IBPS PO - SPLessons

IBPS PO Mains Reasoning and Computer Aptitude

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IBPS PO Mains Reasoning and Computer Aptitude

shape Introduction

IBPS PO 2019 – Main Examination, conducted in online Mode, has: a duration of 3 hours, 4 Sections, a total of 155 questions, a Maximum score of 200 marks, and, is followed by a Descriptive Test (English language) for a duration of 30 minutes. The 4 Sections are timed: Reasoning & Computer Aptitude, General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness, English language, Data Analysis & Interpretation. The section wise details are as shown below. The objective test is followed by a Descriptive Paper (Essay Writing + Letter Writing).


shape Pattern

Sr.No. Name of Tests
(NOT BY SEQUENCE)
No. of
Questions
Maximum
Marks
Medium of
Exam
Time Allotted for Each
Test (Separately Timed)
1 Reasoning & Computer Aptitude 45 60 English & Hindi 60 minutes
2 General/Economy/Banking Awareness 40 40 English & Hindi 35 minutes
3 English Language 35 40 English 40 minutes
4 Data Analysis & Interpretation 35 60 English & Hindi 45 minutes
TOTAL 155 200 3 hours
5 English Language
(Letter Writing & Essay)
2 25 English 30 minutes


The IBPS PO Mains Reasoning and Computer Aptitude, section has a total of 45 questions, Maximum marks of 60 and a duration of 60 minutes. Below mentioned are the different categories of expected questions. The topics for Reasoning and Computer Aptitude are mentioned seperately.


shape Syllabus

Syllabus – Reasoning – IBPS PO – Main Examination

S.No. Topics
1 Puzzles
2 Seating Arrangements
3 Direction Sense
4 Blood Relation
5 Syllogism
6 Order and Ranking
7 Coding-Decoding
8 Machine Input-Output
9 Inequalities
10 Alpha-Numeric-Symbol Series
11 Data Sufficiency
12 Logical Reasoning (Passage Inference, Statement and Assumption, Conclusion, Argument)


shape Samples

Sample Questions – Reasoning – IBPS PO – Main Examination

Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:

Six exams Maths, science, History, Economics, English and Hindi are to be scheduled starting from 2nd March and ending on 8th march wit Sunday being an off day, not necessarily in the same order. Each of the exam has different time duration: 40 mins, 50 mins, 60 mins, 75 mins, 90 mins and 100 mins, again not necessarily in the same order. 8th march is not sunday and an exam of 40 mins is scheduled on that day. Maths exam is for less than 60 mins and is scheduled immediately before English exam. There are two exams scheduled between Hindi exam which is for 100 mins and History exam which is for 60 mins. English exam is before Sunday and there are two days between sunday and maths exam. Economics exam which is for 75 mins is not scheduled on 2nd march. The exam schedules on saturday is of 100 mins.

1. How many exams are scheduled before Sunday?

    A. Two
    B. One
    C. Five
    D. Three
    E. None of these

Answer: E


2. Which of the following combinations of exam – Day – Time Duration is correct ?

    A. English – Wednesday – 75 mins
    B. Maths – Thursday – 50 mins
    C. History – Thursday – 60 mins
    D. Hindi – Tuesday – 100 mins
    E. None is correct

Answer: B


3. What is the time duration of science exam?

    A. 90 mins
    B. 75 mins
    C. 50 mins
    D. 40 mins
    E. None of these

Answer: D


4. On which day is Economics exam scheduled?

    A. Monday
    B. Saturday
    C. Tuesday
    D. Friday
    E. Cannot be determined

Answer: A


5. Which day is Sunday?

    A. 3rd March
    B. 2nd March
    C. 5th March
    D. 6th March
    E. Cannot be determined

Answer: D

Directions (1 – 5): Each of these questions are based on the information given below:

    1. A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line facing to south – while M, N, O, P and Q are five ladies sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing to North.
    2. B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q.
    3. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other.
    4. E is opposite to O who is just next right of M.
    5. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D.
    6. M is at one end of the line.


1. Who is sitting third to the right of O?

    A. Q
    B. N
    C. M
    D. Data inadequate

Answer: B


2. If B shifts to the place of E, E shifts to the place of Q, and Q shifts to the place of B, then who will be the second to the left of the person opposite to O?

    A. Q
    B. P
    C. E
    D. D

Answer: A


3.Which of the following pair is diagonally opposite to each other?

    A. EQ
    B. BO
    C. AN
    D. AM

Answer: D


4. If O and P, A and E and B and Q interchange their positions, then who will be the second person to the right of the person who is opposite to the person second of the right of P?

