreement worth$124 million to finance infrastructure and health care projects in Papua New Guinea and Senegal governments?

A. World Bank
B. Exim Bank
C. Asian Development Bank
D. RBI

6. The World Bank Group announced its first female Managing Director on Friday – an Indian national. Her name is_____?

A. Anshula Kant
B. Gita Gopinath
C. Arundhati Bhattacharya
D. Shanti Ekambaram

7. This bank has announced to do away with charges on NEFT and RTGS transactions through internet and mobile banking from July 1.

A. Axis
B. HDFC
C. ICICI
D. SBI

8. Who has formed an internal committee to review timings of different financial markets?

A. Ministry of Finance
B. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. RBL Bank

9. This bank recently announced to pull out of global equities sales and trading to scale back investment banking.

A. HSBC India
B. Barclays Bank
C. Deutsche Bank
D. DBS Bank

10. Which bank has acquired a 9.47% stake of Eveready Industries India by invoking shares pledged by McLeod Russel?

A. ICICI Bank
B. Yes Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. AXIS Bank

11. Who was the captain of ICC world cup winning cricket team?

A. Ben Stokes
B. Kane Williamson
C. Eoin Morgan
D. Jason Roy

12. Who won the Wimbledon 2019 Final?

A. Andy Murray
B. Novak Djokovic
C. Roger Federer

13. Name the country which will host the ICC World Cup 2023?

A. India
B. NewZealand
C. Pakistan
D. Sri Lanka

14. Indian pair G. Sathiyan and Anthony Amalraj won __________ medal World Tour Platinum Australian Open.

A. Gold
B. Silver
C. Bronze
D. None of the Above

15. The ICC 2019 cricket world cup final will be played between which of these countries?

A. New Zealand-Australia
B. New Zealand-England
C. Australia-England
D. New Zealand-India

16. India have won __________ gold medals in Commonwealth Weightlifting Championships held in Apia, Samoa.

A. 4
B. 6
C. 3
D. 2

17. When was National Cricket Academy established?

A. 2002
B. 2000
C. 1998
D. 1990

18. Who is the 1st Indian player to reach the 350-game mark in ODI?

A. Sachin Tendulkar
B. Kapil Dev
C. Sourav Ganguly
D. Rahul Dravid

19. How many Sports Centre of Excellence willl be opened in Itanagar?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8

20. Which team won the 2019 FIFA Women’s World Cup?

A. USA
B. Russia
C. France
D. Brazil

21. Which movie has won Best Feature Film award at SAARC film festival?

A. Sita
B. Arjun Reddy
C. Nagar kirtan
D. Kabir singh

22. West bengal Governor releases Bengali version of __________.

A. The God of Small Think
B. Great Minds on India
C. The White tiger
D. Train to Pakistan

23. Which entity was awarded with World Economic Forum’s (WEF) ‘Technology Pioneers’ award 2019?

A. YASH Technologies
B. Quantela Inc
C. E Nut Technologies
D. Unify Technologies

24. Recently, which sportsman has been awarded the USA’s Presidential Medal of Freedom ?

A. Tiger woods
B. Roger Federer
C. Pele
D. Serena Williams

25. How many members had won Sahitya Akademi’s Yuva Puraskar, recently?

A. 22
B. 45
C. 23
D. 18

26. Name the organisation which has been awarded the BBC World Service Global Champion Award.

A. CharityWatch
B. Akshaya Patra
C. GiveIndia
D. GiveWell

27. How many Indian-origin kids won the National Spelling Bee Contest?

A. 8
B. 6
C. 10
D. 12

28. Which of the following network was conferred with the Swacchta Pakhwada Awards-2019?

A. All India Radio
B. AIR FM Gold
D. AIR FM Rainbow

29. How many Indian teams win the award in the 25th Annual Human Exploration Rover challenge 2019?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 6

30. The New York Times and The Wall Street Journal was honoured with this title for their separate investigations of President Donald Trump and his family.

A. Peabody Award
B. Gerald Loeb Award
C. Clio Awards
D. Pulitzer Prizes

31. Name the American scientist, the inventor of computer password passed away at 93 in Massachusetts, U.S.

A. Bob Kahn
B. Fernando Corbato
C. Donald Knuth
D. Fred Brooks

32. Name the former governor of Uttarakhand and Sikkim, who passed away recently.

A. Sudershan Agarwal
B. Vijayalakshmi Pandit
C. Braj Kumar Nehru
D. Lallan Prasad Singh

33. The founder of Working Women’s Forum (WWF) & Padma Shri awardee, who passed away recently is;

A. Dr. Jaya Arunachalam
B. Sonika Chauhan
C. Jiah Khan
D. Kuljeet Randhawa

34. Sahitya Akademi award winner Abburi Chaya Devi passes away on June 28, 2019. She belongs to the state of;

A. Kerala
B. Karanataka

35. An Eminent Social Activist, Jharna Dhara Chowdhury passed away recently. She belongs to the country of;

A. Sri Lanka
B. India
D. Nepal

36. Name the Former Bengal cricketer, who awarded with the Karthick Bose Lifetime Achievement Award was passed away recently.

A. Sudip Chatterjee
B. Koushik Ghosh
C. Shyam Sundar Mitra
D. Abhimanyu Easwaran

37. Legendary ‘Romeo and Juliet’ Director Franco Zeffirelli passed away recently. He belongs to which country?

A. Italy
B. Russia
C. Germany

38. Mohamed Morsi, the first democratically-elected President of this nation passed away recently.

A. Ethiopia
B. Libya
C. Egypt
D. Sudan

39. R V Janakiraman, who passed away recently, was the former Chief Minister of which state/UT?

B. Karnataka
C. Puducherry
D. Odisha

40. Noted comedian and actor, Crazy Mohan passed away recently. He belongs to which state?

C. Odisha
D. Kerala

1. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
HDFC Bank and Common Services Centres (CSCs) launched a co-branded ‘Small Business Money-Back Credit Card’. For small traders and village-level entrepreneurs (VLEs). The credit card is designed for VLEs and VLE-sourced customers. The users give easy access to credit for their day-to-day business expenses, according to a statement. The card launched by HDFC Bank MD Aditya Puri and CSC Chief Dinesh Kumar Tyagi. Around ₹70,000 crore worth of business is transacted through the network of CSCs which apart from providing a platform for essential government and public utility services.

2. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
It is responsible for driving and overseeing Kotak Mahindra Group’s growth charter. Uday Kotak, Founder and Managing Director & CEO of Kotak Mahindra Bank, has led the group in a broad range of financial services for over 30 years.

3. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed fine on State Bank of India (SBI) and Union Bank of India for violating certain regulatory guidelines. RBI fined Rs.7 crore as SBI did not comply with the directions issued by the RBI on Income Recognition and Asset Classification (IRAC) norms, code of conduct for opening and operating current accounts and reporting of data on Central Repository of Information on Large Credits (CRILC), and fraud risk management and classification and reporting of frauds. RBI also fined Rs.10 lakh on Union Bank for non-compliance with the directions on the cybersecurity framework in banks issued by the RBI. The RBI accused Union Bank of India that it failed to carry out the cybersecurity framework in 2016. RBI’s examination revealed reports of generation of seven fraudulent messages worth $171 million through the SWIFT system of the bank. 4. Answer: Option A Explanation: The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) will give$100-million loan to L&T(Larsen & Toubro) Infrastructure Finance Company(LTIF) for wind and solar infrastructure projects. This is the first time AIIB provide loan to a non-banking finance company(NBFC). LTIF, a subsidiary of L&T Finance Holdings collaboration with AIIB help the company explore in the international market for green finance. The project will help in increasing the supply of renewable energy in India& also helps to reduce the carbon intensity by 30-35 percent of the 2005 levels by 2030 which was India’s commitment under Paris agreement. India has set a target to install 175 Gigawatt (GW) of renewable energy capacity by 2022, of which a total of 80.04 GW of renewable energy capacity has been installed in the country till May 2019.

5. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) has signed a loan agreement of providing $124 million (over Rs 850 crore) to Papua New Guinea and Senegal governments to finance infrastructure and health care projects.Exim bank has extended Line of Credit(LoC) of USD 100 million to the Government of Independent State of Papua New Guinea for the purpose of financing infrastructure related projects($60 million is to go for Bayer-Madang road project and $40 million for Hoskins-Kimbe road project).Exim Bank has also extended Line of Credit of$24.50 million to the Government of the Republic of Senegal for the purpose of financing up-gradation and rehabilitation of Health Care System.

6. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Anshula Kant, an MD at the State Bank of India and formerly CFO of SBI, was appointed MD and CFO of the World Bank Group

7. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
State Bank of India recently announced to do away with charges on NEFT and RTGS transactions through internet and mobile banking from July 1. The move came after the RBI decided announced the same decision to boost digital payments.

8. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has formed an internal committee to review timings of different financial markets. It change the timing of the functioning of the foreign exchange market from 9 am to 9 pm. Currently, the currency market works from 9 am to 5 pm. The move is after RBI’s consideration to gauge demand and potential benefits. RBI also said that if there is lack of demand from participants, the current market timings for government security markets may be retained. The move is after RBI’s consideration to gauge demand and potential benefits. This extension of market timings is expected to provide various benefits like better pricing of post market hours information/data, improved onshore price discovery and a possible shift of offshore volumes to onshore. It is also understood that the extension might entail higher costs to stakeholders.

9. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
German bank, Deutsche Bank announced to pull out of global equities sales and trading with an aim to scale back investment banking. The decision is expected to cut off 18,000 jobs for a globally of around 74,000 employees by 2022.

10. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Mumbai based Private sector lender, YES Bank has acquired a 9.47% stake in dry cell battery maker, Eveready Industries India by invoking shares pledged by McLeod Russel.The acquisition comes after the Indian tea company, McLeod Russel defaulted on repayment of credit facilities extended by the Yes bank. McLeod’s debt is about Rs.1,800 – 2,000 crore.The bank acquired 68,80,149 equity shares having a nominal value of Rs 5 per share constituting 9.47% of the post-issue paid-up share capital.

11. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Eoin Joseph Gerard Morgan is an Irish-born cricketer who captains the England cricket team in limited overs cricket.

12. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
World No. 1 Novak Djokovic captured his fifth crown at The Championships, Wimbledon, on Sunday with a thrilling victory over second seed Roger Federer, the eight-time former titlist from Switzerland.

13. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
India will be hosting the 13th edition of the men’s Cricket World Cup. This will be the first time that the cricket tournament will be solely hosted by India.

14. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
In Table Tennis, Indian pair G. Sathiyan and Anthony Amalraj won the bronze at the World Tour Platinum Australian Open. They defeat Korean pair of Jeoung Youngsik and Lee Sangsu.

15. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The ICC 2019 cricket world cup final will be played between New Zealand and England.

16. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
India have won 4 gold medals in Commonwealth Weightlifting Championships held in Apia, Samoa. Men (Elite and junior): Achinta Sheuli has won 2 gold medals in 73kg event. Junior: Gulam Navi has won gold medal in 67kg event. Junior and youth: L. Sadananda Singh has won Bronze & Gold medals in 73kg event. Women (Elite): Manpreet Kaur has won silver medal in 76kg event. Junior: R. Arockiya Alish has won silver medal in 76kg event.

17. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Academy was established in 2000 is a cricket facility of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) for training young cricketers who are identified as having the potential to represent the Indian cricket team.

18. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Sachin is the only player to cross the mark of playing 400 oneday internationals.

19. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Youth Affairs and Sports minister, Kiren Rijiju has informed that central government is going to set-up three Sports Centre of Excellence in Itanagar. The three centre of excellence will be for Martial Arts, Weight Lifting and Boxing. The government will also set up 12 to 15 football stadiums in the next 3 years.

20. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The United States claimed a record-extending fourth women’s World Cup with a 2-0 win over European champions the Netherlands.

21. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Director Kaushik Ganguly’s Bengali outing Nagarkirtan, has won big at prestigious 2019’s SAARC.

22. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The Bengali translation of “Great Minds on India” authored by Salil Gewali was launched by the Governor of West Bengal, Keshari Nath Tripathi, at the Raj Bhavan, Kolkata, on July 7 2019.

23. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Quantela Inc, a Hyderabad and Silicon Valley-headquartered digital technology company, was awarded World Economic Forum’s (WEF) ‘Technology Pioneers’ award 2019. It was selected by a selection committee of more than 59 academics, entrepreneurs, venture capitalists, and corporate executives.Quantela: It is a new age digital technology solutions company focused on IoT(Internet of Things). It provides a comprehensive, customizable, scalable platform, “Atlantis” that helps cities to proactively predict and solve social, economic and environmental problems.Technologies: This year technology pioneers emerged from a diverse set of industries focusing on AI(Artificial Intelligence), IoT, robotics, blockchain, etc.

24. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
US President Donald Trump awarded golfer Tiger Woods the US’s Presidential Medal of Freedom, the country’s highest civilian honour. The award described the 43-year-old as a true legend who transformed golf and then fought through years of injury to return to the sport’s summit.

25. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The Sahitya Akademi announced name of 22 winners for Bal Sahitya Puraskar and 23 winners for Yuva Puraskar. The winners of both the awards will receive a casket containing an engraved copper plaque and a cheque of Rs 50,000. Eleven books of poetry, including works by Anuj Lugun (Hindi), Sagar Nazir (Kashmiri), Anuja Akathoottu (Malayalam); six of short stories by authors, including Tanuj Solanki (English), Ajay Soni (Gujarati), Keerti Parihar (Rajasthani); five novels by Moumita (Bengali), and Salman Abdus Samad (Urdu) among others won the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2019.

26. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Akshaya Patra, a non-profit organisation, has been awarded the BBC World Service Global Champion Award. It runs one of the world’s largest school meals project in India.

27. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
For the first time in 92 years, 6 Indian-origin kids were among the 8 who won the 92nd Scripps National Spelling Bee Contest. They were awarded the cash of \$50,000 and prizes. The competition, broadcasted in ESPN, was held at Gaylord National Resort in National Harbor, Maryland, US. Erin Howard aged 14 of Alabama, Rishik Gandhasri aged 13 of California, Saketh Sundar aged 13 of Maryland, Shruthika Padhy aged 13 of New Jersey, Sohum Sukhatankar aged 13 of Texas, Abhijay Kodali aged 12 of Texas, Christopher Serrao aged 13 of New Jersey and Rohan Raja aged 13 of Texas were the winners of the competition. There were 565 contestants aged between 7 and 14 who have not passed 8th grade from US, Canada, Ghana, Jamaica, Japan, Bahamas, Germany, South Korea and other countries.

28. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
All India Radio and the Publication Division and Children’s Film Society of India were awarded with the Swacchta Pakhwada Awards-2019. Director General of All India Radio, F. Sheheryar and Director General (News), Ira Joshi received the Award for All India Radio.

29. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
NASA has awarded three teams of Indian students in its 25th Annual Human Exploration Rover challenge 2019 at the US Space and Rocket Centre in Huntsville, Alabama.The program invites college students and high school students to develop and test roving vehicles for future missions to the Mars,Moon and beyond. “AIAA Neil Armstrong Best Design Award” won by team from KIET Group of Institutions in Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh. Team from Lovely Professional University in Phagwara, Punjab, received “STEM Engagement Award”. The Mukesh Patel School of Technology Management and Engineering, Mumbai, Maharashtra, received the “Frank Joe Sexton Memorial Pit Crew Award” and also won the System Safety Challenge Award at the competition hosted by NASA’s Marshall Space Flight Center.

30. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The New York Times and The Wall Street Journal were awarded Pulitzer Prizes for their separate investigations of President Donald Trump and his family. The Times won the prestigious journalism award for a probe of the Trump family’s finances that debunked his claims of self-made wealth and revealed a business empire riddled with tax dodges. The Journal won for its coverage of Trump’s secret hush money payments to two women during his 2016 presidential campaign who claimed to have had affairs with him. The Associated Press won a Pulitzer for international reporting for its coverage of the war in Yemen. Reuters was honoured for international reporting for its coverage of atrocities committed against Rohingya Muslims in Myanmar.

31. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Prominent American computer scientist, credited with inventing the computer password, Fernando J. Corbato passed away at Newburyport in Massachusetts, U.S as a result of complications caused by diabetes. He was 93. He was a professor emeritus at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) and he credited for devising the concept of password-protected user accounts to secure access to files on a large computer system. In 1990, he received the A. M. Turing Award, widely considered the computing field’s equivalent of the Nobel Prize. He is also a pioneer in the development of time-sharing operating systems known as MIT Compatible Time-Sharing System.

32. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Former Uttarakhand Governor Sudershan Agarwal passed away in New Delhi at the age of 88. He was born in Ludhiana, Punjab. He served as the second Governor of Uttarakhand between 2003 and 2007 during which he also established a Him Jyoti School in the Sahastradhara.He was appointed as Governor of Sikkim in 2007.He had also been the Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha from 1981 to 1993.He served as a Member of the National Human Rights Commission for three years.

33. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Working Women’s Forum (WWF) founder Dr. Jaya Arunachalam, aged 87, passed away in Chennai, Tamil Nadu after a brief illness. She hailed from Tamil Nadu. She was the president of the National Union of Working Women, in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh, Vice President of Tamil Nadu Congress Committee (TNCC) and member of the All India Congress Committee. She was the first South Asian woman member to be elected to the Governing Council of the Society for International Development, Rome. She was also a member of the Inter-ministerial Conference on Women and Children to the Philippines in the year 1994.

34. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Telugu story writer and the Sahitya Akademi award winner Abburi Chaya Devi passes away. Some of her popular stories are Bonsai Bathuku, Prayanam Sukhantam, Akhariki Aidu Nakshatralu, and Wood Rose.

35. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Jharna Dhara Chowdhury, an Eminent Social Activist and secretary of the Gandhi Ashram Trust in Jayag, Noakhali, Bangladesh passes away in Dhaka. She devoted her whole life to promoting peace, communal harmony and social justice. In recognition of her work, she was honored with Padma Shri in 2013. She was awarded Jamnalal Bajaj award in 1998.

36. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Former Bengal cricketer Shyam Sundar Mitra passes away. He was awarded the Karthick Bose Lifetime Achievement Award by Cricket Association of Bengal. Mitra, who captained Bengal in the Ranji Trophy, was an elegant right hand batsman and a part-time medium pacer.

37. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The Italian legend director and two-time Oscar-nominee, Franco Zeffirelli passed away in Rome, Italy at the age of 96. Born in Florence, Italy in 1923, he was best known for his film career. He earned his big hit with 1968 film of ‘Romeo and Juliet’ in which he famously cast then-teenagers Leonard Whiting & Olivia Hussey. The film has earned four Oscar nominations including Best Director and Best Picture but won Oscars for its costume design and cinematography.

38. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Egypt’s first democratically-elected President Mohamed Morsi was buried on June 18, 2019 amid heavy security in Cairo, a day after his collapse and death during a court session. Rights groups have called for an independent and transparent probe into the detention conditions and death of the former leader.

39. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
R V Janakiraman (79), the former Puducherry Chief Minister and senior Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) leader, has passed away in Puducherry on 10th June 2019. He began his career as a taxi driver and later went on to become a fleet operator before foraying into politics. He was the Chief Minister between 1996 and 2000, heading the coalition government of DMK and the Tamil Maanila Congress. Mr. Janakiraman became the Chief Minister in 1996 and represented the Nellithope Assembly constituency for five consecutive times.

40. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Tamil writer, comedian and actor, Crazy Mohan,who was also an Kalaimamani awardee, was known for his witty one-liners passed away in Chennai. Crazy Mohan’s first film was K Balachander’s Poikkal Kudhirai for which he wrote the dialogues.