    A. D
    B. A
    C. E
    D. O

Answer: B


5. In the original arrangement who is sitting just opposite to N?

    A. B
    B. A
    C. C
    D. D

Answer: B

1. A man is facing west. He turns 45 degree in the clockwise direction and then another 180 degree in the same direction and then 270 degree in the anticlockwise direction. Find which direction he is facing now ?

    A. South-West
    B. West
    C. South
    D. East-South

Answer: A


2. A man is facing north. He turns 45 degree in the clockwise direction and then another 180 degree in the same direction and then 45 degree in the anticlockwise direction. Find which direction he is facing now?

    A. North
    B. East
    C. West
    D. South

Answer: D


3. One day, Raviraj left home and cycled 20 Km southwards, turned right and cycled 10 km and turned right and cycled 20 Km and turned left and cycled 20 Km. How many kilometres will he have to cycle to reach his home straight?

    A. 50 Km
    B. 30 Km
    C. 40 Km
    D. 60 Km

Answer: B


4. Kunal walks 10 km towards North. From there he walks 6 Km towards South. Then, he walks 3 Km towards east. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?

    A. 5 Km North
    B. 5 Km South
    C. 5 Km East
    D. 5 Km North-East

Answer: D


5. Gaurav walks 20 metres towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns left and walks 20 metres. Further, he moves 20 metres after turning to the right. How far is he from his original position?

    A. 40 metres
    B. 50 metres
    C. 60 metres
    D. 70 metres

Answer: C

1. A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. E is D’s mother. Then, how is A related to D?

    A. Grandfather
    B. Grandmother
    C. Daughter
    D. Granddaughter

Answer: D


2. P is the brother of Q and R. S is R’s mother. T is P’s father. Which of the following statements cannot be definitely true?

    A. T is Q’s father
    B. S is P’s mother
    C. P is S’s son
    D. Q is T’s son

Answer: D


3. Pointing out to a lady, a girl said, “She is the daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my father’s only son.” How is the lady related to the girl?

    A. Sister-in-law
    B. Mother
    C. Aunt
    D. Can’t be determined

Answer: D


4. A girl introduced a boy as the son of’ the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl’s

    A. Brother
    B. Son
    C. Uncle
    D. Son-in-law

Answer: A


5.There are six persons A. B, C, D, E and F. C is the sister of F. B is the brother of E’s husband. D is the father of A and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, three brothers and a mother in the group. Who is the mother?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. E

Answer: E

Directions (1 – 5): In each of the following questions two statements are given. Which are followed by four conclusions (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

1. Statements: No door is dog. All the dogs are cats.

Conclusions:

No door is cat.

No cat is door.

Some cats are dogs.

All the cats are dogs.

    A. Only (2) and (4)
    B. Only (1) and (3)
    C. Only (3) and (4)
    D. Only (3)
    E. All the four

Answer: D


2. Statements: All green are blue. All blue are white.

Conclusions:

Some blue are green.

Some white are green.

Some green are not white.

All white are blue.

    A. Only (1) and (2)
    B. Only (1) and (3)
    C. Only (1) and (4)
    D. Only (2) and (4)

Answer: A


3. Statements: All men are vertebrates. Some mammals are vertebrates.

Conclusions:

All men are mammals.

All mammals are men.

Some vertebrates are mammals.

All vertebrates are men.

    A. Only (4)
    B. Only (2)
    C. Only (3)
    D. Only (1)
    E. Only (1) and (3)

Answer: C


4. Statements: All the phones are scales. All the scales are calculators.

Conclusions:

All the calculators are scales.

All the phones are calculators

All the scales are phones.

Some calculators are phones.

    A. Only (1) and (4)
    B. Only (3) and (4)
    C. Only (2) and (4)
    D. Only (1) and (2)
    E. Only (1) and (3)

Answer: C


5. Statements: Some tables are T.V. Some T.V. are radios.

Conclusions:

Some tables are radios.

Some radios are tables.

All the radios are T.V.

All the T.V. are tables.

    A. Only (2) and (4)
    B. Only (1) and (3)
    C. Only (4)
    D. Only (1) and (4)
    E. None of the four.

Answer: E

1. In a row of boys, Tom is 7th from the left and Max is 12th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Tom becomes 22nd from the left. What is the total number of boys in the row?

    A. 33
    B. 23
    C. 43
    D. 53

Answer: A


Directions (2- 4): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Amongst five friends, A, B, C, D, E, each got different marks in the examination. A scored more than B but less than C. C scored 65 marks. D scored less marks than only E. The one who scored the minimum marks scored 60 marks and the one who scored the highest, scored 80 marks.


2. Who scored the second highest marks?

    A. B
    B. E
    C. D
    D. C
    E. A

Answer: C


3. Who is the most likely to have scored 62 marks?

    A. B
    B. A
    C. D
    D. E
    E. Either E or B

Answer: B


4. Who scored the lowest marks?

    A. B
    B. E
    C. D
    D. C
    E. A

Answer: A


5. Among B, F, J, K and W, each one of them is of different heights, F is taller than only J. B is taller than F and W (both) but not as tall as K. Who among them is the third tallest?

    A. B
    B. F
    C. K
    D. W
    E. None of these

Answer: D

1. In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How will MEDICINE be written in that code language?

    A. MFEDJJOE
    B. EOJDEJFM
    C. MFEJDJOE
    D. EOJDJEFM

Answer: D


2. In a certain code ‘CERTAIN’ is coded as ‘BFQUZJM’. How is ‘MUNDANE’ coded in that code?

    A. LVMEZOD
    B. NTCOMBF
    C. NTOCNBF
    D. LTMCZOF
    E. None of these

Answer: A


3. If the letters of the word ‘CYCLINDER’ are arranged alphabetically, then which letter would be farthest from the first letter of word?

    A. N
    B. E
    C. Y
    D. R
    E. None of these

Answer: C


4. If in the English alphabet, every alternate letter from B onwards is written in small letters while others are written in capitals, then how will the 3rd day from Tuesday will be coded?

    A. W e D N e S d A Y
    B. W E d n E S d A Y
    C. T H U R S d A Y
    D. T h U r S d A Y
    E. f r I d A Y

Answer: E


5. In certain code ‘HILTON’ is written as ‘I H T L N O’. How is ‘BILLION’ written in that code?

    A. IBLLION
    B. IBOILLN
    C. IBLLOIN
    D. IBLOILN
    E. IBOLLIN

Answer: C

Directions (1 – 5): A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: go now 53 39 18 for again 66

    Step 1: 66 go now 53 39 18 for again

    Step 2: 66 again go now 53 39 18 for

    Step 3: 66 again 53 go now 39 18 for

    Step 4: 66 again 53 for go now 39 18

    Step 5: 66 again 53 for 39 go now 18

    Step 6: 66 again 53 for 39 go now 18

    Step 7: 66 again 53 for 39 go 18 now


1. Input: chanoyu wink 24 44 57 Heinz beech 71.

How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

    A. Three
    B. Four
    C. Five
    D. Six

Answer: D


2. Input: trees 18 27 desk are 91 hour zero 31 16 chairs.

Which of the following will be step 4?

    A. 91 are 31 trees 18 27 desk hour zero 16 chairs
    B. 91 trees 18 27 desk are hour zero 31 16 chairs
    C. 91 are 31 chairs trees 18 27 desk hour zero 16
    D. 91 are 31 chairs 27 desk 18 trees hour zero 16

Answer: C


3. Input: how two 38 23 87 43 room over

Which of the following steps will be the last?

    A. Step 4
    B. Step 5
    C. Step 6
    D. Step 7

Answer: C


4. Step 2 of an input is: 94 car 86 window shut 52 31 house

Which of the following is definitely the input?

    A. 94 car window 86 shut 52 31 house
    B. 86 window 94 car shut 52 31 house
    C. car shut window 86 52 31 house 94
    D. cannot be determined

Answer: D


5. Input: show 51 37 now for 82 49 goot

Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

    A. Step 7
    B. Step 8
    C. Step 6
    D. Step 5

Answer: C

1. Statement: M ≥ P T = M

Conclusions:
I. V > P
II. T ≥ H

    A. If only conclusion I is true
    B. If only conclusion II is true
    C. If either conclusion I or II is true
    D. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
    E. If both conclusions I and II are true

Answer: A


2. Statements: A > B = C ≥ D, V ≥ G ≤ H = D

Conclusion:
I. C ≥ D
II. A > H
III. B ≥ G
IV. C < V

    A. Only I and II are true
    B. Only III and IV are true
    C. Only I, II and III are true
    D. All I, II and III are true
    E. None of these

Answer: C


3. Statements: M ≤ N T ≥ Q

Conclusions:
I. R ≥ L
II. T ≤ N
III. L > M
IV. R ≥ M

    A. Only III and IV are true
    B. Only III is true
    C. Only I and IV are true
    D. All I, II, III and IV are true
    E. None of these

Answer: B


4. Statement: M ≥ P T = M

Conclusions:
I. V > P
II. T ≥ H

    A. If only conclusion I is true
    B. If only conclusion II is true
    C. If either conclusion I or II is true
    D. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
    E. If both conclusions I and II are true

Answer: A


5. Statements: E = G ≥ H = N, C > F ≥ M = N

Conclusions:
I. F ≥ E
II. E ≥ M
III. C ≥ G
IV. C > H

    A. Only I and III are true
    B. All I, II, III and IV are true
    C. Only II and IV are true
    D. Only II is true
    E. None of these

Answer: C

Directions (1-5): These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study the arrangement carefully to answer these questions.