Sentence Correction:

1. The small child does whatever his father was done.

A. has done
B. did
C. does
E. No correction required

2. You need not come unless you want to.

A. You don’t need to come unless you want to
B. You come only when you want to
C. You come unless you don’t want to
D. You needn’t come until you don’t want to
E. No correction required

3. There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by their short names only

A. initials
B. signatures
C. pictures
D. middle names
E. No correction required

4. The man to who I sold my house was a cheat.

A. to whom I sell
B. to who I sell
C. who was sold to
D. to whom I sold
E. No correction required

5. They were all shocked at his failure in the competition.

A. were shocked at all
B. had all shocked at
C. had all shocked by
D. had been all shocked on
E. No correction required

6. I need not offer any explanation regarding this incident – my behaviour is speaking itself.

A. will speak to itself
B. speaks for itself
C. has been speaking
D. speaks about itself
E. No correction required

7. He is too important for tolerating any delay.

A. to tolerate
B. to tolerating
C. at tolerating
D. with tolerating
E. No correction required

8. The population of Tokyo is greater than that of any other town in the world.

A. greatest among any other
B. greater than all other
C. greater than those of any other
D. greater than any other
E. No correction required

9. The performance of our players was rather worst than I had expected.

B. worse than I had expected
C. worse than expectation
D. worst than was expected
E. No correction required

10. Why did you not threw the bag away?

A. did you not throw
B. had you not threw
C. did you not thrown
D. you did not thrown
E. No correction required

Spell Checks:

11. Find the correctly spelt word

A. Efficient
B. Treatmeant
C. Beterment
D. Employd

12. Find the correctly spelt word

A. Foreign
B. Foreine
C. Fariegn
D. Forein

13. Find the correctly spelt word

A. Ommineous
B. Omineous
C. Ominous
D. Omenous

14. Find the correctly spelt word

A. Pessenger
B. Passenger
C. Pasanger
D. Pesanger

15. Find the correctly spelt word

A. Benefitted
B. Benifited
C. Benefited
D. Benefeted

16. Find the correctly spelt word

A. Treachrous
B. Trecherous
C. Trechearous
D. Treacherous

17. Find the correctly spelt word

A. Forcast
B. Forecaste
C. Forcaust
D. Forecast

18. Find the correctly spelt word

A. Rigerous
B. Rigourous
C. Regerous
D. Rigorous

19. Find the correctly spelt word

A. Palete
B. Palet
C. Palate
D. Pelate

20. Find the correctly spelt word

A. Bouquete
B. Bouquette
C. Bouquet
D. Boqquet

Direction to solve: (21 to 25)

Comprehension:

At this stage of civilisation, when many nations are brought in to close and vital contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another’s historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do, to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character.

21. According to the author of ‘Mentality’ of a nation is mainly product of its

A. history
B. international position
C. politics
D. present character

22. The need for a greater understanding between nations

A. was always there
B. is no longer there
C. is more today than ever before
D. will always be there

23. The character of a nation is the result of its

A. mentality
B. cultural heritage
C. gross ignorance
D. socio-political conditions

24. According to the author his countrymen should

A. read the story of other nations
B. have a better understanding of other nations
C. not react to other actions
D. have vital contacts with other nations

25. Englishmen like others to react to political situations like

A. us
B. themselves
C. others
D. each others

Direction to solve: (26 to 30)

What needs to be set right is our approach to work. It is a common sight in our country of employees reporting for duty on time and at the same time doing little work. If an assessment is made of time they spent in gossiping, drinking tea, eating “pan” and smoking cigarettes, it will be shocking to know that the time devoted to actual work is negligible. The problem is the standard which the leadership in administration sets for the staff. Forgot the ministers because they mix politics and administration. What do top bureaucrats do? What do the below down officials do? The administration set up remains week mainly because the employees do not have the right example to follow and they are more concerned about being in the good books of the bosses than doing work.

26. The employees in our country

A. are quite punctual but not duty conscious
B. are not punctual, but somehow manage to complete their work
C. are somewhat lazy but good natured
D. are not very highly qualified

27. According to the writer, the administration in India

A. is by and large effective
B. is very strict and firm
C. is affected by red tape
D. is more or less ineffective

28. The word ‘assessment’ means

A. enquiry
B. report
C. evaluation
D. summary

A. sets a fine example to the employees
B. is of a reasonably high standard
C. is composed of idealists
D. is of a very poor standard

30. The central idea of passage could be best expressed by the following

A. The employee outlook towards work is justified
B. The employee must change their outlook towards work
C. The employees would never change their work culture
D. The employer-employee relationship is far from healthy

Direction to solve: (31 to 35)

Synonyms:

31. CORPULENT

A. Lean
B. Gaunt
C. Emaciated
D. Obese

32. BRIEF

A. Limited
B. Small
C. Little
D. Short

33. EMBEZZLE

A. Misappropriate
B. Balance
C. Remunerate
D. Clear

34. VENT

A. Opening
B. Stodge
C. End
D. Past tense of go

35. AUGUST

A. Common
B. Ridiculous
C. Dignified
D. Petty

Direction to solve: (36 to 40)

Antonyms:

36. ARROGANT

A. Humble
B. Cowardly
C. Egotistic
D. Gentlemanly

37. VICTORIOUS

A. Defeated
B. Annexed
C. Destroyed
D. Vanquished

38. GRACEFUL

A. Rough
B. Expert
C. Miserable
D. Awkward

A. Modernity
B. Zenith
C. Liberty
D. Progress

40. EXTRAVAGANCE

A. Luxury
B. Poverty
C. Economical
D. Cheapness

1. Answer: Option C

2. Answer: Option A

3. Answer: Option A

4. Answer: Option D

5. Answer: Option E

6. Answer: Option B

7. Answer: Option A

8. Answer: Option E

9. Answer: Option B

10. Answer: Option A

11. Answer: Option A

12. Answer: Option A

13. Answer: Option C

14. Answer: Option B

15. Answer: Option C

16. Answer: Option D

17. Answer: Option D

18. Answer: Option D

19. Answer: Option C

20. Answer: Option C

21. Answer: Option A

22. Answer: Option C

23. Answer: Option D

24. Answer: Option B

25. Answer: Option B

26. Answer: Option A

27. Answer: Option D

28. Answer: Option C

29. Answer: Option D

30. Answer: Option B

31. Answer: Option D

32 Answer: Option D

33. Answer: Option A

34. Answer: Option A

35. Answer: Option C

36. Answer: Option A

37. Answer: Option A

38. Answer: Option D

39. Answer: Option B

40. Answer: Option C

1. A man has Rs.480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes that he has ?

A. 45
B. 60
C. 75
D. 90

2. There are two examinations rooms A and B. If 10 students are sent from A to B, then the number of students in each room is the same. If 20 candidates are sent from B to A, then the number of students in A is double the number of students in B. The number of students in room A is:

A. 20
B. 80
C. 100
D. 200

3. The price of 10 chairs is equal to that of 4 tables. The price of 15 chairs and 2 tables together is Rs. 4000. The total price of 12 chairs and 3 tables is:

A. Rs. 3500
B. Rs. 3750
C. Rs. 3840
D. Rs. 3900

4. In a regular week, there are 5 working days and for each day, the working hours are 8. A man gets Rs. 2.40 per hour for regular work and Rs. 3.20 per hours for overtime. If he earns Rs. 432 in 4 weeks, then how many hours does he work for ?

A. 160
B. 175
C. 180
D. 195

5. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, … What number should come next?

A. 7
B. 10
C. 12
D. 13

6. Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, … What number should come next?