M 6 ⋆ I A 7 $ J # 5 4 B U 2 R Q D H L O @ P T E F


1. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a number and also immediately preceded by a consonant?

    A. None
    B. One
    C. Two
    D. Three
    E. None of these

Answer: B


2. If we remove all the vowels in this series, then which of the following element will be 7th from right end?

    A. P
    B. H
    C. D
    D. Q
    E. None of these

Answer: C


3. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant and also immediately preceded by a symbol?

    A. None
    B. One
    C. Two
    D. Three
    E. None of these

Answer: A


4. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a consonant?

    A. None
    B. One
    C. Two
    D. Three
    E. More than three

Answer: D


5. If we remove all the vowels and symbols in this series, then which element will be 13th from left end?

    A. L
    B. H
    C. D
    D. Q
    E. None of these

Answer: A

Directions (1 – 5): In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer

    (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
    (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
    (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
    (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
    (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.


1. What is the code for ‘sky’ in the code language?

Statements:

In the code language, ‘sky is clear’ is written as ‘de ra fa’.

In the same code language, ‘make it clear’ is written as ‘de ga jo’.

    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: D


2. How many children are there between P and Q in a row of children?

Statements:

P is fifteenth from the left in the row.

Q is exactly in the middle and there are ten children towards his right.

    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: Option E


3. How is T related to K?

Statements:

R’s sister J has married Ts brother L, who is the only son of his parents.

K is the only daughter of L and J.

    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: E


4. How is J related to P?

Statements:

M is brother of P and T is sister of P.

P’s mother is married to J’s husband who has one son and two daughters.

    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: B


5. How is X related to Y?

Statements:

Y and Z are children of D who is wife of X.

R’s sister X is married to Ys father.

    A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
    B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
    C. Either I or II is sufficient
    D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
    E. Both I and II are sufficient

Answer: C

Passage Inference

Directions: In each question below is given a passage followed by some inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon the degree of truth or falsity of the inference.

Mark answer

    1) if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    2) if you think that the answer is probably true.
    3) if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    4) if the answer is definitely false.
    5) if the answer is probably false.


Passage:

The most recent case of euthanasia in India was that of a Mumbai couple who approached the courts to seek medical termination of a pregnancy after the legally permissible abortion time limit had been crossed. According to the parents, the foetus had been detected to have serious disabilities which would affect the quality of life of the child if born. The court denied them permission, giving its own logic underlining the unborn baby’s right to live despite disabilities. Fortunately or unfortunately, the issue was resolved in a different way when the mother suffered a miscarriage a little later and lost the baby.


Globally, in a landmark case, a British teenage girl won the right to die the way she wants. Terminally ill Hanah Jones, just 13 years old, has spent much of the past eight years in hospital wards undergoing treatment for leukaemia. Euthanasia is complex because the issue is attached to ending life, voluntarily. Surprisingly, today it has been legalised only in a handful of countries. But here too and elsewhere the many forms of euthanasia have been taken into consideration.

    1. The courts in India have the authority to sanction euthanasia.
    2. The courts consider the age of the foetus before granting permission for abortion.
    3. It is fortunate that the Mumbai couple lost the baby.
    4. The author is against legalising euthanasia.
    5. The British courts allow anyone to die the way one want.


1. The Mumbai couple approached the court because the courts have the authority to sanction euthanasia. Hence, the inference is definitely true.

    A. if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    B. if you think that the answer is probably true.
    C. if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    D. if the answer is definitely false.
    E. if the answer is probably false.

Answer: A


2) In the first passage, the couple approached the court as the legally permissible abortion time limit had been crossed. From this we can definitely conclude that there is a legally permissible time limit for abortion. So, the inference is definitely true.

    A. if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    B. if you think that the answer is probably true.
    C. if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    D. if the answer is definitely false.
    E. if the answer is probably false.

Answer: B


3) At the end of the first paragraph “Fortunately or unfortunately the issue…..lost the baby”. The author himself is not sure whether the incident is fortunate or unfortunate. So, the inference is definitely false.

    A. if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    B. if you think that the answer is probably true.
    C. if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    D. if the answer is definitely false.
    E. if the answer is probably false.

Answer: E


4) In the second paragraph it is given that “surprisingly today it has been…. countries”. From this we can conclude that the author is in favour of euthanasia. Hence, the inference is definitely false.

    A. if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    B. if you think that the answer is probably true.
    C. if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    D. if the answer is definitely false.
    E. if the answer is probably false.

Answer: E


5) No where in the world one can die in the way one want, but if the person cannot be soured by any medical treatment, those persons can die that to with the permission of the courts. So, the inference is definitely false.

    A. if you think that the answer is definitely true.
    B. if you think that the answer is probably true.
    C. if the data provided is inadequate to answer the question.
    D. if the answer is definitely false.
    E. if the answer is probably false.

Answer: E


Statement and Assumption

Directions (1 – 5): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give answer

    (A) If only assumption I is implicit
    (B) If only assumption II is implicit
    (C) If either I or II is implicit
    (D) If neither I nor II is implicit
    (E) If both I and II are implicit.


1. Statement: “You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation period of one year and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation.” – A line in an appointment letter.

Assumptions:

The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of appointment offer.

Generally, an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.

    A. Only assumption I is implicit
    B. Only assumption II is implicit
    C. Either I or II is implicit
    D. Neither I nor II is implicit
    E. Both I and II are implicit

Answer: E


2. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.

Assumptions:

At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.

The schools do not admit children after six years of age.

    A. Only assumption I is implicit
    B. Only assumption II is implicit
    C. Either I or II is implicit
    D. Neither I nor II is implicit
    E. Both I and II are implicit

Answer: A


3. Statement: “In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide conveyance allowance to our employees.” – In charge of a company tells Personnel Manager.

Assumptions:

Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality.

Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.

    A. Only assumption I is implicit
    B. Only assumption II is implicit
    C. Either I or II is implicit
    D. Neither I nor II is implicit
    E. Both I and II are implicit

Answer: B


4. Statement: Unemployment allowance should be given to all unemployed Indian youth above 18 years of age.

Assumptions:

There are unemployed youth in India who needs monetary support.

The government has sufficient funds to provide allowance to all unemployed youth.

    A. Only assumption I is implicit
    B. Only assumption II is implicit
    C. Either I or II is implicit
    D. Neither I nor II is implicit
    E. Both I and II are implicit

Answer: A


5. Statement: “If you trouble me, I will slap you.” – A mother warns her child.

Assumptions:

With the warning, the child may stop troubling her.

All children are basically naughty.

    A. Only assumption I is implicit
    B. Only assumption II is implicit
    C. Either I or II is implicit
    D. Neither I nor II is implicit
    E. Both I and II are implicit

Answer: A


Statement and Conclusion
Directions (1 – 5): In each of the following questions, a statement/group of statements is given followed by some conclusions. Without resolving anything yourself choose the conclusion which logically follows from the given statements).


1. Soldiers serve their country.

    A. Men generally serve their country.
    B. Those who serve their country are soldiers.
    C. Some men who are soldiers serve their country.
    D. Women do not serve their country because they are not soldiers.

Answer: C


2. A factory worker has five children. No one else in the factory has five children.

    A. All workers in the factory have five children each.
    B. Everybody in the factory has children.
    C. Some of the factory workers have more than five children.
    D. Only one worker in the factory has exactly five children.

Answer: D


3. Television convinces viewers that the likelihood of their becoming the victim of a violent crime is extremely high; at the same time by its very nature, TV persuades viewers to passively accept whatever happens to them.

    A. TV viewing promotes criminal behaviour.
    B. TV viewers are most likely to be victimized than others.
    C. People should not watch TV.
    D. TV promotes a feeling of helpless vulnerability in viewers.

Answer: D


4. A forest has as many sandal trees as it has Ashoka trees. Three-fourth of the trees are old ones and half of the trees are at the flowering stage.

    A. All Ashoka trees are at the flowering stage.
    B. All sandal trees are at the flowering stage.
    C. At least one-half of the Ashoka trees are old.
    D. One-half of the sandal trees are at the flowering stage.

E. None of these

Answer: E


5. The government is soon going to introduce a bill which would permit the instituting of private universities under very strict directions.

    A. We have some private universities in our country even now.
    B. The demand for more universities is being stepped up.
    C. Such directions can also be issued without informing the Parliament.
    D. The government gives directions to establish anything in private sector.
    E. Unless and until the directions are given, the private universities can charge exorbitant fees.

Answer: B


Statement and Argument

Directions (1 – 5): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Give answer:

    (A) If only argument I is strong
    (B) If only argument II is strong
    (C) If either I or II is strong
    (D) If neither I nor II is strong and
    (E) If both I and II are strong.