A. 20
B. 22
C. 23
D. 26

7. Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, … What number should come next?

A. 22
B. 24
C. 25
D. 26

8. Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, … What number should come next?

A. 12
B. 14
C. 27
D. 53

9. Find the roots of the quadratic equation: $$x^{2}$$ + 2x – 15 = 0?

A. -5, 3
B. 3, 5
C. -3, 5
D. -3, -5
E. 5, 2

10. Find the roots of the quadratic equation: 2$$x^{2}$$ + 3x – 9 = 0?

A. 3, –$$\frac{3}{2}$$
B. $$\frac{3}{2}$$, -3
C. –$$\frac{3}{2}$$, -3
D. $$\frac{3}{2}$$, 3
E. $$\frac{2}{3}$$, -3

11. The roots of the equation 3$$x^{2}$$ – 12x + 10 = 0 are?

A. rational and unequal
B. complex
C. real and equal
D. irrational and unequal
E. rational and equal

12. If the roots of a quadratic equation are 20 and -7, then find the equation?

A. $$x^{2}$$ + 13x – 140 = 0
B. $$x^{2}$$ – 13x + 140 = 0
C. $$x^{2}$$ – 13x – 140 = 0
D. $$x^{2}$$ + 13x + 140 = 0
E. None of these

13. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?

A. 3.6
B. 7.2
C. 8.4
D. 10

14. An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours. To cover the same distance in 1 hours, it must travel at a speed of:

A. 300 kmph
B. 360 kmph
C. 600 kmph
D. 720 kmph

15. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is:

A. 50 km
B. 56 km
C. 70 km
D. 80 km

16. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

A. 9
B. 10
C. 12
D. 20

17. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3 : 2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A’s share is Rs. 855, the total profit is:

A. Rs. 1425
B. Rs. 1500
C. Rs. 1537.50
D. Rs. 1576

18. A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that A would invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and C, Rs. 10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit.

A. Rs. 1900
B. Rs. 2660
C. Rs. 2800
D. Rs. 2840

19. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and B Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives:

A. Rs. 8400
B. Rs. 11,900
C. Rs. 13,600
D. Rs. 14,700

20. A and B started a partnership business investing some amount in the ratio of 3 : 5. C joined then after six months with an amount equal to that of B. In what proportion should the profit at the end of one year be distributed among A, B and C?

A. 3 : 5 : 2
B. 3 : 5 : 5
C. 6 : 10 : 5

21. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:

A. 15
B. 16
C. 18
D. 25

22. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent.

A. 66$$\frac{2}{3}$$
B. 100
C. 105$$\frac{1}{3}$$
D. 120

23. In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit?

A. 30%
B. 70%
C. 100%
D. 250%

24. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

25. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on a sum for 2 years at 8%, when the interest is compounded annually Rs.16. If the interest was compounded half-yearly, the difference in two interests would be nearly :

A. Rs.16
B. Rs.16.80
C. Rs.21.85
D. Rs.24.64
E. Rs. 25

26. The difference in C.I and S.I for 2 years on a sum of money is Rs.160. If the S.I for 2 years be Rs.2880, the rate percent is :

A. $$\frac{105}{9}$$%
B. $$\frac{100}{8}$$%
C. $$\frac{100}{9}$$%
D. 9%
E. 10%

27. A loan was repaid in two annual instalments of Rs.112 each. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum compounded annually, the sum borrowed was :

A. Rs.200
B. Rs.210
C. Rs.217.80
D. Rs.280
E. Rs. 290

28. The effective annual rate of interest corresponding to a nominal rate of 6% per annum payable half-yearly is:

A. 6.06%
B. 6.07%
C. 6.08%
D. 6.09%

29. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:

A. Rs. 650
B. Rs. 690
C. Rs. 698
D. Rs. 700

30. A sum fetched a total simple interest of Rs. 4016.25 at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a. in 5 years. What is the sum?

A. Rs. 4462.50
B. Rs. 8032.50
C. Rs. 8900
D. Rs. 8925
E. None of these

31. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of simple interest?

A. 3.5 years
B. 4 years
C. 4.5 years
D. 5 years

32. Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?

A. 3.6
B. 6
C. 18
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

33. A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts syrup. How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water and half syrup?

A. $$\frac{1}{3}$$
B. $$\frac{1}{4}$$
C. $$\frac{1}{5}$$
D. $$\frac{1}{7}$$

34. A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now contained by the container?

A. 26.34 litres
B. 27.36 litres
C. 28 litres
D. 29.16 litres

35. A shopkeeper deals in milk and 45 litre mixture is to be distributed in Milk & Water in the ratio of 4 : 1. If 4 litre milk & 3 litre water will be added in the mixture then what will be the new ratio of water and milk?

A. 5 : 6
B. 3 : 10
C. 4 : 5
D. 7 : 8
E. 10 : 3

36. 48 litre of Glycerin is mixed with 144 litre Rose water. D litre of total mixture is taken out and 32 litre Glycerin and 48 litre Rose water are added in the mixture. The final mixture contains 30% Glycerin, find the quantity of the mixture that is taken out.

A. 24 litre
B. 32 litre
C. 40 litre
D. 20 litre
E. None of these

37. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs. 1000 more than D, what is B’s share?

A. Rs. 500
B. Rs. 1500
C. Rs. 2000
D. None of these

38. If 0.75 : x :: 5 : 8, then x is equal to:

A. 1.12
B. 1.2
C. 1.25
D. 1.30

39. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?

A. Rs. 4991
B. Rs. 5991
C. Rs. 6001
D. Rs. 6991

40. The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than zero?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 19

1. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Let number of notes of each denomination be x.
Then x + 5x + 10x = 480
16x = 480
x = 30.
Hence, total number of notes = 3x = 90.

2. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Let the number of students in rooms A and B be x and y respectively.
Then, x – 10 = y + 10
x – y = 20 …. (i)
and x + 20 = 2(y – 20)
x – 2y = -60 …. (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) we get: x = 100 , y = 80.
The required answer A = 100.

3. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Let the cost of a chair and that of a table be Rs. x and Rs. y respectively.
Then, 10x = 4y or y = $$\frac{5}{2}$$x
15x + 2y = 4000
15x + 2 x $$\frac{5}{2}$$x= 4000
20x = 4000
x = 200.
So, y =($$\frac{5}{2}$$x 200)= 500.
Hence, the cost of 12 chairs and 3 tables = 12x + 3y
= Rs. (2400 + 1500)
= Rs. 3900.

4. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Suppose the man works overtime for x hours.
Now, working hours in 4 weeks = (5 x 8 x 4) = 160.
160 x 2.40 + x x 3.20 = 432
3.20x = 432 – 384 = 48
x = 15.
Hence, total hours of work = (160 + 15) = 175.

5. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
This is a simple alternating addition and subtraction series. In the first pattern, 3 is added; in the second, 2 is subtracted.

6. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
This is an alternating number subtraction series. First, 2 is subtracted, then 4, then 2, and so on.

7. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
In this simple alternating subtraction and addition series; 1 is subtracted, then 2 is added, and so on.

8. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
In this series, each number is repeated, then 13 is subtracted to arrive at the next number.

9. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
$$x^{2}$$ + 5x – 3x – 15 = 0
x(x + 5) – 3(x + 5) = 0
(x – 3)(x + 5) = 0
=> x = 3 or x = -5.

10. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
2$$x^{2}$$ + 6x – 3x – 9 = 0
2x(x + 3) – 3(x + 3) = 0
(x + 3)(2x – 3) = 0
=> x = -3 or x = $$\frac{3}{2}$$.

11. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The discriminant of the quadratic equation is $$(-12)^{2}$$ – 4(3)(10) i.e., 24. As this is positive but not a perfect square, the roots are irrational and unequal.

12. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Any quadratic equation is of the form
$$x^{2}$$ – (sum of the roots)x + (product of the roots) = 0 —- (1)
where x is a real variable. As sum of the roots is 13 and product of the roots is -140, the quadratic equation with roots as 20 and -7 is: $$x^{2}$$ – 13x – 140 = 0.

13. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Speed = ($$\frac{600}{5 * 60}$$)m/sec.
= 2 m/sec.
Converting m/sec to km/hr
=(2 * $$\frac{18}{5}$$)
= 7.2 km/hr.

14. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Distance = (240 x 5) = 1200 km.
Speed = $$\frac{Distance}{Time}$$
Speed = (1200*$$\frac{5}{3}$$) km/hr.

15. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Let the actual distance travelled be x km.
Then,$$\frac{x}{10}$$= $$\frac{x + 20}{14}$$
14x = 10x + 200
4x = 200
x = 50 km.

16. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Due to stoppages, it covers 9 km less.
Time taken to cover 9 km =($$\frac{9}{54}$$ * 60)min = 10 min

17. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Let the total profit be Rs. 100.
After paying to charity, A’s share = Rs.(95 * $$\frac{3}{5}$$)= Rs. 57
If A’s share is Rs. 57, total profit = Rs. 100.
If A’s share Rs. 855, total profit =($$\frac{100}{57}$$ * 885)= 1500.

18. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
For managing, A received = 5% of Rs. 7400 = Rs. 370.
Balance = Rs. (7400 – 370) = Rs. 7030.
Ratio of their investments = (6500 x 6) : (8400 x 5) : (10000 x 3)
= 39000 : 42000 : 30000
= 13 : 14 : 10
B’s share = Rs.(7030 * $$\frac{14}{37}$$)= Rs. 2660.

19. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Let C = x.
Then, B = x + 5000 and A = x + 5000 + 4000 = x + 9000.
So, x + x + 5000 + x + 9000 = 50000
3x = 36000
x = 12000
A : B : C = 21000 : 17000 : 12000 = 21 : 17 : 12.
A’s share = Rs.(35000 x $$\frac{21}{50}$$)= Rs. 14,700.

20. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Let the initial investments of A and B be 3x and 5x.
A : B : C = (3x * 12) : (5x * 12) : (5x * 6) = 36 : 60 : 30 = 6 : 10 : 5.

21. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Let C.P. of each article be Re. 1 C.P. of x articles = Rs. x.
S.P. of x articles = Rs. 20.
Profit = Rs. (20 – x).
($$\frac{20 – x}{x}$$ * 100 = 25)
2000 – 100x = 25x
125x = 2000
x = 16.

22. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Let C.P. be Rs. x and S.P. be Rs. y.
Then, 3(y – x) = (2y – x)
y = 2x.
Profit = Rs. (y – x) = Rs. (2x – x) = Rs. x.
Profit % = ($$\frac{x}{x}$$ * 100)= 100%

23. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Let C.P.= Rs. 100. Then, Profit = Rs. 320, S.P. = Rs. 420.
New C.P. = 125% of Rs. 100 = Rs. 125
New S.P. = Rs. 420.
Profit = Rs. (420 – 125) = Rs. 295.
Required percentage =($$\frac{295}{420}$$ * 100)%= $$\frac{1475}{21}$$% = 70% (approximately)

24. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
C.P. of 6 toffees = Re. 1
S.P. of 6 toffees = 120% of Re. 1 = Rs.$$\frac{6}{5}$$
For Rs.$$\frac{6}{5}$$, toffees sold = 6.
For Re. 1, toffees sold =(6*$$\frac{5}{6}$$)= 5.

25. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
For Ist year, S.I = C.I
Thus, Rs.16 is the S.I on S.I for 1 year, which at 8% is thus Rs.200
i.e.S.I on the principal for 1 year is Rs.200
Principal = Rs. (100×2008×1)=Rs.2500
Amount for 2 years, compounded half-yearly
=Rs.[2500×(1+4100)4]=Rs.2924.64
C.I = Rs.424.64
Also, S.I = Rs.(2500×8×2100)=Rs.400
Hence, [(C.I)-(S.I)] = Rs. (424.64-400)=Rs.24.64

26. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
S.I for 1 year = Rs.1440
S.I on Rs.1440 for 1 year = Rs.160
Hence, rate percent = 160*$$\frac{100}{1440}$$

27. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Principal = (Present value of Rs.121 due 1 year hence ) + (Present value of Rs.121 due 2 years )
= Rs. 121(1+$$\frac{10}{100}$$)+121(1+$$\frac{10}{100}$$)2 =Rs.210

28. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Amount of Rs. 100 for 1 year when compounded half-yearly= Rs.[100 * (1 + $$\frac{3}{100})^{2}$$]= Rs. 106.09
Effective rate = (106.09 – 100)% = 6.09%

29. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
S.I. for 1 year = Rs. (854 – 815) = Rs. 39.
S.I. for 3 years = Rs.(39 x 3) = Rs. 117.
Principal = Rs. (815 – 117) = Rs. 698.

30. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Principal= Rs.$$\frac{100 x 4016.25}{9*5}$$
= Rs.$$\frac{401625}{45}$$
= Rs. 8925.

31. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Time = $$\frac{100 x 81}{450 x 4.5}$$years = 4 years

32. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Let rate = R% and time = R years.
Then, $$\frac{1200 * R * R}{100}$$= 432
12R2 = 432
R2 = 36
R = 6.

33. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Suppose the vessel initially contains 8 litres of liquid.
Let x litres of this liquid be replaced with water.
Quantity of water in new mixture =(3-$$\frac{3x}{8}$$+x)litres
Quantity of syrup in new mixture =(5-$$\frac{5x}{8}$$+x)litres
(3-$$\frac{3x}{8}$$+x) = (5-$$\frac{5x}{8}$$+x)
5x + 24 = 40 – 5x
10x = 16
x =$$\frac{8}{5}$$ .
So, part of the mixture replaced =($$\frac{8}{5}$$ * $$\frac{1}{8}$$)= $$\frac{1}{5}$$

34. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Amount of milk left after 3 operations =[40(1-$$\frac{4}{40})^{3}$$]litres
= (40 * $$\frac{9}{10}$$*$$\frac{9}{10}$$*$$\frac{9}{10}$$)= 29.16 litres

35. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
In the mixture of 45 litre,
Milk =$$\frac{45}{5}$$*4 = 36 litre, Water =$$\frac{45}{5}$$*× 1 = 9 litre
New ratio,= 9 + 3 : 36 + 4
= 12 : 40 = 3 : 10

36. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Total mixture = 48 + 144 = 192 litre
% of Glycerin = $$\frac{48}{192}$$ × 100 = 25% = % of Rose water = 75%
In the final mixture glycerin= 30%, Rose water = 70%
Ratio = 30 : 70 = 3 : 7
(48 – D × 25% + 32) : (144 – D × 75% + 48) = 3 : 7
7 (48 – D × 25% + 32) = 3 (144 – D × 75% + 48)
7 (80 – 0.25 D) = 3 (192 – 0.75 D)
560 – 1.75 D = 576 – 2.25 D
2.25 D – 1.75 D = 576 – 560
0.5 D = 16
D = 32 litre

37. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Let the shares of A, B, C and D be Rs. 5x, Rs. 2x, Rs. 4x and Rs. 3x respectively.
Then, 4x – 3x = 1000
x = 1000.
B’s share = Rs. 2x = Rs. (2 x 1000) = Rs. 2000.

38. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
(x * 5) = (0.75 * 8)
x =$$\frac{6}{5}$$= 1.20

39. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Total sale for 5 months = Rs. (6435 + 6927 + 6855 + 7230 + 6562) = Rs. 34009.
Required sale = Rs. [ (6500 x 6) – 34009 ]
= Rs. (39000 – 34009)
= Rs. 4991.

40. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Average of 20 numbers = 0.
Sum of 20 numbers (0 x 20) = 0.
It is quite possible that 19 of these numbers may be positive and if their sum is a then 20th number is (-a).

1. In a file contains the line “I am a boy\r\n” then on reading this line into the array str using fgets(). What will str contain?

A. “I am a boy\r\n\0”
B. “I am a boy\r\0”
C. “I am a boy\n\0”
D. “I am a boy”

2. What is the purpose of “rb” in fopen() function used below in the code?
FILE *fp;
fp = fopen(“source.txt”, “rb”);

A. open “source.txt” in binary mode for reading
B. open “source.txt” in binary mode for reading and writing
C. Create a new file “source.txt” for reading and writing
D. None of above

3. What does fp point to in the program ?
#include

int main()
{
FILE *fp;
fp=fopen(“trial”, “r”);
return 0;
}

A. The first character in the file
B. A structure which contains a char pointer which points to the first character of a file.
C. The name of the file.
D. The last character in the file

4. Which of the following operations can be performed on the file “NOTES.TXT” using the below code?
FILE *fp;
fp = fopen(“NOTES.TXT”, “r+”);

B. Writing
C. Appending
D. Read and Write

5. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, “He is the son of the only son of my mother.” How is Suresh related to that boy?

A. Brother
B. Uncle
C. Cousin
D. Father

6. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A – B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?

A. Q – N + M x P
B. P + S x N – Q
C. P – M + N x Q
D. Q – S % P

7. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?

A. Brother
B. Sister
C. Nephew
D. Cannot be determined

8. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A – B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?

A. M – N x C + F
B. F – C + N x M
C. N + M – F x C
D. M x N – C + F

9. Introducing a boy, a girl said, “He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle.” How is the boy related to the girl?

A. Brother
B. Nephew
C. Uncle
D. Son-in-law

10. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Vishal’s shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?

A. East
B. West
C. North
D. South

11. Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z, then in which direction of Y, is P?

A. North
B. South
C. South-East
D. None of these

12. One morning after sunrise, Vimal started to walk. During this walking he met Stephen who was coming from opposite direction. Vimal watch that the shadow of Stephen to the right of him (Vimal). To Which direction Vimal was facing?

A. East
B. West
C. South

13. One morning after sunrise Nivedita and Niharika were talking to each other face to face at Dalphin crossing. If Niharika’s shadow was exactly to the right of Nivedita, Which direction Niharika was facing?

A. North
B. South
C. East
D. Data is inadequate

14. Statements:P ≤ Q ≤ S = T, R = Q > U
Conclusions:
I. P ≥ U
II. V ≥ T

A. if only conclusion I follows.
B. if only conclusion II follows.
C. if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
D. if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
E. if both conclusions I and II follow.

15. Statements : U ≥ X = Y, Y ≤ Z ≤ S, T = W ≥ Z
Conclusions:
I. T ≤ U
II. S ≥ U

A. if only conclusion I follows.
B. if only conclusion II follows.
C. if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
D. if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
E. if both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements : A ≥ P = S ≥ T, V ≤ B = T ≥ X
Conclusions:
I. A ≥ X
II. P ≤ B

A. if only conclusion I follows.
B. if only conclusion II follows.
C. if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
D. if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
E. if both conclusions I and II follow.

17. Statements : S > U > V, Y ≤ U ≤ Z, Z W
Conclusions:
I. S Y

A. if only conclusion I follows.
B. if only conclusion II follows.
C. if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
D. if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
E. if both conclusions I and II follow.

18. Statements : P ≤ X ≤ Y Y R
Conclusions:
I. V < R

A. if only conclusion I follows.
B. if only conclusion II follows.
C. if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
D. if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
E. if both conclusions I and II follow.

19. In a certain code ‘MISSIONS’ is written as ‘MSIISNOS’. How is ‘ONLINE’ written in that code?

A. OLNNIE
B. ONILEN
C. NOILEN
D. LNOENI
E. ONNLIE

20. In certain code ‘TIGER’ is written as ‘QDFHS’. How is ‘FISH’ written in that code?

A. GERH
B. GRHE
C. GREH
D. GHRE
E. GEHR

21. In certain code ‘FROZEN’ is written as ‘OFAPSG’. Then how would ‘MOLTEN’ be written in that code?

A. OFPOMN
B. OFSMPN
C. OFUMPN
D. OFUNPM
E. OFUMON

22. In a certain code ‘ROAR’ is written as ‘URDU’. How is ‘URDU’ written in that code?

A. VXDQ
B. XUGX
C. ROAR
D. VSOV
E. VZCP

23. In a certain code ‘LIMCA’ is written as ‘HJLDZ’. Which of the following words is written as ‘IFWJBP’?

A. MEXICO
B. MERCURY
C. JAPAN
D. MIDNIGHT
E. HONDUS

Direction to solve(24 to 28) : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

A. If only assumption I is implicit
B. If only assumption II is implicit
C. If either I or II is implicit
D. If neither I nor II is implicit
E. If both I and II are implicit.

24. Statement: “You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation period of one year and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation.” – A line in an appointment letter.
Assumptions:
I. The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of appointment offer.
II. Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.