1. Statement: Should India encourage exports, when most things are insufficient for internal use itself?

Arguments:

Yes. We have to earn foreign exchange to pay for our imports.

No. Even selective encouragement would lead to shortages.

    A. Only argument I is strong
    B. Only argument II is strong
    C. Either I or II is strong
    D. Neither I nor II is strong
    E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: A


2. Statement: Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western countries be first tried out on sample basis before giving licence for sale to general public in India?

Arguments:

Yes. Many such drugs require different doses and duration for Indian population and hence it is necessary.

No. This is just not feasible and hence cannot be implemented.

    A. Only argument I is strong
    B. Only argument II is strong
    C. Either I or II is strong
    D. Neither I nor II is strong
    E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: A


3. Statement: Should India make efforts to harness solar energy to fulfil its energy requirements?

Arguments:

Yes, Most of the energy sources used at present is exhaustible.

No. Harnessing solar energy requires a lot of capital, which India lacks in.

    A. Only argument I is strong
    B. Only argument II is strong
    C. Either I or II is strong
    D. Neither I nor II is strong
    E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: A


4. Statement: Should there be students union in college/university?

Arguments:

No. This will create a political atmosphere in the campus.

Yes, it is very necessary Students are future political leaders.

    A. Only argument I is strong
    B. Only argument II is strong
    C. Either I or II is strong
    D. Neither I nor II is strong
    E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: E


5. Statement: Should India give away Kashmir to Pakistan?

Arguments:

No. Kashmir is a beautiful state. It earns a lot of foreign exchange for India.

Yes. This would help settle conflicts.

    A. Only argument I is strong
    B. Only argument II is strong
    C. Either I or II is strong
    D. Neither I nor II is strong
    E. Both I and II are strong

Answer: A


shape Syllabus

Syllabus – Computer Aptitude – IBPS PO – Main Examination

S.No. Topics
1 History and Generation of Computers
2 Introduction to Computer Organisation
3 Computer Memory
4 Computer Hardware and I/O Devices
5 Computer Software
6 Computer Languages
7 Operating System
8 Computer Network
9 Internet
10 MS Office Suit and Short cut keys
11 Basics of DBMS
12 Number System and Conversions
13 Computer and Network Security


shape Samples

Sample Questions – Computer Aptitude – IBPS PO – Main Examination

1. What did first generation computers use for curcuitry?

    A. Transistors
    B. Vacuum tubes
    C. Integrated circuits
    D. Microprocessors

Answer: B


2. What did second generation computers use for curcuitry?

    A. Transistors
    B. Vacuum tubes
    C. Integrated circuits
    D. Microprocessors

Answer: A


3. What was the main technology used in third generation computers?

    A. Vacuum tubes
    B. Integrated circuits
    C. Microprocessors
    D. Artificial intelligence

Answer: C


4. What was the main technology used in fourth generation computers?

    A. Vacuum tubes
    B. Integrated circuits
    C. Microprocessors
    D. Artificial intelligence

Answer: C


5. Fifth generation computers are based on which of the following?

    A. Vacuum tubes
    B. Integrated circuits
    C. Microprocessors
    D. Artificial intelligence

Answer: D


6. What were some disadvantages of first generation computers? You may choose more than one answer.
Discuss

    A. They were enormous.
    B. They were expensive.
    C. They used a great deal of electricity.
    D. They generated a lot of heat.
    E. All the Above

Answer: E


7. The of the generation of computers started using keyboards and monitors?

    A. First
    B. Second
    C. Third
    D. Fourth
    E. Fifth

Answer: C


8.

This is called a __________.
Answer: integrated circuit, microchip

1. Which registers can interact with the secondary storage?

    A. MAR
    B. PC
    C. IR
    D. R0

Answer: A


2. Which of the register/s of the processor is/are connected to Memory Bus?

    A. PC
    B. MAR
    C. IR
    D. Both a and b

Answer: B


3. The internal Components of the processor are connected by _______.

    A. Processor intra-connectivity circuitry
    B. Processor bus
    C. Memory bus
    D. Rambus

Answer: B


4. The registers, ALU and the interconnection between them are collectively called as _____.

    A. Process route
    B. Information trail
    C. information path
    D. data path

Answer: D


5. _______ is used to store data in registers.

    a) D flip flop
    b) JK flip flop
    c) RS flip flop
    d) none of these

Answer: A

1. The duration between the read and the mfc signal is ______.

    A. Access time
    B. Latency
    C. Delay
    D. Cycle time

Answer: A


2. The Reason for the disregarding of the SRAM’s is

    A. Low Efficiency.
    B. High power consumption.
    C. High Cost.
    D All of the above.

Answer: C


3. To organise large memory chips we make use of ______.

    A. Integrated chips
    B. Upgraded hardware
    C. Memory modules
    D. None of the above

Answer: C


4. The spatial aspect of the locality of reference means

    A. That the recently executed instruction is executed again next
    B. That the recently executed wont be executed again
    C. That the instruction executed will be executed at a later time
    D. That the instruction in close proximity of the instruction executed will be executed in future

Answer: D


5. The correspondence between the main memory blocks and those in the cache is given by _________.

    A. Hash function
    B. Mapping function
    C. Locale function
    D. Assign function

Answer:B

1. In memory-mapped I/O…

    A. The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space
    B. The I/O devices have a seperate address space
    C. The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space
    D. A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

Answer: A


2. The return address from the interrupt-service routine is stored on the

    A. System heap
    B. Processor register
    C. Processor stack
    D. Memory

Answer: C


3. The program used to find out errors is called

    A. Debugger
    B. Compiler
    C. Assembler
    D. Scanner

Answer: A


4. The conversion from parallel to serial data transmission and vice versa takes place inside the interface circuits.

    A. True
    B. False

Answer: A


5. The Centralised BUS arbitration is similar to ______ interrupt circuit

    A. Priority
    B. Parallel
    C. Single
    D. Daisy chain

Answer: D

1. When referring to instruction words, a mnemonic is:

    A. a short abbreviation for the operand address
    B. a short abbreviation for the operation to be performed
    C. a short abbreviation for the data word stored at the operand address
    D. shorthand for machine language

Answer: B


2. What is the difference between mnemonic codes and machine codes?

    A. There is no difference.
    B. Machine codes are in binary, mnemonic codes are in shorthand English.
    C. Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are in binary.
    D. Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are a high-level language.

Answer: B


3. Which bus is bidirectional?

    A. data bus
    B. control bus
    C. address bus
    D. multiplexed bus

Answer: Option A


4. The software used to drive microprocessor-based systems is called:

    A. assembly language programs
    B. firmware
    C. BASIC interpreter instructions
    D. flowchart instructions

Answer: A


5. A microprocessor unit, a memory unit, and an input/output unit form a:

    A. CPU
    B. compiler
    C. microcomputer
    D. ALU

Answer: C

1. Which one of the following statement is true for Assembly language?

    A. This language need not be translated into machine language.
    B. It is the easiest language to write programs
    C. It uses alphabetic codes.
    D. All of the above

Answer: C


2. The statement which is not the characteristic of COBOL is

    A. It is readable
    B. It is very efficient in coding and execution
    3. It is standardized language
    4. It has limited facilities for mathematical calculations

Answer: B


3. The high level language program before ready to be executed must go through various process except

    A. Linking
    B. Loading
    C. Controlling
    D. Translation

Answer: D


4. Which one of the following language reflects the way people think mathematically?

    A. Functional
    B. Event driven programming language
    C. Cross platform programming language
    D. All of the above

Answer: A


5. Which language can be directly understood by the CPU?

    A. Assembly language
    B. Java
    C. C
    D. All of the above

Answer: A

1. The part of machine level instruction, which tells the central processor what has to be done, is

    A. Operation code
    B. Address
    C. Locator
    D. Flip-Flop
    E. None of the above

Answer: A


2. Which of the following refers to the associative memory?

    A. the address of the data is generated by the CPU
    B. the address of the data is supplied by the users
    C. there is no need for an address i.e. the data is used as an address
    D. the data are accessed sequentially
    E. None of the above

Answer: C


3. To avoid the race condition, the number of processes that may be simultaneously inside their critical section is

    A. 8
    B. 1
    C. 16
    D. 0
    E. None of the above

Answer: B


4. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a form suitable for execution

    A. assembler
    B. linking loader
    C. cross compiler
    D. load and go
    E. None of the above

Answer: B


5. Process is

    A. program in High level language kept on disk
    B. contents of main memory
    C. a program in execution
    D. a job in secondary memory
    E. None of the above

Answer: C

1. How many digits of the DNIC (Data Network Identification Code) identify the country?

    A. first three
    B. first four
    C. first five
    D. first six
    E. None of the above

Answer: A


2. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocols?

    A. The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed
    B. The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
    C. RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
    D. RIPv2 supports classless routing

Answer: B


3. What is route poisoning?

    A. It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stops the regular updates. The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
    B. It is information received from a router that can’t be sent back to the originating router.RIPv2 supports classless routing
    C. It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come up
    D. It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity

Answer: D


4. Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2?