A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

25. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age.

A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

26. Statement: “In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide conveyance allowance to our employees.” – In charge of a company tells Personnel Manager.
Assumptions:
I. Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality.
II. Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.

A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

27. Statement: Unemployment allowance should be given to all unemployed Indian youth above 18 years of age.
Assumptions:
I. There are unemployed youth in India who needs monetary support.
II. The government has sufficient funds to provide allowance to all unemployed youth.

A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

28. Statement: “If you trouble me, I will slap you.” – A mother warns her child.
Assumptions:
I. With the warning, the child may stop troubling her.
II. All children are basically naughty.

A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction to solve: (29 to 33)

In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

A. If only (1) conclusion follows
B. If only (2) conclusion follows
C. If either (1) or (2) follows
D. If neither (1) nor (2) follows and
E. If both (1) and (2) follow.

29. Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
1. Some actors are dancers.
2. No singer is actor.

A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
E. Both (1) and (2) follow

30.Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are flutes.
Conclusions:
1. All the flutes are instruments.
2. All the harmoniums are flutes.

A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
E. Both (1) and (2) follow

31. Statements: Some mangoes are yellow. Some tixo are mangoes.
Conclusions:
1. Some mangoes are green.
2. Tixo is a yellow.

A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
E. Both (1) and (2) follow

32. Statements: Some ants are parrots. All the parrots are apples.
Conclusions:
1. All the apples are parrots.
2. Some ants are apples.

A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
E. Both (1) and (2) follow

33. Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens.
Conclusions:
1. Some pens are pencils.
2. Some pens are papers.

A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
E. Both (1) and (2) follow

34. Routers operate at layer _____. LAN switches operate at layer _____. Ethernet hubs operate at layer _____. Word processing operates at layer _____.

A. 3, 3, 1, 7
B. 3, 2, 1, none
C. 3, 2, 1, 7
D. 3, 3, 2, none

35. Which of the following describe router functions?

A. Packet switching
B. Packet filtering
C. Internetwork communication
D. Path selection
E. All of the above

36. A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?

A. Send a different source port number.
B. Restart the virtual circuit.
C. Decrease the sequence number.
D. Decrease the window size.

37. What is the purpose of flow control?

A. To ensure that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received.
B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
D. To regulate the size of each segment.

38. How long is an IPv6 address?

A. 32 bits
B. 128 bytes
C. 64 bits
D. 128 bits

39. What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many users to connect to the global Internet?

A. NAT
B. Static
C. Dynamic
D. PAT

40. You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected to the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each host have to the server?

A. 100 kbps
B. 1 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 10 Mbps

1. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Declaration: char *fgets(char *s, int n, FILE *stream);
fgets reads characters from stream into the string s. It stops when it reads either n – 1 characters or a newline character, whichever comes first.
Therefore, the string str contain “I am a boy\n\0”

2. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
he file source.txt will be opened in the binary mode.

3. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The fp is a structure which contains a char pointer which points to the first character of a file.

4. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
r+ Open an existing file for update (reading and writing).

5. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The boy in the photograph is the only son of the son of Suresh’s mother i.e., the son of Suresh. Hence, Suresh is the father of boy.

6. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
P – M → P is the brother of M
M + N → M is the mother of N
N x Q → N is the sister of Q
Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of Q.

7. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
If D is Male, the answer is Nephew.
If D is Female, the answer is Niece.
As the sex of D is not known, hence, the relation between D and A cannot be determined.
Note: Niece – A daughter of one’s brother or sister, or of one’s brother-in-law or sister-in-law. Nephew – A son of one’s brother or sister, or of one’s brother-in-law or sister-in-law.

8. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
M x N → M is the father of N
N – C → N is the sister of C
and C + F → C is the brother of F.
Hence, M is the father of C or C is the son of M.

9. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The father of the boy’s uncle → the grandfather of the boy and daughter of the grandfather → sister of father.

10. Answer: Option A

Explanation:

11. Answer: Option D

Explanation:

P is in South-West of Y.

12. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Sunrises in the east. So the shadow of a man will always fall towards the west. Since the shadow of Stephen is to the right of Vimal. Hence Vimal is facing towards South.

13. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
In the morning the sun rises in the East. Hence then any shadow falls in the West. Since Nikharia’s shadow was exactly to the right of Nivedita. Hence Nikharia is facing towards North.

14. Answer: Option D

15. Answer: Option D

16. Answer: Option A

17. Answer: Option B

18. Answer: Option E

19. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
First and last letter remain same. The others interchange their positions in pair of two. So, NL become LN IN become NI so code of ONLINE will be OLNNIE

20. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Reverse the word and move each letter –1. Reverse of FISH is HSIF subtract 1 from each letter of HSIF. So code of FISH become GRHE.

21. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Reverse the word and move each letter +1. Reverse of MOLTEN is NETLOM add 1 to each letter of NETLOM. So code of MOLTEN become OFUMPN.

22. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Each letter moves +3. Add 3 to each letter of URDU,so code of URDU will be XUGX

23. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Each letter moves +1, -1, ….alternately except for L, which is –4. We have to find the word for the code IFWJBP. Add 4 to I then -1, +1 alternately to the remaining letters. The word will be MEXICO.

24. Answer: Option E

Explanation:
The performance of the individual has to be tested over a span of time as the statement mentions. So, I is implicit. The statement mentions that the individual’s worth shall be reviewed (during probation period) before confirmation. So, II is also implicit.

25. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Since the statement talks of putting the child in school at the age of 5, it means that the child is mentally prepared for the same at this age. So, I is implicit. But nothing about admission after 6 years of age is mentioned in the statement. So, II is not implicit.

26. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The assumption I goes against the statement. So, it is not implicit. The allowance will serve as a reward to the employees and shall provoke them to come on time. So, II is implicit.

27. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
I directly follow from the statement and so is implicit. Also, the statement is a suggestion and does not tell about a government policy or its position of funds. So, II is not implicit.

28. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The mother warns her child with the expectation that he would stop troubling her. So, I is implicit. The general nature of children cannot be derived from the statement. So, II is not implicit.

29. Answer: Option A

Explanation:

30. Answer: Option B

Explanation:

31. Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Explanation:

Explanation:

34. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Routers operate at layer 3. LAN switches operate at layer 2. Ethernet hubs operate at layer 1. Word processing applications communicate to the Application layer interface, but do not operate at layer 7, so the answer would be none

35. Answer: Option E

Explanation:
Routers provide packet switching, packet filtering, internetwork communication, and path selection.

36. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
A receiving host can control the transmitter by using flow control (TCP uses Windowing by default). By decreasing the window size, the receiving host can slow down the transmitting host so the receiving host does not overflow its buffers.

37. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Flow control allows the receiving device to control the transmitter so the receiving device’s buffer does not overflow.

38. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.

39. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT) allows a one-to-many approach to network address translation.

40. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Each device has 10 Mbps to the server.

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