    A. It has a lower administrative distance than RIPv1
    B. It converges faster than RIPv1
    C. It has the same timers as RIPv1
    D. It is harder to configure than RIPv1

Answer: C


5. Which of the situations might not require require multiple routing protocols in a network?

    A. When a new Layer 2-only switch is added to the network
    B. When you are migrating from one routing protocol to another
    C. When you are using routers from multiple vendors
    D. When there are host-based routers from multiple vendors

Answer: A

1. _______________ is not a web browser.

    A. FOXPRO
    B. Mozilla
    C. Netscape navigator
    D. Internet explorer

Answer: A


2. What is internet?

    A. a single network
    B. a vast collection of different networks
    C. interconnection of local area networks
    D. none of the mentioned

Answer: B


3. To join the internet, the computer has to be connected to a

    A. internet architecture board
    B. internet society
    C. internet service provider
    D. none of the mentioned

Answer: C


4. Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a local telephone network is provided by

    A. leased line
    B. digital subscriber line
    C. digital signal line
    D. none of the mentioned

Answer: B


5. ISP exchanges internet traffic between their networks by

    A. internet exchange point
    B. subscriber end point
    C. isp end point
    D. none of the mentioned

Answer: A

1. What happens if you press Ctrl + Shift + F8?

    A. It activates extended selection
    B. It activates the rectangular selection
    C. It selects the paragraph on which the insertion line is.
    D. None of These

Answer: B


2. What happens if you press Ctrl + Shift + F8?

    A. It activates extended selection
    B. It activates the rectangular selection
    C. It selects the paragraph on which the insertion line is.
    D. None of These

Answer: B


3. What is the shortcut key you can press to create a copyright symbol?

    A. Ctrl + Shift + C
    B. Ctrl + C
    C. Alt + C
    D. Alt+Ctrl+C

Answer: D


4. The keystrokes Ctrl + I is used to

    A. Increase font size
    B. Inserts a line break
    C. Applies italic format to selected text
    D. Indicate the text should be bold

Answer: C


5. Which of the following function key activates the speller?

    A. F3
    B. F6
    C. F7
    D. F11

Answer: C

1. What is database?

A database is a collection of information that is organized. So that it can easily be accessed, managed, and updated.


2. What is DBMS?

DBMS stands for Database Management System. It is a collection of programs that enables user to create and maintain a database.


3. What is a Database system?

The database and DBMS software together is called as Database system.


4. What are the advantages of DBMS?

    I. Redundancy is controlled.
    II. Providing multiple user interfaces.
    III. Providing backup and recovery
    IV. Unauthorized access is restricted.
    V. Enforcing integrity constraints.


5. What is normalization?

It is a process of analysing the given relation schemas based on their Functional Dependencies (FDs) and primary key to achieve the properties

(1).Minimizing redundancy, (2). Minimizing insertion, deletion and update anomalies.

1. Base 10 refers to which number system?

    A. binary coded decimal
    B. decimal
    C. octal
    D. hexadecimal

Answer: B


2. The base of the hexadecimal system is:

    A. eight.
    B. sixteen.
    C. ten.
    D. two.

Answer: B


3. Assign the proper even parity bit to the code 1100001.

    A. 11100001
    B. 1100001
    C. 01100001
    D. 01110101

Answer: A


4. Select one of the following statements that best describes the parity method of error detection.

    A. Parity checking is best suited for detecting single-bit errors in transmitted codes.
    B. Parity checking is not suitable for detecting single-bit errors in transmitted codes.
    C. Parity checking is capable of detecting and correcting errors in transmitted codes.
    D. Parity checking is best suited for detecting double-bit errors that occur during the transmission of codes from one location to another.

Answer: A


5. How many BCD code bits and how many straight binary bits would be required to represent the decimal number 643?

    A. 12 BCD, 12 binary
    B. 12 BCD, 10 binary
    C. 12 BCD, 9 binary
    D. 16 BCD, 9 binary

Answer: C

1. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the

    A. transport layer
    B. network layer
    C. application layer
    D. session layer

Answer: B


2. WPA2 is used for security in

    A. ethernet
    B. Bluetooth
    C. wi-fi
    D. none of the mentioned

Answer: C


3. Which of the following is not a valid input to the PRF in SSLv3?

    A. secret value
    B. identifying label
    C. initialization vector
    D. secret value

Answer: C


4. Which of the following alert codes is not supported by SSLv3?

    A. record_overflow
    B. no_certificate
    C. internal_error
    D. decode_error

Answer: B


5. Which key exchange technique is not supported by SSLv3?

    A. Anonymous Diffie-Hellman
    B. Fixed Diffie-Hellman
    C. RSA
    D. Fortezza

Answer: D


IBPS PO – Reasoning Ability Study GuideClick Here

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